Load-Bearing Walls: Getting Cardiovascular Therapy Right the First Time -RECORDED WEBINAR

Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

Identify high-risk cardiovascular medications that are most commonly associated with preventable adverse drug events amid transitions of care

Describe evidence-based principles for precise cardiovascular medication dosing, including clinically relevant pharmacokinetic considerations that influence drug and dose selection

Explain the benefits and limitations of clinical decision support tools in cardiovascular pharmacotherapy

Recognize common system-level and cognitive factors contributing to cardiovascular medication near misses and adverse effects

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs) for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-009-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

1. Which of the following medications would be considered high risk for error during the medication reconciliation process?

Apixaban
Citalopram
Fexofenadine

2. Upon daily chart review, you identify that Jack has an AKI and review his medications for necessary adjustments. Which of the following is most appropriate regarding his apixaban?

Continue to hold anticoagulation given increased bleeding risk
Stop apixaban and start rivaroxaban 15mg daily instead
Consider transitioning to heparin via aPTT measurement until AKI resolves

3. The team decides to start Jack on oral amiodarone 400mg TID x 3 days, 200 mg TID x 3 days, then 200 mg daily. Which of the following is most important for the pharmacist to ensure at discharge?

Ensure the prescription is sent to the patient's home pharmacy for easy refills
Confirm that thyroid function tests are ordered and assessed before starting the amiodarone
Suggest starting sotalol instead for better rate control

4. Which strategy can optimize clinical decision support for high-risk cardiac medications?

Prevent ordering of any anticoagulant except apixaban to ensure standardization
Integrate most recent SCr values and dosing recommendations into sotalol orders
Block order entry of amiodarone by prescribers if all baseline labs are not checked

5. The Epic medical record has the advantage of having access from outside health systems. The VAMC has a secure medical record that cannot be accessed. Jack gets most of his care and his medications at the VA. Which of the following factors increases his risk for experiencing medication errors?

Fragmented medical records
Use of a single pharmacy
Poor insurance coverage

6. Jack's SCr is stable but remains elevated. Following diuresis, he is found to be cachectic and euvolemic with a “dry" weight of 58 kg. You recommend decreasing his apixaban to 2.5 mg BID but receive pushback from the provider as "this was his home dose." What kind of bias does this reflect?

Anchoring bias
Automation bias
Availability bias

LAW: The Legal Blueprint: Designing Error-Proof Pharmacy Policies -RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs) for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-010-H03-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

The Legal Blueprint: Designing Error-Proof Pharmacy Policies

Pharmacist Post-test

After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

RECALL the key governing bodies and their roles
RECOGNIZE important details, dates, and timelines for a pharmacy manager
DESCRIBE the duties of pharmacy technicians and interns
DETERMINE the roles and responsibilities of a pharmacy manager
IDENTIFY key pharmacy laws that pharmacy managers should implement in practice

1. Which government agency creates and enforces regulations for all consumer products, including pharmaceuticals?

a. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b. The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

c. The Joint Commission (TJC)

2. According to federal law, pharmacies looking to receive Medicare reimbursement must retain prescription records for how many years?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Ten

3. What state requirements led to local controversy and pharmacy closures in Maine and other rural states?

a. Pharmacy technician ratios

b. Hours of operation

c. Electronic prescribing laws

4. How do interns and technicians differ in their responsibilities?

a. Interns can perform pharmacist tasks including compounding, dispensing medications, and other services with pharmacist supervision

b. Interns can receive refill authorizations from practitioners, given the prescription is identical to the previous refill and not a controlled substance

c. Interns can verify prescriptions filled by other interns or technicians for all medications except controlled substances

5. What technician certification is required in some states, but allows pharmacies in other states to have higher technician:pharmacist ratios?

a. Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT)

b. Bachelor of Science

c. Pharmacy Intern License

6. Which of the following BEST describes the pharmacy manager's responsibilities?

a. Licensing statuses of other pharmacy personnel.

b. Maintaining the pharmacy in clean, sanitary order.

c. Managing everything that occurs in their pharmacy.

