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ACUTE AND CHRONIC HYPERKALEMIA: TREATMENT OPTIONS, POTASSIUM BINDERS, AND CLINICAL CASES

Learning Objectives

 

After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

·       Identify foods that cause hyperkalemia
·       List medications that cause hyperkalemia
·       Compare and contrast medications that manage acute and chronic hyperkalemia
·       Determine the best agent to manage hyperkalemia in each case study

After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:

·       Identify foods that cause hyperkalemia
·       List medications that cause hyperkalemia
·       Describe the dosing and storage information of patiromer and SZC
·       Describe the steps of the drug prior authorization process

 

    A patient has his heart rhythm monitored due to his hyperkalemia.

     

    Release Date: May 15, 2024

    Expiration Date: May 15, 2027

    Course Fee

    FREE

    There is no funding for this CE.

    ACPE UANs

    Pharmacist: 0009-0000-24-026-H01-P

    Pharmacy Technician:  0009-0000-24-026-H01-T

    Session Codes

    Pharmacist:  24YC26-FXB33

    Pharmacy Technician:  24YC26-BXF96

    Accreditation Hours

    2.0 hours of CE

    Accreditation Statements

    The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-026-H01-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

     

    Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

    The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

    Faculty

    Marvin Fong, PharmD, CDE
    Staff Pharmacist
    Beeman’s Highland Pharmacy
    San Bernadino, CA

    Faculty Disclosure

    In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

    Dr. Fong does not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

     

    ABSTRACT

    Hyperkalemia—high potassium levels—is a serious disorder that warrants appropriate treatment. Defined as a serum potassium level greater than 5.5 mEq (mmol/L), hyperkalemia can be asymptomatic or symptomatic. Severe hyperkalemia can cause irregular heart rhythms. Both drugs and foods can cause hyperkalemia. Medications for the management of acute and chronic hyperkalemia include calcium, insulin, beta-agonists, sodium bicarbonate, loop diuretics, and potassium binders. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS) has been a gold standard for chronic hyperkalemia for several decades. However, sodium overload can be a concern with SPS. Newer drugs such as patiromer and sodium zirconium cyclosilicate offer both safety and effectiveness, but they are costly alternatives. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians must be prepared to navigate the prior authorization process to seek coverage for these costly alternatives.

    CONTENT

    Content

    INTRODUCTION

    Did you know that all living cells need potassium to maintain cellular fluid balance? Potassium has many benefits. First, it helps muscles to contract. Second, it helps maintain blood pressure. Third, it helps regulate bodily fluids inside cells (intracellular). However, having too much potassium (hyperkalemia) may have a negative impact. Hyperkalemia may cause arrhythmia (irregular heart rhythm), which could be life-threatening. Hyperkalemia can be categorized into two main types: acute and chronic. Patients with chronic kidney disease are especially prone to elevated potassium levels.1

    Consider these situations:

    • Gonzalez comes to your pharmacy with a prescription for patiromer. The pharmacy technician attempted to bill her insurance, but the drug required prior authorization. What do you do next? What are the elements of a prior authorization process?
    • Williams comes to your pharmacy complaining about edema (swelling due to excess fluid). He has been taking sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS). His doctor asks you, the pharmacist, to recommend an alternative to SPS because of the sodium load concern. What would your response be? What would you recommend to replace SPS?

    Acute and chronic hyperkalemia continue to present as major medical dilemmas for healthcare professionals. There is no universally accepted guideline to treat them, and there is no universally accepted classification and monitoring frequency for hyperkalemia. Newer potassium binders, such as patiromer and sodium zirconium cyclosilicate (SZC), may allow optimal use of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system inhibitor (RAASi) therapy in patients with hyperkalemia. However, these newer therapies are costly alternatives to traditional treatment.

    Helping patients navigate the health insurance prior authorization process to seek coverage is a challenging task for pharmacists and pharmacy technicians. If a patient comes to your pharmacy with a prescription for a potassium binder, are you fully equipped to provide the patient with information regarding dosing, storage, and insurance authorization?

    Simply put, hyperkalemia is a general medical term that describes a higher-than-normal potassium level in the blood. Normally, a person’s extracellular (outside the cells/in the blood) potassium concentration falls between 3.5 to 5 mmol/L. Mild, moderate, and marked hyperkalemia are defined as potassium levels between 5 to 5.9 mmol/L, 6 to 7 mmol/L, and exceeding 7.0 mmol/L, respectively. While mild hyperkalemia requires monitoring and diet restriction, moderate and severe hyperkalemia may cause cardiac complications.2

     

    Epidemiology of Hyperkalemia

    Hyperkalemia is a common occurrence. A 2016 American study of 194,456 outpatients found that over a 3-year period, 10.8% of patients had potassium levels greater than 5 mEq/L and 2.3% of the patients had potassium levels greater than 5.5 mEq/L.3 A 2017 study conducted in a large Swedish healthcare system followed 364,955 participants over three years.4 The researchers defined hyperkalemia as potassium exceeding 5 mmol/L and moderate/severe hyperkalemia as potassium exceeding 5.5 mmol/L. Hyperkalemia occurred in 25,461 individuals (7%), and 9,059 individuals (2.5%) had moderate/severe hyperkalemia.4

     

    Elevated potassium levels are more common in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) than in patients without CKD. One study involving four clinical centers and 820 patients in the United States (U.S.) found that 8% of patients with CKD had hyperkalemia.5 A study involving 55,266 patients with glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 60 (an indicator of kidney dysfunction) enrolled in a managed care organization in the U.S. found that 5% of patients had potassium levels at or exceeding 5.5 mEq/L and 20% experienced potassium levels at or exceeding 5 mEq/L.5 A French study involving 1,038 patients found that 17% of those with stage 2 through 5 CKD had potassium levels at or exceeding 5 mEq/L.5 An additional study that enrolled 36,359 patients with stage 3 or 4 CKD found that 3% had potassium levels at or exceeding 5 mEq/L.5

    Hyperkalemia’s History

    Sir Humphry Davy at the Royal Institution in London first isolated potassium in 1807 using electrolysis of dry molten caustic potash (KOH, potassium hydroxide). Potassium is an alkali metal and silvery-white in color. It consists of 19 electrons and 19 protons. At 20°C, it has a density of 0.862 g/cm. Potassium is present in all meats, plants, and dairy products and is abundant in fruits and vegetables.6

     

    Potassium is important for maintaining cellular function. All cells have a sodium-potassium ATPase (Na+ -K+ ATPase) exchanger, which is partially responsible for maintaining the membrane potential. This serves as a basis for conduction of nerve impulse and stabilization of blood pressure.7 A diet rich in potassium has been associated with reducing blood pressure, lowering the risk of stroke and nephrolithiasis (kidney stones), and improving bone health.

     

    The body maintains potassium homeostasis through various means. Total body potassium content is achieved by alterations in renal (kidney) excretion of potassium in response to potassium intake. Insulin and beta-adrenergic tone (responsiveness of the autonomic nervous system) help regulate extracellular and intracellular content of potassium.7 In short, extreme low and high potassium levels are not compatible with life.

     

    PAUSE and PONDER: Did you know that a higher-than-normal potassium level (hyperkalemia) can cause neuromuscular symptoms such as muscle cramps and cardiovascular symptoms such as irregular heartbeat? What causes hyperkalemia?

     

    Causes and Clinical Manifestations

    Hyperkalemia has many causes, including but not limited to, tissue injury, insulin deficiency, exercise, medications, and excess dietary potassium intake8,9:

    • Trauma, massive hemolysis (destruction of red blood cells), and tumor lysis (rapid breakdown of cancer cells) may cause tissue injury, which in turn may cause hyperkalemia.
    • Insulin deficiency may cause hyperkalemia. Insulin regulates glucose concentration in the plasma and also causes potassium to move into cells until the kidneys have sufficient time to excrete the dietary potassium load and re-establish total-body potassium content.
    • During exercise, potassium is released from skeletal muscle cells and accumulates in the interstitial compartment (a small space in a tissue or between parts of the body), where it exerts a vasodilatory effect (widening of blood vessels).
    • Medications may cause hyperkalemia by interfering with the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). RAAS is a normal cascade that functions in the homeostatic control of arterial pressure, tissue perfusion, and extracellular volume. While many medications may offer cardiovascular benefits by deregulating the RAAS, they can cause concurrent hyperkalemia because the RAAS facilitates potassium excretion in the kidneys.
    • Medications such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), beta-blockers (e.g., atenolol, metoprolol, propranolol), cyclosporine, and tacrolimus may cause hyperkalemia by impairing the release of renin.
    • Angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors (ACEi) such as benazepril, captopril, enalapril, lisinopril, perindopril, and quinapril block the formation of angiotensin II. Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) such as azilsartan, candesartan, irbesartan, losartan, olmesartan, telmisartan, and valsartan prevent angiotensin II from binding to its adrenal receptor. Both mechanisms contribute to the development of hyperkalemia.
    • Heparin causes hyperkalemia by interfering with aldosterone biosynthesis in the adrenal gland.
    • Amiloride, pentamidine, triamterene, and trimethoprim block sodium reabsorption in the collecting tubule and reduce the negative potential of the lumen. By doing so, they reduce potassium secretion from the kidneys.
    • Spironolactone and eplerenone prevent aldosterone from binding with its receptor and increase the likelihood of hyperkalemia.