7. Which of the following are federal compliance training requirements for staff members to complete annually and/or upon hire?

a. Pseudoephedrine, Fraud, Waste, & Abuse, and HIPAA

b. Phenylephrine, Fraud, Waste, & Abuse, and HIPAA

c. Pseudoephedrine, Fraud, Waste, & Abuse, and pharmaceutical calculations

8. Before prescribing contraceptives to a patient, which of the following must pharmacists complete?

a. Review OBRA 1990 policies and procedures to ensure they are following the United States Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use.

b. Complete extra courses for training and screening patients upon request for contraceptives as required by the state.

c. Nothing. After recent law changes pharmacists are eligible to prescribe any contraceptive upon request of the patient.

9. A shopper, not a registered patient, comes to your pharmacy counter and asks your technician to purchase hypodermic needles. How is your technician taught to proceed?

a. Any patient can receive hypodermic needles with a prescription. Because the patient is presenting without one, they cannot receive any needles.

b. Many states limit the sale of over-the-counter needle sales; the technician may sell needles over-the-counter up to that limit.

c. Your technician can sell hypodermic needles over-the-counter, but it can only be to regular patients that you recognize with special diagnoses. Notify the patient they can receive needles if they have their prescriptions transferred from their regular pharmacy.

10. In terms of pharmacy, what was the original goal of OBRA 1990?

a. Retrospective DURs could help the federal government make more money and cut financial deficits.

b. Improving the quality of dispensing for medicaid beneficiaries.

c. Develop a series of record keeping requirements for pharmacy licensing.

Patient Safety: Blueprints Before Builds: Patient Assessment in Clinical Decision-Making -RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs) for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-013-H05-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

Blueprint Before Builds: Patient Assessment in Clinical Decision-Making

Post-Test Questions for Enduring Recorded Webinar

26-013

1.Which of the following correctly lists the components of the Pharmacists’ Patient Care Process?

a. Implement, Follow Up, Collect, Determine

b. Organize, Manage, Follow Up, Plan

c. Collect, Assess, Plan, Implement, Follow Up: Monitor and Evaluate

2. Is the medication list an objective or subjective data?

a. Objective

b. Subjective

c. Can be both objective and subjective data

3. What is PQRSTAU?

a. A mnemonic for questions to ask a patient presenting with a chief concern.

b. A mnemonic for the elements of social determinants of health.

c. A mnemonic for items to determine medication appropriateness.

4. What is a potential pitfall in the Assessment step of the Pharmacists’ Patient Care Process?

a. Taking into account the contributions of social determinants of health in the evaluation of the patient’s health status.

b. Understanding that the patient’s most important health priority (ie, the patient’s problem #1) may not be the same as that of the healthcare professional.

c. Not asking the “why” question if a patient has declined a treatment recommendation.

5. What is one strategy that healthcare professionals can utilize to prioritize patient-centered care into the patient assessment and decision-making process?

a. Ask the patient about their goals for their medical condition(s) and overall health and engage in shared decision-making as part of the treatment plan.

b. Remind the patient that you as a healthcare professional know best and encourage them to comply with the treatment plan.

c. Collect data from the patient only to minimize biases from others such as the caregiver or visiting nurse.

6. What are the components of the 4M Framework for Age Friendly Health Systems that can be applied to clinical decision-making when caring for older adults?

a. What Matters, Medications, Mentation, Mobility

b. Monitoring, Motivation, Money, Mindset

c. Medication, Management, Monitoring, Measurement

Right Fit, Tight Seal: Building Better Cancer Care -RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs) for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-012-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

Right Fit, Tight Seal: Building Better Cancer Care

26-012 P Home study

Posttest Questions

Cancer patients are often met with varying degrees of fear and stigma which can negatively impact their outcomes. Which of the following is the best method to mitigate these concerns?
1. Affirming that cancer is a medical condition rather than the consequence of poor personal choices
2. Encouraging patients to hold questions and concerns until you complete all aspects of medication counseling
3. Requesting that family and friends remain out of these counseling discussions as to not violate HIPPA

Patients and healthcare professionals alike often encounter overlapping barriers in their pursuit of obtaining and providing quality care. What are some common barriers?
1. Treatment complexity, adherence and tolerability, cost and accessibility
2. Workplace burnout, annual salary, insurance approvals
3. Image and self-worth, fear and misconception, treatment burden

The current lifetime probability of developing any cancer in the United States is one in three people. Which age group is most commonly affected?
1. Children and adults 0 to 30 years of age
2. Adults 30 to 49 years of age
3. Those 50 years of age and older

Which of the following barriers to care do both patients and providers share as concerns?
1. Managing adverse events and assessing their impact on quality of life
2. Alleviating patient fears with education and defining goals of therapy
3. Navigating drug-drug interactions with complex treatment regimens

A large population of the United States remains uninsured or underinsured. What options are available for these populations to help patients afford treatment?
1. 340b programs, grants, free drug programs
2. 340b programs, Mark Cuban Cost Plus Drug, free drug programs
3. Manufacturer copay cards, discount cards, Medicare payment plan (M3P)

A Medicare patient has a high copay for his oncology drugs. He calls Medicare and asks if he can use an American Cancer Society grant, a free drug program, or a Manufacturer Copay Card. Which programs does the Medicare representative say are OK to use?
1. An American Cancer Society grant, a Free Drug Program
2. A Free Drug Program, a Manufacturer Copay Card
3. A Manufacturer Copay Card, an American Cancer Society grant

So Much STI Data: Information to help you stay current and informed – RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour for completing the activity (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-25-030-H01-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

1.) A 19-year-old female is at the clinic. She had recent unprotected sexual intercourse with her partner. She has not had any previous STI screenings. Which STIs are indicated for screening at this time?
a. HIV, gonorrhea, and chlamydia
b. Gonorrhea, chlamydia, and syphilis
c. Chlamydia, syphilis, and HPV

2.) Which of the following STIs have shown a continued increase in incidence based on 2023 data?
a. Congenital syphilis
b. Gonorrhea in the population
c. Chlamydia cases in men

3.) After completing gonorrhea treatment, when should a clinician re-screen the patient?
a. 1 month after completing treatment
b. 3 months after completing treatment
c. 1 year after completing treatment

4.) What is the guideline-based treatment recommendation for a 200 lb male patient with a confirmed gonorrhea and chlamydia co-infection?
a. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x 1 and azithromycin 1000 mg PO x 1
b. Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1 and doxycycline 100 mg PO BID x 7 days
c. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x 1 and doxycycline 100 mg PO BID x 7 days

5.) Which population should receive seven days of treatment with metronidazole for trichomoniasis?
a. Young males 15 – 24 years old
b. Males 25 – 45 years old
c. Females of any age

6.) A pregnant patient is positive for primary syphilis. What is the guideline recommended treatment for her?
a. 2.4 million units benzathine penicillin G IM x 1
b. 2.4 million units benzathine penicillin G IM x 3 weekly doses
c. 100 mg PO doxycycline 2 time daily doses for 28 days
7.) Which of the following is a newly approved type of product that will increase patient access?
a. OTC bacterial Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis
b. OTC home screening tests for STIs
c. OTC HIV Post Exposure Prophylaxis

8.) What should pharmacists warn healthcare providers about regarding possible alternatives during a shortage of Bicillin LA for syphilis?
a. Impact of HIV cases
b. Adverse effects from the frequent use of the medication
c. Antimicrobial resistance

9.) You are working with emergency department physicians to manage a shortage of ceftriaxone. One concern is the treatment of gonorrhea. Which of the following would be a stewardship principle applied to this STI management choice?
a. Use the most recent antibiotic approved for the indication
b. Use alternative based on narrowest effect spectrum and incorporating local resistance data, if known
c. Choose an alternative that will also cover other STIs just in case

Patient Safety: Anticoagulation Stewardship: Identifying Key Data, Avoiding Errors, and Enhancing Safety – RECORDED WEBINAR

Learning Objectives

Differentiate high-priority, practice-changing information from less relevant or conflicting data after reviewing the anticoagulation guidelines, literature and clinical updates.

Recognize common anticoagulation-related errors in pharmacy practice and implement strategies to minimize patient safety risks

Identify red flag situations in anticoagulation management that pose patient safety risks.