    Excess potassium intake contributes the development of hyperkalemia. Table 1 lists foods and their elemental potassium contents. Patients with CKD should adhere to a low potassium diet, but patients often find this difficult in real-world scenarios.10 In addition, potassium-rich diets (foods with more than 200 mg per serving are considered potassium-rich) have numerous health benefits including blood pressure reduction, reduction in risk of CKD progression, and cardiovascular disease and stroke prevention. A low potassium diet may present a treatment dilemma because it may prevent patients from receiving these benefits.10

    To prevent hyperkalemia, limited dietary potassium intake is necessary. Patients who are diagnosed with hyperkalemia or at risk of developing hyperkalemia should limit potassium intake from all sources including food, salt substitutes, and supplements to about 40 to 60 mEq (mmol) per day.11

     

    Table 1. Potassium Content of Selected Common Food and Salt Substitutes12

    Food Elemental Potassium Content
    Milligrams (mg) Milliequivalents (mEq)*
    Milk 350 9
    Apricot (5) 480 12
    Avocado 300 7-10
    Banana 451 12
    Cantaloupe (1/4) 412 11
    Kiwi 252 6
    Nectarine 288 7
    Orange 300 7
    Papaya (1/4) 390 10
    Peach 305 8
    Prunes, 5 dried 365 9
    Raisins (1/2 cup) 553 14
    Watermelon (1/16) 560 14
    Juices (serving size 4oz = 1/2 cup = 120ml)
    Apple juice 148 4
    Grapefruit juice 210 6
    Orange juice, frozen 252 7
    Pineapple juice 148 4
    Prune juice 301 8
    Tomato juice 225 6
    Nuts (serving size 1oz = 30 g)
    Almonds, dry roasted 210 5
    Cashews 187 4
    Salt substitutes (serving size ¼ cup)
    Examples: NoSalt, Nu-Salt 610-795 15-20
    Vegetables (Serving size 8 oz = 1 cup = 240ml)
    Acorn squash, cooked 896 23
    Beets 530 13
    Broccoli, frozen, cooked 332 9
    Brussel sprouts, cooked 494 13
    Butternut squash, cooked 583 15
    Collards, frozen, cooked 427 11
    Kidney beans, cooked 713 18
    Lentil, cooked 731 19
    Lettuce, 1 head Boston 419 10
    Mushrooms 550 14
    Pinto beans, cooked 800 20
    Potato, baked with skin 844 21
    Potato without skin 600 15
    Pumpkin, canned 506 12
    Soybeans, cooked 972 24
    Spinach, raw or cooked 838 21
    Split peas, cooked 710 18
    Sweet potato, baked with skin 350 9
    Tomato 251-273 7
    White navy beans, cooked 669 18
    Zucchini, cooked, sliced 456 12

    *Also equivalent to millimoles (mmol)

     

    PAUSE AND PONDER: In a reported case, an individual chewed and ingested burnt match heads in a condition called cautopyreiophagia. This activity resulted in a plasma potassium concentration of 8 mmol/L and contributed 80 mmol of daily potassium intake. What signs of hyperkalemia did he probably experience?

    Hyperkalemia is usually asymptomatic. However, neuromuscular and cardiac abnormalities may develop as hyperkalemia worsens. Neuromuscular manifestations of hyperkalemia can include paresthesia (tingling or prickling) and fasciculations (muscle twitching) in the arms and legs.8 Severe hyperkalemia can cause paralysis that leads to flaccid quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs).8 In addition to neuromuscular abnormalities, hyperkalemia may lead to electrocardiogram (ECG) changes. Hyperkalemia causes ECG changes in a dose-dependent manner 13:

    • Potassium levels between 5.5 to 6.5 mEq/L: ECG will show tall, peaked T waves
    • Potassium levels between 6.5 to 7.5 mEq/L: ECG will show loss of P waves
    • Potassium levels between 7 to 8 mEq/L: ECG will show widening of the QRS complex
    • Potassium levels between 8 to 10 mEq/L: ECG will produce cardiac arrhythmias, sine wave pattern, and asystole

     

    These cardiac abnormalities can lead to dysrhythmias and death.13

    TREATING HYPERKALEMIA

    In acute hyperkalemia, patients with potassium levels exceeding 6 mmol/L or patients have who hyperkalemia with any new ECG changes should be referred to a healthcare facility with cardiac monitoring. Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) recommends monitoring vital signs and cardiac changes.14 In hyperkalemic patients with ECG changes, KDIGO recommends treatment with calcium chloride, insulin, and beta-agonists. In patients with concomitant metabolic acidemia (lower blood pH), KDIGO recommends sodium bicarbonate. Subsequently, KDIGO considers the use of potassium-binding drugs and loop diuretics. KDIGO suggests dialysis in cases of persistently elevated potassium concentrations exceeding 6 mmol/L or ECG changes that are unresponsive to medical management.14

    Treatment of Acute Hyperkalemia

    Acute hyperkalemia is generally defined as a serum potassium concentration exceeding the upper limit of normal that is not known to be chronic.14 Currently, clinicians use no universal classification or monitoring for hyperkalemia. Similarly, no universally accepted treatment guidelines for acute and chronic hyperkalemia exist. Clinicians should not initiate treatment of acute hyperkalemia solely based on serum level of hyperkalemia; they should also consider patients’ clinical manifestations (e.g., ECG changes). Treatment options for acute hyperkalemia may include intravenous calcium gluconate, insulin, inhaled beta-agonists, intravenous sodium bicarbonate, and dialysis. Table 2 expounds on these treatment options.11

     

    Table 2. A Summary of Treatment Options for Acute Hyperkalemia11

    Treatment Option Dosage Advantage(s) Disadvantage(s)
    Intravenous calcium gluconate 1 gram via IV piggyback (small bag of solution attached to primary infusion line). Repeat in 5 minutes if needed Fast onset Dose not lower potassium level, only normalizes ECG changes
    Intravenous insulin 5–10 units or 0.1 units/kg, maximum 10 units Fast onset, most reliable treatment Usually given with dextrose to minimize hypoglycemia
    Inhaled beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) 10–20 mg via nebulizer Fast onset Inconsistent effect, nonselective beta-blockers such as propranolol and sotalol may be less effective
    Intravenous sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq, which is equivalent to 50 ml of 8.4 % sodium bicarbonate over 5 minutes. Repeat in 30 minutes as needed Work best with acidosis (pH < 7.2) Variable onset of action
    Dialysis Treatment given daily or a few days a week Reliable treatment to remove waste, effective method to attain norkalemia Extensive equipment and knowledge required to conduct treatment

    ECG, electrocardiogram; IV, intravenous.

    Intravenous calcium gluconate for acute hyperkalemia works by stabilizing membrane potential and normalizing ECG changes to prevents irregular heart rhythm. However, it does not lower serum potassium levels. It’s duration of effect ranges from 15 minutes to one hour. It may cause adverse effects such as local irritation, hypercalcemia (elevated calcium levels), hypotension (low blood pressure), and bradycardia (slowed heart rate). If no effect is observed in five minutes, another dose may be given.10

    Intravenous insulin works by shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular space. It has an onset of 15 to 30 minutes and a duration of four to six hours. It may cause hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) and hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Clinicians typically give intravenous insulin with glucose to prevent hypoglycemia during acute hyperkalemia treatment.10

    Inhaled beta-agonists act within 30 minutes to redistribute potassium from the extracellular to intracellular space. It has an onset of 30 to 60 minutes and duration of effect from two to four hours. Adverse effects include tachycardia (elevated heart rate), tremor, vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), and hyperglycemia.10

    Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is another option to treat acute hyperkalemia. It lowers serum potassium levels by increasing potassium elimination through the urine. It has an onset of action of 30 minutes to four hours and a duration of effect of approximately two hours. Possible adverse events include hypocalcemia, metabolic alkalosis (elevated blood pH), hypernatremia (elevated sodium), fluid overload, worsening hypertension, and heart failure.10

    Patients may receive one of two types of dialysis: peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis. Peritoneal dialysis uses the lining of the abdominal cavity to filter body waste. A surgeon places a catheter in the abdominal cavity. The dialysis solution enters the abdominal cavity through the catheter and will drain out of the abdominal cavity. Hemodialysis, uses a machine to remove excess water and waste products. A machine removes blood from the body and infuses it through a filter. A dialysate solution flows on the other side of the membrane and draws impurities from the blood. Dialysis is an effective treatment for hyperkalemia.15

    Pause and Ponder: SPS used to be the “gold standard” in treating chronic hyperkalemia. What are the newer potassium binders? Are they safe and effective?