Determine the appropriate guidelines or evidence-based resources to guide clinical decision-making and referrals

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour for completing the activity (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-25-029-H05-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

1. Which of the following BEST represents a high-priority takeaway from current guideline recommendations for DOAC use in atrial fibrillation?
a) DOACs are preferred over warfarin in all patients with AF
b) Apixaban is the only DOAC that does not require renal dosing adjustments
c) DOACs should not be used in patients with mechanical heart valves

2. A 68-year-old male with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (weight 60 kg, age 78) and SCr 1.4 mg/dL is started on apixaban. Which of the following would be considered a dosing error?
a) apixaban 5 mg BID
b) apixaban 2.5 mg BID
c) warfarin with a target INR of 2–3

3. A 55-year-old female patient with atrial fibrillation (weight 75 kg, SCr 1.6 mg/dL) and recent MI has been taking apixaban 5 mg BID, clopidogrel 75 mg daily, aspirin 81 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg for the past 7 months. Which of the following should be considered a red flag that would prompt pharmacist stewardship at this point?
a) Use of aspirin in combination with DAPT
b) Use of clopidogrel in a patient with CAD
c) Use of apixaban for stroke prevention at the incorrect dose

4. You are managing a patient with cirrhosis (Child-Pugh Class B) who requires anticoagulation for VTE. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
a) Prescribe rivaroxaban using its complete prescribing information recommendation
b) Refer to hepatology/hematology to discuss bleeding risk and treatment alternatives
c) Use warfarin because it’s always the safest anticoagulant in liver disease

5. A patient newly started on warfarin reports they “just stopped eating leafy greens” to be safe. What is the best pharmacist action?
a) Encourage the patient to continue avoiding all vitamin K-containing foods
b) Educate that consistent vitamin K intake is more important than avoiding it
c) Schedule weekly INR checks and adjust the warfarin dose aggressively

Information overload in Chronic Coronary Disease – RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour for completing the activity (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-25-028-H01-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

1. A female patient is interested in lifestyle modification. Which of the following would you recommend?
a. Switch from EVOO to coconut oil
b. Switch from smoking weed to “doing” crystal methamphetamine
c. Limit alcohol to a maximum of 1 drink a day

2. A patient with CCD is determined to have “high risk” of experiencing an ASCVD event. The patient cannot receive high- or even moderate-intensity statins due to a history of significant rises in liver enzymes 8-10 weeks after initiation on two occasions. Which is true of the patient’s recommended lipid regimen?
a. The patient needs high-intensity statin regardless of the liver issues and ezetimibe should be added if the LDL on the statin is over 70mg/dL
b. The patient could receive a low intensity statin + a PCSK9 inhibitor and if the LDL remains over 70mg/dL, ezetimibe can be added
c. The patient could receive a PCSK9 inhibitor and if the LDL remains over 70mg/dL, ezetimibe can be added

3. Why can’t metoprolol tartrate be used to terminate a new onset angina pectoris event?
a. Because the onset of action is 30 minutes, and the maximum effect is felt 2 hours after ingestion
b. Because I am a pharmacist and I said so, that’s why
c. Because metoprolol does not work on the coronary arteries and only coronary dilators can be used for acute angina pectoris events

4. A student is explaining the PPCP process to you. Which of the following statements would you question and ask the student to research?
a. The PPCP process helps structure an assessment to be sure that important drug related problems are all included
b. Major pharmacy organizations agreed upon this process to show regulators, clinicians, patients, payers and insurers our unique patient services
c. “PPCP” is an old term; major professional organizations have replaced it with the subjective-objective-assessment-plan process

5. When would it be useful to recommend nitroglycerin spray instead of sublingual nitroglycerin?
a. In a patient taking an anticholinergic
b. In a patient taking an SSRI
c. In a patient taking benzodiazepines

6. JP is a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis and chronic coronary disease. He has an hsCRP test taken and the level is 7.2 mg/dL. Would this patient be a candidate for colchicine therapy according to the AHA/ACC Guideline and why or why not?
a. Yes, colchicine should be used in all people with elevated hsCRP
b. Yes, colchicine should be used in all patients regardless of hsCRP
c. No, specific disease modifying antirheumatic drug are used in patients with RA