    Treatment of Chronic Hyperkalemia

    Chronic hyperkalemia is defined as recurrent episodes of elevated serum potassium concentrations.10 Treatment options include loop diuretics, RAASi dose modification, identification and removal of hyperkalemia-causing medications, and potassium binders.10

    Loop diuretics—often used for other indications, such as hypertension and heart failure—increase urinary potassium excretion at the collecting duct of the kidney. Providers commonly use furosemide, a loop diuretic, in chronic hyperkalemia. They often prescribe them with thiazides, ACEIs, and ARBs. However, loop diuretics have their limitations. They may cause volume depletion (reduced blood volume) and their effectiveness declines as renal function declines.11

    Another treatment option for chronic hyperkalemia is the modification of dosage or interruption of RAASi therapy. No generally accepted guidelines regarding this strategy in patients who experience hyperkalemia exist. However, the European Society of Cardiology recommends patients continue or titrate RAASi treatment to optimal doses in the event of mild hyperkalemia levels between 5.1 and 5.5 mEq/L and moderate hyperkalemia levels between 5.6 and 6 mEq/L.16

    Potassium binders—including SPS, SZC, and patiromer—are one of the most promising treatments for chronic hyperkalemia. In general terms, a patient will consume fluids with potassium binders. Potassium binders bind to potassium in the bowel and exchange with calcium, sodium and/or hydrogen, usually at the colon. The body will then excrete the potassium in the feces.17 Table 3 displays onset of action, mechanism of action, and common adverse effects of potassium binders.10 Note that all potassium binders have a relatively slow onset of action, making them inadequate therapies for acute hyperkalemia.

     

    Table 3. Selected Characteristics of Available Potassium Binders10, 20, 18, 19

    Drug Onset of Action Mechanism of Action Adverse Effects Usual adult starting dose
    Patiromer 7 hours Potassium binding in exchange for calcium in GI tract Abdominal discomfort, constipation, diarrhea, nausea, flatulence, hypomagnesemia 8.4 grams orally once daily
    Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate (SZC) 1–6 hours Potassium binding in exchange for hydrogen and sodium in GI tract Constipation, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, mild-to-moderate edema 5 grams orally once daily
    Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS)

     

    2-6 hours Potassium binding in exchange for sodium in GI tract constipation, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, gastric irritation, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, edema, hypokalemia, systemic alkalosis, intestinal necrosis

     

    15 to 60 grams orally daily

    GI, gastrointestinal.

     

    SPS, approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1958, has been the “gold standard” and the lone potassium binder for several decades. Its mechanism of action is potassium binding in exchange for sodium in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. However, its adverse effect profile is unfavorable and erratic. In fact, the FDA issued a warning for SPS regarding the risk of colonic necrosis (tissue death) and other GI adverse effects when used with sorbitol in 2009.10

    Patiromer is a potassium binder approved by the FDA in 2015. It works by binding potassium in exchange for calcium in the GI tract. To date, it has not caused serious adverse effects. Most of the adverse effects are GI disorders (e.g., constipation).10 Approved in 2018 by the FDA, SZC is the newest potassium binder. Its mechanism of action differs from patiromer. It binds potassium in exchange for hydrogen and sodium in the GI tract and its main site of action is in the small and large intestines. No serious adverse effects have been reported. Adverse effects are mild and usually GI disorders such as constipation.10 Veltassa (patiromer) comes in single-use packets containing 1 gram, 8.4 grams, 16.8 grams, or 25.2 grams. User should store Veltassa in the refrigerator at 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F).20

    Lokelma (SZC) comes in packets containing 5 grams or 10 grams. User should store Lokelma at 15°C to 30°C (59°F to 86°F).18

    COMPARING PATIROMER AND SZC

    Patiromer and SZC are safe and effective treatments for chronic hyperkalemia. They allow for continuance and optimal doses of RAASi in patients who develop hyperkalemia secondary to RAASi use. They also enable patients to experience optimal hemodialysis outcomes and can ease the dietary potassium restriction. Providers select a potassium binder based on safety and efficacy, cost, insurance coverage, and roles in the treatment of chronic hyperkalemia, which are discussed in detail below.

    Cost and Insurance Coverage

    Newer potassium binders are costly alternatives to traditional drugs for hyperkalemia. Table 4 lists their estimated out-of-pocket costs as of December, 25, 2023 according to GoodRx. The cost difference between patiromer and SZC is relatively small.21

    Table 4. Estimated Out-of-Pocket Costs of Patiromer and SZC22

    Drug Units Cost
    Patiromer 8.4 g x 4 Packs $ 181.53
    8.4 g x 30 Packs $ 940.61 – 989.34
    16.8 g x 30 Packs $ 940.61 – 989.34
    25.2 g x 30 Packs $ 940.61 – 989.34
    Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate (SZC) 10 g x 11 $ 289.27 – 324.67
    10 g x 30 $ 782.16 – 871.05
    5 g x 11 $ 289.40 – 324.67
    5 g x 30 $ 781.61 – 782.16

     

    Typical monthly costs associated with patiromer and SZC might be unaffordable for many Americans. However, the vast majority of patients have health plan coverage. (Note that the insurance discussions below are current as of January 2023.)

    The Humana website reveals that some Humana Medicare plans cover all doses of patiromer at tier 3 (i.e., they are covered with a prior authorization), while some plans cover only select doses of SZC. These Humana plans include, but are not limited to, Humana Gold Plus HMO H5619-150, Humana Community H7621-002, Humana Gold Plus HMO H5619-148, Humana Walmart Value Rx Plan PDP, Humana Basic Rx Plan PDP, and Humana Premier Rx Plan PDP.23 (Note that an HMO is a type of insurance with a network of contracted physicians and a PDP is a Medicare Part D prescription drug plan.)

    A cursory check on Scan Health Plans website reveals that Scan Medicare plans appear to cover all doses of patiromer at tier 3, while SZC is not on formulary. These Scan health plans include but are not limited to, Village Health, Scan Classic, and Scan Venture. These plans require a prior authorization on patiromer.24

    The Wellcare website indicates that Wellcare Medicare plans cover patiromer at tier 3 without a prior authorization. These plans include but are not limited to Wellcare Classic PDP, Wellcare Value Script PDP, and Wellcare Medicare RX Value Plus PDP. Interestingly, the Wellcare Dual Align 129 plan covers SZC at tier 1 and it requires no prior authorization. It’s important to remember that a covered drug does not mean free. Patiromer’s yearly copay costs (what a patient is required to pay) may exceed $2000, and SZC can cost patients more than $1000 annually.25

    Manufacturers of both SZC and patiromer offer $0 per month copay savings cards. To use these cards, patients must have commercial insurance that does not cover the full prescription cost or be uninsured and responsible for the full prescription cost. Patients who are ineligible for these savings cards include those who are26,27

    • enrolled in Medicare Part D, Medicaid, Medigap, Veterans Affairs, Department of Defense programs, or TriCare
    • Medicare eligible and enrolled in an employer-sponsored group waiver health plan or government-subsidized prescription drug benefit program for retirees

    Pharmacy staff can assist cash-paying patients without insurance contact drug manufacturers to inquire about their patient assistance programs.

    Breaking Down the Prior Authorization Process

    As noted, some health insurance plans require a prior authorization to cover the newer potassium binders such as patiromer and SZC. This means the insurance company requires extra steps to determine whether a specific medical treatment, procedure, medication, or service is medically necessary and covered under a patient's health insurance plan. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can initiate the prior authorization process. Familiarity with the prior authorization process for various insurance plans is imperative for pharmacy staff. Although insurance plans have different forms and requirements within the prior authorization process, the basic steps are the same.

    The major steps of the prior authorization process are as follows:

    1. Download prior authorization forms from the insurance company website to determine what they require
    2. Collect laboratory values, medical history, diagnosis, medical justification, drug history, rationale for request, and other pertinent patient information
    3. Complete the prior authorization forms
    4. Fax completed prior authorization forms to the insurance company or upload them via online platforms
    5. Start the appeal process if denied

    Pharmacists can enlist pharmacy technicians’ help to perform most or all of these steps.

    The prior authorization process can take up anywhere from one day to more than a week. It is important to explain to patients that a prior authorization requirement does not mean a medication is not covered. It simply means that the insurance company might need more information before it covers the medication.

    Pharmacy staff can sometimes initiate an appeal process if the insurer denies the medication. The most common reason for rejection/denial is insufficient supporting information. The other common reason for rejection/denial is drug class exclusion. For example, some Medicare part D plans do not cover certain drug classes. Once the provider or pharmacy submits an appeal, the insurance company usually takes one to two days to respond. Remember that manufacturer sponsored patient assistance programs can help patients who cannot afford the copay and patients who do not have insurance, and pharmacy staff can help patients with enrollment.