7. AT is a patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, who also has chronic coronary disease. Would an SGLT2 inhibitor or a GLP-1 agonist be preferred for the treatment of this patient?
a. Neither drug should be used at all
b. The SGLT-2 inhibitor would be preferred
c. The GLP-1 agonist would be preferred

8. WC is a patient who just had a PCI procedure but also has atrial fibrillation and is treated with rivaroxaban. What is the proper regimen to prevent stent occlusion?
a. Clopidogrel + aspirin + rivaroxaban for one month, then clopidogrel + rivaroxaban for 5 months, then just rivaroxaban alone thereafter
b. Clopidogrel + aspirin + rivaroxaban for six months, then clopidogrel + rivaroxaban for 6 months, then just rivaroxaban alone thereafter
c. Clopidogrel + aspirin + rivaroxaban for 12 months, then rivaroxaban + clopidogrel then rivaroxaban for 6 months, then rivaroxaban alone

Information overload to action: Decoding academic concepts for pharmacy preceptors- RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour for completing the activity (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-25-026-H04-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

1. Joey is an IPPE student under your supervision this month. He observes as you meet with a patient who has a question about various options to treat psoriasis. You tell the patient you will get back to him about medications covered by his plan, out of pocket costs, the time burden associated with treatment, and potential adverse effects. Joey wants to help. What can Joey do?
A. Collect information, asking for help if or when he needs it
B. Observe how you collect information but assess independently
C. Collect information only under direct and proactive supervision

2. Phoebe is an APPE student in her first clinical rotation. She aspires to obtain an industry fellowship and hopes to receive the best grade possible on this rotation with the least work. She says, "I don't plan to work in a clinical position, so this is not a priority for me. What is the BEST answer?
A. The PPCP is not just applicable to clinical situations. It structures processes for all kinds of projects, not just clinical challenges.
B. Most students who aspire to work in industry do not get fellowships, and you need to know the PPCP if you land in an actual pharmacy.
C. Say nothing. Allow Phoebe to do minimal work.

3. Rachel is on her last APPE rotation before graduation. YAY! She works up a patient who has a cardiac issue. She collects a lot of appropriate information, and her assessment is almost perfect. She makes one statement that seems "off" to you. She recommends using a medication that is no longer first-line treatment. What is the MOST LIKELY cause for her omission?
A. She relied on only one guideline for evidence
B. She collects too much information and is confused
C. She is hyper-focused on cost, not effectiveness

4. Joey is now an APPE student on a general medicine rotation. You assign him a patient to review for your discussion this afternoon. When Joey joins you, he provides background information on the patient, reports on the physical notes, pertinent laboratory values and his conversation with the patient. What step of the Pharmacist Patient Care Process is Joey demonstrating?
A. Collect
B. Assess
C. Plan

5. Ross, an APPE student on your ambulatory care rotation, is writing up a SMART goal for his patient with diabetes. The goal reads “Reduce the patient’s blood glucose within six months. Patient will start metformin XL 500mg PO daily and follow up with the pharmacy team for titration every seven days. Reduction in the patient’s A1c will lead to better health outcomes and reduce the severity of complications from his diabetes.” What part of the SMART goal is Ross missing?
A. Specific
B. Measurable
C. Realistic

6. What is the performance goal for a “practice ready” APPE student in terms of level of entrustability on each of the entrustable professional activities (EPAs)?
A. Direct supervision
B. Reactive supervision
C. General Direction

Law: Understanding Disabled Pharmacy Patients’ Right to Nondiscrimination-RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour for completing the activity (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-25-027-H03-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

1. What was Congress’ purpose when it wrote the definition of “individual with a disability”:
A. To make it easier for people with disabilities to be covered by federal law
B. To restrict coverage to people with certain medical diagnoses
C. To only cover people with physical impairments

2. When may a pharmacist refuse to administer the flu shot to a person with HIV?
A. If the patient is in a rehabilitation program for using illegal drugs.
B. If the patient hasn’t made an appointment ahead of time and all patients must make appointments ahead of time.
C. If special gloves are not available for administering shots to people with communicable diseases.

3. A patient enters the pharmacy with a dog, and you are not sure if it’s a service animal or not. Which of the following questions may you ask the patient?
A. What is the nature and extent of your disability?
B. Do you need the dog to be present because of a physical, sensory, psychiatric, intellectual or other mental disability?
C. Is the dog required because of a disability?