    Table 5 lists the contact information for selected insurance plans. However, most tasks or inquiries can be handled online.

    Table 5. Contact Information on Selected Insurance Plans28,23,24,25

    Plan Department Phone number
    Humana Humana Clinical Pharmacy Review Department 800-555-2546
    Express Scripts Express Scripts Coverage Review Department

     

    800- 753-2851
    Scan Medical Reviews Department 844-424-8886
    WellCare Pharmacy Appeals Department 855-538-0453

     

    Safety and Efficacy of Patiromer

    The phase 2, multicenter, open-label, randomized AMETHSYT-DN trial determined patiromer starting doses for a phase 3 study and evaluated the long-term safety and efficacy of patiromer in 306 outpatients with hyperkalemia. The mean reduction from baseline in serum potassium level at week 4 or time of first dose titration in patients with mild hyperkalemia was 0.35, 0.51, and 0.55 mEq/L for groups starting at 4.2 g twice daily, 8.4 g twice daily, and 12.6 g twice daily, respectively.29 For patients with moderate hyperkalemia, the reduction was 0.87, 0.97, and 0.92 mEq/L for patients starting at 8.4 g twice daily, 12.6 g twice daily, and 16.8 g twice daily, respectively.29

    From week four through week 52, AMETHYST-DN researchers observed statistically significant mean decreases in serum potassium levels. Over the 52-week-long trial, hypomagnesemia (7.2%) was the most common treatment-related adverse event and mild to moderate constipation (6.3%) was the most common GI adverse event. The researchers concluded that patiromer starting doses of 4.2 to 16.8 g twice daily resulted in statistically significant decreases in serum potassium levels after four weeks of treatment, lasting through 52 weeks.29

    The OPAL-HK clinical trial assessed the safety and efficacy of patiromer with an initial treatment phase and a withdrawal phase.30 Among 237 patients in the initial treatment phase, the mean change in serum potassium level was -1.01 mmol per liter. Among 107 patients in the randomized withdrawal phase, the median increase in potassium levels from baseline of that phase was greater with placebo than with patiromer. The most common adverse effect in the initial treatment phase was constipation (11%), followed by diarrhea (3%), hypomagnesemia (3%), and nausea (3%). The most common adverse effects of the randomized withdrawal phase in the patiromer group were headache, supraventricular extra systoles (heart rhythm irregularities), constipation, diarrhea, and nausea; all occurred in 4% of all patients.30

    Safety and Efficacy of SZC

    The phase 3, multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled HARMONIZE clinical trial evaluated SZC’s efficacy and safety for 28 days in outpatients with hyperkalemia at 44 sites in the U.S., Australia, and South Africa over six months.31 Patients received 10 g of SZC three times daily in the initial 48-hour open-label phase. Of the 258 patients, 237 patients achieved normokalaemia (normal potassium levels) with levels between 3.5 and 5 mEq/L and were randomized to receive SZC 5 g, 10 g, or 15 g or placebo daily for 28 days. In the open-label phase, serum potassium levels declined from 5.6 mEq/L at baseline to 4.5 mEq/L at 48 hours. In the randomized phase, serum potassium was significantly lower during days 8 through 29 with all SZC doses compared to placebo. Adverse events were comparable between SZC and placebo. Edema occurred more often in the 15 g group. Compared with placebo, all three doses of SZC resulted in lower potassium levels and a higher proportion of patients with normal potassium levels for up to 28 days.31

    The double-blind, placebo-controlled, phase 3b multicenter DIALIZE study evaluated SZC for the management of hyperkalemia in patients undergoing hemodialysis.32 The researchers randomized adults with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who were managed with hemodialysis three times weekly to SZC or placebo. These patients had pre-dialysis hyperkalemia and received SZC 5 g once daily on non-dialysis days. The researchers titrated doses to maintain normokalaemia over four weeks in 5 g increments to a maximum of 15 g. About 41.2% of patients in the SZC group responded to treatment compared with 1% of the 99 patients receiving placebo. Serious adverse events occurred in 7.3% of patients in the SZC group and 8.1 % of patients in the placebo group.32

    CASE STUDIES

    Hyperkalemia usually occurs as a result of other illnesses. Certain medical conditions such as advanced stages of CKD, heart failure, hypertension, diabetes, myocardial infarction, and/or any combinations of these conditions increase the risk of hyperkalemia.10 Treating the underlying diseases may alleviate the severity of hyperkalemia. While it’s critical to treat the whole patient, certain comorbidities are of utmost importance, including those imposing the greatest risks of morbidity and mortality. The key is to prioritize treatments according to the risks. Heart diseases, stroke, diabetes, and kidney diseases ranked first, fifth, eighth, and tenth, respectively, in the top 10 leading causes of death in the U.S. in 2021.33

    Case Study #1

    Joan Smith is a female patient born on June 18, 1956. She has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, ESRD, osteoarthritis, hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and hyperkalemia. Dr. Bach contacted the pharmacist to conduct a comprehensive medication therapy management (MTM) and suggest an alternative to replace SPS.

    Below is a list of selected recent lab values for Joan:

    Item Result Units Interval
    A1C 9.6 (H) N/A < 6.5
    BUN 28 (H) mg/dL 8 – 27
    Creatinine 2.3 (H) mg/dL 0.76 – 1.27
    Potassium 5.3 (H) mmol/L 3.5 – 5.2
    Sodium 145 (H) mmol/L 134 – 144
    Chloride 99 mmol/L 96 – 106
    Carbon dioxide 26 mmol/L 20 – 29
    Calcium 9.1 mg/dL 8.6 – 10.2
    Protein, total 8.2 (H) g/dL 6.8 – 8.0
    Albumin (A) 5.0 (H) g/dL 3.8 – 4.8
    Globulin (G), total 3.3 g/dL 1.5 – 4.5
    A/G ratio 1.6 N/A 1.2 – 2.2
    Bilirubin, total 0.4 mg/dL < 1.2

    A1C, hemoglobin A1C; BUN, blood urea nitrogen.

    Joan is taking the following medications:

    • NPH/regular human insulin 70/30 50 units subcutaneously twice daily
    • Lisinopril 20 mg orally once daily
    • SPS 60 mL orally as needed
    • Nephro-Vite 1 tablet orally once daily
    • Apixaban 5 mg orally twice daily
    • Aspirin 81 mg orally once daily
    • Ibuprofen 600 mg orally three times daily

     

    Joan’s A1C is out of range, so she would benefit from tighter blood sugar control. The pharmacist recommended changing NPH/regular human insulin (70/30) to lispro 16 units subcutaneously three times daily before meals and glargine 50 units subcutaneously once daily at bedtime. For Joan’s osteoarthritis, changing ibuprofen to acetaminophen 650 mg by mouth every eight hours is prudent because ibuprofen, an NSAID, may precipitate the development of hyperkalemia. While NSAIDs are not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease, clinicians should use the lowest dose possible for the shortest duration and avoid using NSAIDs at all in patients with severe kidney disease. Clinicians can consider a topical NSAID for mild osteoarthritis pain in smaller joints.34 Joan had mild hyperkalemia as indicated by her laboratory result. Her elevated BUN and creatinine values indicate that her renal function is insufficient. Joan’s sodium level is also elevated at 145 mmol/L. Both SPS and SZC can cause sodium overload, so they might not be the most appropriate choice for Joan. It may not be prudent to discontinue or reduce Joan’s lisinopril dose (RAASi therapy). Joan was advised to follow up with Dr. Bach at the next office visit.

    After a thorough teleconference with Dr. Bach, the pharmacist recommends starting patiromer with an initial dose of 8.4 g once daily after discontinuing the SPS. Upon consultation with the patient and her caregiver, the technician reminds them to store patiromer in the refrigerator at 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F). If stored at room temperature (25°C ± 2C° [77°F ± 4°F]), they must use the patiromer within three months. For either storage condition, they must not use patiromer after the expiration date printed on the packet and avoid exposing it to excessive heat greater than 40°C (104°F).20

    In addition, the pharmacist inquired about Joan’s use of over-the-counter herbal medications. The pharmacist informed Joan that certain herbal medications or supplements such as noni juice may cause or exacerbate hyperkalemia.35 Unconventional over-the-counter traditional Chinese medicines such as dried skin of toads (Chinese name: Chan Su) may cause poisoning and result in hyperkalemia.36

    Case study #2

    John Williams is a male patient born on August 29, 1965. He has been diagnosed with hyperkalemia, ESRD, hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes, erectile dysfunction, hypertension, and heart failure. His most recent lab values are presented below.

    Item Result Units Interval
    A1C 11.1 (H) N/A < 6.5
    BUN 29 (H) mg/dL 8 – 27
    Creatinine 2.45 (H) mg/dL 0.76 – 1.27
    Potassium 4.8 mmol/L 3.5 – 5.2
    Sodium 135 mmol/L 134 – 144
    Chloride 98 mmol/L 96 – 106
    Carbon dioxide 27 mmol/L 20 – 29
    Calcium 11.0 (H) mg/dL 8.6 – 10.2
    Protein, total 8.2 (H) g/dL 6.8 – 8.0
    Albumin (A) 5.1 (H) g/dL 3.8 – 4.8
    Globulin (G), total 3.4 g/dL 1.5 – 4.5
    A/G ratio 1.5 N/A 1.2 – 2.2
    Bilirubin, total 0.5 mg/dL < 1.2

    A1C, hemoglobin A1C; BUN, blood urea nitrogen.

    John is taking the following medications:

    • Patiromer 16.8 mg orally once daily
    • Metoprolol succinate ER 100 mg orally once daily
    • Simvastatin 40 mg orally once daily
    • Sildenafil 50 mg orally as needed for sexual activity
    • Sacubitril-valsartan 97-103 mg orally twice daily
    • Spironolactone 100 mg orally once daily
    • Insulin glargine 40 units subcutaneously at bedtime
    • Insulin lispro 14 units subcutaneously 15 minutes before each meal
    • Semaglutide 2 mg subcutaneously once weekly
    • Empagliflozin 25 mg orally once daily
    • Calcifediol 30 mg orally once daily

     

    John first experienced high sodium levels while on SPS due to the sodium load per dose. Subsequently, John was prescribed patiromer and experienced stomach upset. Dr. Kidd contacts the pharmacist to conduct a comprehensive MTM and suggest an alternative to replace patiromer.

    John’s potassium level was within range and his condition has been stable. However, the calcium level (11.0 mg/dL) is elevated. Patiromer might not be the most appropriate choice. The pharmacist recommended considering SZC. John can start on an initial dose of 10 g orally 3 times daily for 48 hours, followed by 10 g once daily thereafter. Sacubitril-valsartan (RAASi therapy) reduces the risk of hospitalization and spironolactone substantially lowers the risk of both morbidity and death among patients with severe heart failure.37 As a result, the pharmacist recommended that John remain on sacubitril-valsartan and spironolactone as prescribed.

    John’s glucose level (A1C) was out of range at 11.1. He would benefit from continuous glucose monitoring (CGM). The pharmacist introduced a commercially available CGM device to John and encouraged him to monitor his glucose level after meals, at bedtime, and at any time John feels there is a need to monitor. To reach A1C target, John should titrate his basal insulin (glargine) by increasing 2 units every three days and prandial insulin (lispro) by 1 to 2 units twice weekly without hypoglycemia.

    The pharmacist asked John about the use of salt substitutes and advised him that some salt substitutes may cause hyperkalemia. Regarding erectile dysfunction, John stated that sildenafil was, “…working somewhat but I need a bit more help. My sex life is not what it used to be. Maybe I can purchase something over-the-counter to spice it up!” The pharmacist discouraged the use of commercially available over-the-counter aphrodisiacs containing digoxin-like substances. Atrial fibrillation, ventricular fibrillation, and death have been reported with their use.38

    CONCLUSION

    No universally accepted guidelines exist for monitoring and classification of hyperkalemia. Similarly, no universally accepted guidelines exist for dosage modification of RAASi therapy. When selecting drugs to treat hyperkalemia, healthcare professionals should consider factors such as co-existing diseases, duration of action, onset of action, cost, drug interactions, food interactions, cardiovascular benefits, and renal benefits. Newer potassium binders may help optimize RAASi therapy and provide a safe and reliable chronic hyperkalemia treatment option. The use of these newer potassium binders and the optimal use of RAASi therapy may improve cardiovascular outcomes.

     

    Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

    ACUTE AND CHRONIC HYPERKALEMIA: TREATMENT OPTIONS, POTASSIUM BINDERS, AND CLINICAL CASES
    Pharmacist Post-test

    Learning Objectives
    After taking the continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
    • Identify foods that cause hyperkalemia
    • List medications that cause hyperkalemia
    • Compare and contrast medications that manage acute and chronic hyperkalemia
    • Determine the best agent to manage hyperkalemia in each case study

    1. Which of the following juices (serving size = 120 ml) contains the MOST potassium?
    A. Apple juice
    B. Pineapple juice
    C. Prune juice

    2. Which of the following medications is known to cause hyperkalemia?
    A. Acetaminophen
    B. Losartan
    C. Amlodipine

    3. Jerry Smith is a 55-year-old male patient with a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L. He is on hydralazine 100 mg three times daily for heart failure. Jerry has occasional episodes of edema in his lower extremities. Dr. Gore, Jerry’s cardiologist, asks you, the pharmacist, to recommend a potassium binder. Which of the following potassium binders is the most appropriate treatment?
    A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
    B. Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate
    C. Patiromer

    4. Which of the following adverse effects is the most concerning regarding sodium polystyrene sulfonate when used with sorbitol?
    A. Constipation
    B. Edema
    C. Colonic necrosis

    5. Which of the following foods contains the MOST potassium?
    A. One whole orange
    B. One whole peach
    C. One whole nectarine

    6. Which one of the following medications can cause hyperkalemia?
    A. IV calcium gluconate
    B. Insulin glargine
    C. Beta-blockers

    7. Melissa Kennedy is a 60-year-old female patient with acute hyperkalemia (potassium level > 6.5 mEq/L). Her ECG shows loss of P waves. Dr. Patel would like to start treatment. However, Dr. Patel is concerned with the accompanying metabolic acidosis. Which of the following acute hyperkalemia treatments is the MOST appropriate?
    A. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
    B. Inhaled beta-agonist
    C. Intravenous calcium gluconate

    8. Which of the following treatments is BEST for acute hyperkalemia?
    A. Potassium binders
    B. Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate (SZC)
    C. Intravenous insulin

    9. Which of the following potassium binders exchanges potassium for calcium in the GI tract?
    A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
    B. Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate
    C. Patiromer

    10. Sophia Raya Corona is a 65-year-old patient with underlying renal dysfunction. Sophia has been on losartan 50 mg once daily and spironolactone 25 mg once daily for 5 years. Her hypertension is well-controlled at 120/80 mmHg. Her most recent potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which one of the following actions is MOST appropriate?
    A. Reduce losartan and spironolactone doses by 50%
    B. Initiate patiromer therapy
    C. Initiate sodium polystyrene sulfonate therapy

    Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

    ACUTE AND CHRONIC HYPERKALEMIA: TREATMENT OPTIONS, POTASSIUM BINDERS, AND CLINICAL CASES
    Pharmacy Technician Post-test

    Learning Objectives
    After taking the continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to
    • Identify foods that cause hyperkalemia
    • List medications that cause hyperkalemia
    • Describe the dosing and storage information of patiromer and SZC
    • Describe the steps of the drug prior authorization process

    1. Which one of the following doses of patiromer is commercially available?
    A. 8.5 g
    B. 15.8 g
    C. 25.2 g

    2. Which of the following medications is known to cause hyperkalemia?
    A. Acetaminophen
    B. Losartan
    C. Amlodipine

    3. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding storage of patiromer?
    A. If stored at room temperature, patiromer must be used within six months
    B. Patient may expose patiromer to excess heat greater than 30°C (86°F) but less than 35°C (95°F)
    C. Patiromer should be stored in the refrigerator at 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F)

    4. A patient is picking up a prescription for a potassium lowering medication. You note that he has a piece of fruit in his hand and he seems to be preparing to eat it. Which of the following fruits contains the most potassium and might prompt you to warn him to avoid eating that fruit?
    A. One whole orange
    B. One whole peach
    C. One whole nectarine

    5. Which one of the following is the first step of the prior authorization process?
    A. Collecting necessary patient information
    B. Downloading prior authorization forms
    C. Completing the prior authorization forms

    6. Which one of the following is the last step of prior authorization process?
    A. Starting appeal process if denied
    B. Downloading prior authorization forms
    C. Collecting patient information

    7. Which one of the following medications can cause hyperkalemia?
    A. IV calcium gluconate
    B. Insulin glargine
    C. Beta-blockers

    8. Which of the following foods contains the MOST potassium?
    A. Five apricots
    B. One kiwi
    C. One banana

    9. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding storage requirement of SZC?
    A. SZC should be stored at room temperature
    B. SZC should be stored frozen until opened
    C. SZC should be refrigerated until opened

    10. Which one of the following medications causes hyperkalemia?
    A. Ibuprofen
    B. Acetaminophen
    C. Patiromer

    References

    Full List of References

    References

       