4. A patient enters the pharmacy with a dog. When you ask what tasks the dog has been trained to perform, the patient says that it is a comfort animal and has undergone no training. Can you ask the patient to leave and come back without the comfort animal?
A. No, because comfort animals are considered service animals under federal law.
B. Yes, because comfort animals are not protected by federal law.
C. No, because that would be discrimination.

5. A patient enters the pharmacy with a bulldog. When you ask if the patient needs the bulldog because of a disability, the patient says yes. Can you exclude the bulldog?
A. No, because a service animal cannot be excluded based solely on its breed.
B. Yes, because bulldogs are known to be aggressive.
C. Yes, because the patient has not disclosed their specific disability in response to your question.

6. If a patient enters the pharmacy using a mobility device, a pharmacist is permitted to inquire about which of the following?

A. The nature and extent of the patient’s disability.
B. What paperwork the patient has with them to prove that the mobility device has been serviced recently.
C. Whether the mobility device is needed because of the patient’s disability.

Law: People are not Cows and Off-label Prescribing is Utterly Different – RECORDED WEBINAR

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour for completing the activity (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-018-H03-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

1. Off label drug uses generally do not become on-label uses. What is a primary reason for this?
A. There is a financial disincentive to manufacturers.
B. The FDA has no easy mechanism to accomplish this.
C. Manufacturers want to emphasize their drug’s primary.

2. You have a sick cow. Which of the following is correct about the type of drug that can be used for treatment?
A. Any drug approved by the FDA for human use.
B. A drug approved for use in chickens if there is no comparable drug approved for cows.
C. A drug that can be compounded by a pharmacist and added to the cow's feed.

3. What category of drugs has the highest rate of off-label use? (Prior to the pandemic.)
A. Anti-seizure drugs
B. Anti-depressants
C. Antibiotics
4. Why does the FDA take a hands-off approach to off-label use?
A. The FDA is not permitted to prevent manufacturers from touting an unapproved use once a drug has been approved.
B. The FDA does not regulate the practice of medicine.
C. The FDA can only act after it receives information of unintended consequences from off-label use.

5. When may a pharmacist recommend an OTC human drug for an animal?
A. Under any circumstances so long as it is not a food animal.
B. When there is no comparable veterinary product available.
C. A pharmacist may not recommend a human OTC drug for use in an animal.

6. Which of the following is a notable risk associated with illicit use of xylazine?
A. Naloxone-resistant overdose
B. Whole body rash and desquamation
C. Respiratory depression

7. The FDA was sued for publishing a warning about the off-label use of ivermectin for COVID. What was the basis of the lawsuit?
A. The FDA cannot prevent physicians from prescribing a drug off-label and need not issue warnings.
B. The FDA's warning on ivermectin was erroneous and used misplaced humor to try to sway opinions.
C. In publishing warning overstepped the FDA’s authority and interfered with the doctor-patient relationship.

About this Course

Learning Objectives

Additional Information

Accreditation Statement

Grant Funding

Faculty

Faculty Disclosure

Disclaimer

CONTENT

Posttest

Handouts

About this Course

Learning Objectives

Additional Information

Accreditation Statement

Grant Funding

Faculty

Faculty Disclosure

Disclaimer

CONTENT

Posttest

Handouts

About this Course

Learning Objectives

Additional Information

Accreditation Statement

Grant Funding

Faculty

Faculty Disclosure

Disclaimer

CONTENT

Posttest

Handouts

About this Course

Learning Objectives

Additional Information

Accreditation Statement

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Accreditation Statement

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Learning Objectives

Accreditation Statement

Grant Funding

Faculty

Faculty Disclosure

Disclaimer

Content

Handouts

Post Test Pharmacist

Learning Objectives

Accreditation Statement

Grant Funding

Faculty

Faculty Disclosure

Disclaimer

Content

Handouts

Post Test Pharmacist

Learning Objectives

Accreditation Statement

Grant Funding

Faculty

Faculty Disclosure

Disclaimer

Content

Handouts

Post Test Pharmacist