      1. Potassium. MedlinePlus. Accessed December 25, 2023. https://medlineplus.gov/potassium.html
      2. Stöppler MC. High potassium (hyperkalemia). MedicineNet. Updated May 16, 2022. Accessed December 15, 2023. https://www.medicinenet.com/hyperkalemia/article.htm
      3. Chang AR, Sang Y, Leddy J, Yahya T, Kirchner HL, Inker LA, Matsushita K, Ballew SH, Coresh J, Grams ME. Antihypertensive Medications and the Prevalence of Hyperkalemia in a Large Health System. Hypertension. 2016;67(6):1181-8. doi:10.1161/HYPERTENSIONAHA.116.07363.
      4. Nilsson E, Gasparini A, Ärnlöv J, Xu H, Henriksson KM, Coresh J, Grams ME, Carrero JJ. Incidence and determinants of hyperkalemia and hypokalemia in a large healthcare system. Int J Cardiol. 2017;245:277-284. doi:10.1016/j.ijcard.2017.07.035.
      5. Gilligan S, Raphael KL. Hyperkalemia and Hypokalemia in CKD: Prevalence, Risk Factors, and Clinical Outcomes. Adv Chronic Kidney Dis. 2017;24(5):315-318. doi:10.1053/j.ackd.2017.06.00.
      6. Kidadl. Accessed October 15,2023. https://kidadl.com/facts/interesting-facts-about-potassium-you-should-know-about.
      7. Palmer BF, Clegg DJ. Physiology and pathophysiology of potassium homeostasis. Adv Physiol Educ. 2016;40(4):480-490. doi:10.1152/advan.00121.2016.
      8. Palmer BF, Clegg DJ. Diagnosis and treatment of hyperkalemia. Cleve Clin J Med. 2017;84(12):934-942. doi:10.3949/ccjm.84a.17056.
      9. Palmer BF. Managing hyperkalemia caused by inhibitors of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. N Engl J Med. 2004;351(6):585-92. doi:10.1056/NEJMra035279.
      10. Palmer BF, Carrero JJ, Clegg DJ, et al. Clinical Management of Hyperkalemia. Mayo Clin Proc. 2021;96(3):744-762. doi:10.1016/j.mayocp.2020.06.014
      11. Clinical Resource. Management of acute and chronic hyperkalemia. Pharmacist’s Letter. Nov 2019 (351115). Accessed February 10, 2024. https://pharmacist.therapeuticresearch.com/Content/Segments/PRL/2016/Feb/Management-of-Acute-and-Chronic-Hyperkalemia-9412
      12. Clinical Resource. Potassium Content of foods and salt substitutes. Pharmacist’s Letter. Feb 2021 (370227). Accessed February 10, 2024. https://pharmacist.therapeuticresearch.com/Content/Segments/PRL/2008/Sep/Potassium-Content-of-Foods-and-Salt-Substitutes-1122
      13. Simon LV, Hashimi M, Farrell MW. Hyperkalemia. Treasure Island: StatPearls Publishing; 2023. Accessed Sep 1, 2023. https://hyperkalemia - StatPearls - NCBI Bookshelf (nih.gov)
      14. Clase CM, Carrero JJ, Ellison DH, et al. Potassium homeostasis and management of dyskalemia in kidney diseases: conclusions from a Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) Controversies Conference. Kidney Int. 2020;97(1):42-61. doi:10.1016/j.kint.2019.09.018
      15. Reddenna L, Basha S, Kumar K. Dialysis Treatment: A Comprehensive Description. Int. J. of Pharm. 2014;3(1)1-13.
      16. Butler J, Khan MS, Anker SD. Novel potassium binders as enabling therapy in heart failure. Eur J Heart Fail. 2019;21(5):550-552. doi:10.1002/ejhf.1474
      17. Rxlist.com. Accessed February 10, 2024. https://www.rxlist.com/how_do_potassium_binders_work/drug-class.htm#:~:text=They%20bind%20to%20the%20excess,thereby%20lowering%20blood%20potassium%20levels.
      18. Lokelma [package insert}. AstraZeneca Pharmaceuticals LP; 2023.
      19. Drugs.com. Accessed December 25, 2023. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate: Package Insert - Drugs.com
      20. Veltassa [package insert]. Vifor Pharma, Inc; 2023.
      21. Huda AB, Langford C, Lake J, Langford N. Hyperkalaemia and potassium binders: Retrospective observational analysis looking at the efficacy and cost effectiveness of calcium polystyrene sulfonate and sodium zirconium cyclosilicate. J Clin Pharm Ther. 2022;47(12):2170-2175. doi:10.1111/jcpt.13766
      22. GoodRx. Lokelma: Prices. Accessed December 15, 2023. https://www.goodrx.com/lokelma
      23. Humana. Let us help you choose a plan. Accessed December 15,2023. https://plans.humana.com/plans
      24. Scan: Plans and Benefits. Accessed December 15, 2023. https://www.scanhealthplan.com/plans-and-benefits
      25. Wellcare. Explore Plans. Accessed December 15, 2023. https://wellcare.isf.io/2024/g/b0003db0c5534c0aaa58d48d58be37c5/AssistedShopping
      26. Veltassa savings and affordability. Veltassa. Accessed December 15, 2023. https://veltassa.com/patient/savings-affordability
      27. Lokelma Support Program. Accessed December 15, 2023. https://www.lokelma.com/support-program.html
      28. Express Scripts. Electronic prior authorization. Accessed October 15, 2023. https://www.express-scripts.com/corporate/prior-authorization-resources
      29. Bakris GL, Pitt B, Weir MR, et al. Effect of Patiromer on Serum Potassium Level in Patients With Hyperkalemia and Diabetic Kidney Disease: The AMETHYST-DN Randomized Clinical Trial [published correction appears in JAMA. 2015 Aug 18;314(7):731. Dosage error in article text]. JAMA. 2015;314(2):151-161. doi:10.1001/jama.2015.7446
      30. Weir MR, Bakris GL, Bushinsky DA, et al. Patiromer in patients with kidney disease and hyperkalemia receiving RAAS inhibitors. N Engl J Med. 2015;372(3):211-221. doi:10.1056/NEJMoa1410853
      31. Kosiborod M, Rasmussen HS, Lavin P, et al. Effect of sodium zirconium cyclosilicate on potassium lowering for 28 days among outpatients with hyperkalemia: the HARMONIZE randomized clinical trial [published correction appears in JAMA. 2015 Feb 3;313(5):526. Dosage error in text]. JAMA. 2014;312(21):2223-2233. doi:10.1001/jama.2014.15688
      32. Fishbane S, Ford M, Fukagawa M, et al. A Phase 3b, Randomized, Double-Blind, Placebo-Controlled Study of Sodium Zirconium Cyclosilicate for Reducing the Incidence of Predialysis Hyperkalemia. J Am Soc Nephrol. 2019;30(9):1723-1733. doi:10.1681/ASN.2019050450
      33 Xu J, Murphy SL, Kochanek KD, Arias E. Mortality in the United States, 2021. NCHS Data Brief. 2022;(456):1-8.
      34. Consider Kidney Risk Before Suggesting an NSAID, Pharmacist’s Letter, October 2022. https://pharmacist.therapeuticresearch.com/Content/Articles/PL/2022/Oct/Consider-Kidney-Risks-Before-Suggesting-an-NSAID
      35. Mueller BA, Scott MK, Sowinski KM, Prag KA. Noni juice (Morinda citrifolia): hidden potential for hyperkalemia?. Am J Kidney Dis. 2000;35(2):310-312. doi:10.1016/s0272-6386(00)70342-8
      36. Pantanowitz, L. To the editor, Drug-induced hyerkalemia, Amjmed. 2002 March. Pantanowitz L. Accessed February 10, 2024. http://Drug-induced hyperkalemia. Am J Med. 2002;112(4):334-335. doi:10.1016/s0002-9343(01)00688-x
      37. Pitt B, Zannad F, Remme WJ, et al. The effect of spironolactone on morbidity and mortality in patients with severe heart failure. Randomized Aldactone Evaluation Study Investigators. N Engl J Med. 1999;341(10):709-717. doi:10.1056/NEJM199909023411001
      38. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Deaths associated with a purported aphrodisiac--New York City, February 1993-May 1995. MMWR Morb Mortal Wkly Rep. 1995;44(46):853-861.

      All “Prior Authorizations” are Not Created Equal: A Guide to Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Coverage

      Learning Objectives

       

      After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

      • Describe the different types of prescription drug coverage available to Medicare patients
      • Explain the patient costs associated with Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage
      • Demonstrate use of a patient’s Medicare Part D formulary to determine the appropriate type of coverage determination
      • Identify prescriptions that Medicare Part D does not cover

       

      After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:

      • Describe the different types of prescription drug coverage available to Medicare patients
      • Explain the patient costs associated with Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage
      • Identify the types of coverage determinations available for Medicare Part D prescriptions
      • Outline the timeframes involved in Medicare Part D coverage determination and appeal decisions

       

         

        Release Date: March 15, 2024

        Expiration Date: March 15, 2027

        Course Fee

        Pharmacists:  $7

        Pharmacy Technicians: $4

        There is no funding for this CE.

        ACPE UANs

        Pharmacist: 0009-0000-24-015-H04-P

        Pharmacy Technician:  0009-0000-24-015-H04-T

        Session Codes

        Pharmacist:  24YC15-XTK93

        Pharmacy Technician:  24YC15-KFV48

        Accreditation Hours

        2.0 hours of CE

        Accreditation Statements

        The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-015-H04-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

         

        Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

        The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

        Faculty

        Lori R. Donnelly, PharmD
        Consultant
        BluePeak Advisors
        Chardon, OH

        Faculty Disclosure

        In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

        Dr. Donnelly is a consultant with Blue Peak Consultancy that assists those with government healthcare concerns. Any conflict of interest has been mitigated.

         

        ABSTRACT

        Millions of Americans are enrolled in Medicare Part D, with hundreds of specific Part D plans available across the country. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) regulates Part D coverage. Part D plans must submit their plan costs and formularies, including formulary restrictions, to CMS for annual approval. Patient costs for Part D coverage vary based on the specific choice of plan and the benefit phase. All Part D plans must provide a process for requesting coverage of prescription medications that are not on the formulary or on the formulary with restrictions. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians are valuable resources and can advise Part D patients and prescribers about prescription costs and the options available for non-covered medications.

        CONTENT

        Content

        INTRODUCTION

        As of April 2023, more than 51 million Americans were enrolled in prescription drug coverage through Medicare, with the number of enrollees steadily increasing every year.1 Private insurance companies contracted by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) provide Medicare prescription drug coverage. Although specific plans’ details differ, CMS requires that all plans offer certain features.

        Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can assist patients in navigating these features to maximize their prescription benefits. This continuing education activity will review the types of Medicare prescription drug coverage, associated patient costs, formulary structure, and the options available when a patient’s Part D plan does not cover a medication.

        MEDICARE AND PRESCRIPTION DRUG COVERAGE

        CMS provides “Original Medicare” to most Americans aged 65 and older. Original Medicare includes2:

        • Part A: Most Americans are eligible for Medicare Part A at no additional cost, as long as they or their spouses have paid sufficient Medicare taxes. Medicare Part A includes coverage for inpatient hospital stays, hospice, and skilled nursing facility care.
        • Part B: Medicare Part B is optional and usually requires additional fees. Part B coverage includes outpatient and home health care, preventive services, and durable medical equipment.

        CMS contracts with private insurance companies to provide prescription drug coverage. Individuals enrolled in Original Medicare may purchase a standalone Part D Prescription Drug plan (PDP) for outpatient prescription drug coverage.

        Rather than using CMS coverage, individuals may purchase Medicare-approved private insurance called Medicare Advantage (MA), also known as Part C. With this arrangement, the MA Plan supersedes Medicare Part A and Part B for most coverage. MA plans often have lower patient costs and extra benefits compared to Original Medicare but may have fewer covered hospitals and physicians.2 Medicare Advantage Prescription Drug (MAPD) plans are MA plans that include prescription drug coverage and eliminate the need for a separate PDP.

         

        SIDEBAR: Patient Costs Defined

        Monthly Premium: a monthly payment that maintains enrollment in the plan; not impacted by deductible, copay, or coinsurance amounts

        Annual Deductible: a yearly dollar amount the patient pays before insurance starts to contribute

        Copayment (or Copay): a specific, pre-determined dollar amount the patient pays for each prescription, office visit, or other type of care after satisfying the deductible

        Coinsurance: an alternative to a copay, the percentage of the total cost the patient pays for each prescription, office visit, or other type of care after satisfying the deductible

         

        Medicare plans are associated with various costs to the enrollee (see SIDEBAR: Patient Costs Defined). Individuals with income higher than a predefined threshold pay a higher premium for their Part B coverage due to Medicare’s Income Related Monthly Adjustment Amount (IRMAA). IRMAA does not change any of the other costs associated with Medicare coverage. CMS may also issue a late enrollment penalty (LEP) to people who do not sign up for Part D (from either a PDP or MAPD) as soon as they become eligible for Medicare. Once assigned, CMS adds the LEP to the patient’s monthly Part D premium for the remainder of their enrollment in Part D, regardless of which Part D plan they choose. Even people not actively taking prescription medications should consider choosing a Part D plan with a low monthly premium and/or no annual deductible to avoid incurring LEP.2

        Individuals and couples with incomes and assets less than an annual threshold set by CMS may qualify for a Low Income Subsidy (LIS), also known as “extra help.” For people who qualify, the LIS reduces or eliminates the Part D monthly premium, deductible, and copay/coinsurance. CMS automatically enrolls most qualified patients into extra help, but a manual application process is also available. Pharmacy personnel should refer patients to 1-800-MEDICARE or https://www.medicare.gov/basics/costs/help/drug-costs to see if they qualify for LIS.3

        Once a patient decides between Original Medicare or MAPD coverage, the next step is choosing a specific plan. CMS provides a comprehensive platform, called Medicare Plan Finder (MPF) for patients to shop and compare costs for PDP and MAPD plans. Patients can enter their medication list and see detailed cost information for each prescription. MPF also includes information about participating pharmacies and Star Ratings, a system CMS uses to measure each Part D plan’s performance in the areas of customer service, member experience, drug safety, and drug pricing accuracy. CMS rates plans on a scale of one to five stars, with five stars indicating the highest level of performance.4

        The MPF tool is located at www.medicare.gov/plan-compare.

        It is not necessary for pharmacy personnel to distinguish between MAPD and PDP coverage before processing prescription claims. The member’s prescription drug card provides the details needed to submit pharmacy claims to either type of Part D plan. If the member’s prescription drug card is not available, CMS provides a process known as an E1 transaction that returns Part D coverage information using basic demographic information. Pharmacists and technicians should consult their employer’s training materials for specific instructions on submitting an E1 transaction.5

        The Part D Coverage Cycle

        The Part D coverage cycle runs January to December each year. Regardless of when an individual reaches each phase of coverage, summarized in Figure 1, they start over in the deductible phase each year on January 1st. Only “True Out-of-Pocket” (TrOOP) costs as defined by CMS go toward the thresholds to move patients through each of the four coverage phases. Patient costs excluded from TrOOP are6

        • Medications not covered by the Part D plan
        • Prescriptions obtained at non-participating (i.e., out-of-network [OON]) pharmacies, except those specifically allowed under the Part D plan’s rules
        • Costs reimbursed by an organization other than the Part D plan

        Wheel showing Medicare coverage timeline sections

        PAUSE AND PONDER: Some patients with lower prescription costs do not complete their annual deductible until November or December. They are surprised when their out-of-pocket costs increase again in January. How would you explain the increase?

         

        Patients with higher prescription costs may also be subject to the coverage gap, commonly known as the “Donut Hole” (see SIDEBAR: Explaining the Donut Hole). The coverage gap occurs when a patient’s prescription drug costs exceed a defined threshold under Medicare Part D. In the coverage gap, a patient’s out-of-pocket cost for brand name prescriptions may increase. 7 Patients with very high prescription drug costs may reach the end of the coverage gap to enter catastrophic coverage, where they pay nothing out of pocket. The Inflation Reduction Act of 2022 removed patient costs from the catastrophic phase starting in 2024 and eliminated the coverage gap starting in 2025.8

         

        SIDEBAR: Explaining the Donut Hole

        Have you ever wondered why the Medicare Part D coverage gap is called the “Donut Hole?”

        Imagine a giant donut, a circle with a hole in the middle, big enough to drive through. Half of the donut is plain, but the other half has frosting and sprinkles. In January, you start driving in a straight line through the plain half of the donut, toward the frosted half. Your drug costs determine your speed.

        The plain half of the donut represents the annual deductible and initial coverage phases where you are subject to normal coverage amounts.

        If high drug costs cause you to drive faster, you exit the plain half of the donut and enter the donut’s hole before the end of the year. You are now driving where there is no donut, and you must pay more than the normal amount for brand name drugs.

        If your drug costs are high enough that you speed to the other side of the hole before the end of the year, then you enter the frosting and sprinkles half of the donut. Frosting and sprinkles represent the additional Part D contributions in the catastrophic phase and you pay nothing out of pocket.

        Unfortunately, your car has only a 365-day warranty, so when January comes, you must start all over at the plain side of the donut.

         

        An annual bidding process determines the specific costs for each Part D plan. Each year, CMS sets limits and thresholds for certain aspects of Part D coverage but allows flexibility within these parameters for both PDP and MAPD plans. Insurance companies submit bids that demonstrate how their plans comply with CMS’s annual limits and thresholds. The financial information that contributes to each plan’s annual bid is highly complex, and CMS can either accept or reject each bid.

        As part of the annual bidding process, CMS defines standard prescription drug coverage. For a “basic” Part D plan, a bid must either match or be financially equivalent to the CMS definition of standard coverage. Table 1 provides the 2023 and 2024 standard benefit parameters, as defined by CMS.9

         

        Table 1. Limits and Thresholds for 2023 and 2024 Medicare Part D Plans9

        2023 2024
        Annual Deductible Limit $505 $545
        Initial Coverage Limit (starts the coverage gap) $4660 total drug costs $5030 total drug costs
        Out-of-Pocket Limit (ends the coverage gap and starts catastrophic phase) $7400 patient cost $8000 patient cost

         

        Insurance companies may also offer “enhanced” Part D plans with coverage that is more robust than the defined standard. Most plans with enhanced coverage have higher monthly premiums compared to basic plans but offer corresponding advantages such as reduced deductibles, lower copays/coinsurance, and lower costs in the coverage gap.

        Individuals should choose their Part D plans carefully because they can only sign up or change Part D plans during certain periods2:

        • During the 3-month initial enrollment period that starts 1 month before and ends 1 month after an individual’s 65th birthday; coverage starts the month after initial enrollment
        • During the annual open enrollment period that runs from mid-October to early December each year; coverage starts on January 1 of the following year for people who enroll during annual open enrollment
        • During the Medicare Advantage open enrollment period that runs from January through March each year; during this time, CMS only allows certain types of changes
        • During special enrollment periods for qualifying events such as relocation or the loss of employer or Medicaid coverage. Natural disasters that disrupt the initial or annual enrollment period may also create special enrollment periods

        Prescription Coverage Under Medicare Parts A and B

        Original Medicare provides prescription drug coverage under very limited circumstances and CMS prohibits Part D from covering anything covered under Medicare Parts A or B.

        Medicare Part A covers hospice care, including medications related to the hospice diagnosis. Hospice providers receive payment for these medications from CMS and are responsible for paying the pharmacy. Medicare Part D is prohibited from covering medications related to any hospice diagnosis.10

        Medicare Part B provides the only coverage options for some items, such as diabetic testing supplies and certain vaccines. Coverage for other items may fall under Part B or Part D, depending on the specific circumstances. Table 2 compares Part B and Part D coverage for the most common examples.10

        Table 2. Medicare Part B and Part D Coverage of Common Products

        Product(s) Part B Coverage Part D Coveragea
        Nebulizer Solutions (such as albuterol sulfate and ipratropium bromide) For patients residing at home. For patients residing in a long-term care facility.
        Influenza, Hepatitis B, Pneumonia, and Coronavirus (COVID-19) Vaccines Yes No
        Immunosuppressants (such as cyclosporine and mycophenolate mofetil) When used to prevent rejection of a Medicare-covered transplant. When used for a medically accepted indication other than a Medicare-covered transplant.
        Oral Anti-Cancer Drugs (such as cyclophosphamide and methotrexate) When used to treat cancer. When used to treat a medically accepted indication other than cancer.
        Oral Anti-Emetic Drugs (such as ondansetron and promethazine) When used to treat or prevent chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. When used to treat or prevent medically accepted indications other than chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting.
        Insulin When used in an insulin pump. When not used in an insulin pump.
        Diabetic Testing Supplies (such as test strips and lancets) Yes No
        Insulin Injection Supplies (such as needles and alcohol swabs) No Yes
        aCoverage may be subject to formulary restrictions.

         

        Part D plans are responsible for rejecting pharmacy claims for medications that may be covered under Part A or Part B. Pharmacy personnel should refer to claim reject messaging and redirect the claim appropriately.

         

        Other Prescription Drug Coverage

        Most people who qualify for Medicare are covered by some combination of Parts A, B, C, and D as described above. However, other prescription drug coverage options are available under special circumstances:

        • Employer Group Waiver plans (EGWPs): Employers may choose to provide prescription drug coverage for their retirees by contracting with a Part D plan for EGWP coverage. Retirees with EGWP plans that start as soon as they become eligible for Medicare are exempt from LEP. When providing an EGWP plan for their retirees, employers may also add additional benefits paid either through Part D or by the employer themselves.11
        • Medicare Supplemental Insurance (Medigap): Medigap coverage helps with costs not covered by Medicare Parts A and B, such as copays and deductibles. Certain Medigap plans also help with skilled nursing facility or hospice costs and emergency care while traveling outside of the United States. Individuals who enrolled in Medigap prior to 2006 may have prescription drug coverage included, but those who are newer to Medigap should purchase separate Part D coverage to avoid LEP.12
        • Employer Coverage: Individuals who are actively employed (not retired) may have coverage through their employer to replace Medicare or use Medicare as secondary coverage. Covered employees are exempt from the LEP if the employer coverage is equivalent to at least a basic Part D plan.2
        • Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA): People who have recently separated from an employer may be eligible for COBRA. Individuals enrolled in COBRA may still be subject to LEP because COBRA is usually not equivalent to Medicare coverage.2
        • Medicaid: People with low incomes who qualify for both Medicaid and Medicare receive the LIS and have Part D coverage with reduced patient costs. In most cases, Medicare pays first and Medicaid helps with remaining costs.2
        • Manufacturer Discount Programs: Many drug manufacturers provide coupons, discount cards, and patient assistance programs to help cover their products’ cost. Federal law prohibits using these manufacturer payments in combination with Medicare prescription drug coverage.13 Medicare patients may choose manufacturer coupons or patient assistance programs for certain prescriptions only when they do not use their Part D coverage.
        • Prescription Discount Cards: Unlike manufacturer discounts, which are limited to products produced by that manufacturer, prescription discount cards offer discounts on a wide range of medications. Also known as “cash cards”, prescription discount cards reduce the cash price of prescriptions, but are not used in combination with insurance, including Medicare.14 Patients who choose a prescription discount card cannot use it in combination with their Part D coverage for the same medication.

        MEDICARE PART D FORMULARIES

        CMS requires Part D plans to maintain a list of covered drugs, called a formulary. CMS reviews each Part D formulary to ensure sufficient coverage under each drug class. The copay or coinsurance for each medication on the formulary is determined by its “tier.” Medications on lower tiers generally cost less than drugs on higher tiers.15 CMS allows some flexibility on how Part D plans define their formulary tiers, so tier structure differs between plans. Figure 2 provides an example of a formulary tier arrangement.

        Image showing Tier 1-5 of covered medications, where tier 1 has the lowest copay and tier 5 has the highest copay

         

        Drug Placement and Formulary Restrictions

        Specialty medications are high-cost prescription products used to treat complicated medical conditions. CMS limits the patient cost portion for these medications and Part D plans typically place all specialty mediations into designated formulary tiers.10

        CMS requires that Part D plans cover adult vaccines (excluding those covered under Part B) recommended by The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’s Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices at no cost to the patient, regardless of formulary tier or benefit phase.16

        In 2023, CMS began setting a maximum copay for insulin products covered under Part D. Currently, the maximum copay is $35 for a one-month supply and is subject to change on an annual basis. Insulin copays may be lower if a Part D plan includes specific insulin products on a formulary tier where the monthly copay is lower than the CMS maximum. A similar program exists for insulin used in an insulin pump and covered under Part B.16

        Part D plans may put restrictions on formulary medications to ensure appropriate coverage and to control costs. CMS reviews the restrictions and will not allow overly restrictive formularies. Plans may place four types of restrictions on formulary medications10:

        • Quantity Limit: Quantity limit restrictions define the maximum number of dosage units allowed for a specific time period.
        • Step Therapy: Step therapy restrictions require patients to first try a different medication, usually a lower cost alternative, before the prescribed medication.
        • Prior Authorization: Prior authorizations require patients to meet specific criteria, which may be as simple as providing the diagnosis or more complicated (e.g., specific lab tests, involvement of a specialist physician).
        • Drug Utilization Review (DUR): May be “hard edits” that require a coverage determination or “soft edits” that require the dispensing pharmacist to obtain clinical information and enter a set of codes into the prescription claim.

        CMS defines six drug classes—those used to treat disorders where changes or interruptions in therapy involve higher risk—as “protected class.” CMS requires that Part D formularies include most medications within these classes with at least one medication on a preferred tier and no restrictions. Plans are not, however, required to include all variations of each medication (i.e., brand name and generic or immediate and extended-release versions). The six protected classes are10

        • immunosuppressants (used to prevent organ transplant rejection)
        • antidepressants (used to treat depression)
        • antipsychotics (used to treat mental health disorders)
        • anticonvulsants (used to treat seizure disorders)
        • antiretrovirals (used to treat human immunodeficiency virus)
        • antineoplastics (used to treat cancer)

        CMS allows plans to add medications and make other positive changes to their formulary throughout the year but restricts medication removal and other negative changes until the following January. This restriction protects patients from losing coverage for their prescriptions during the time when they cannot switch to a different Part D plan. Marketplace removal, safety concerns, and the availability of a new generic are examples of situations when CMS would allow removal of a medication from a Part D formulary during the year.

        Part D plans must provide patients with ongoing access to their formulary information. Most Part D plans post formularies online and only provide paper copies upon request. Patients can also see the formulary status for their specific medications when comparing Part D plans using the MPF website.

         

        COVERAGE DETERMINATIONS AND APPEALS

        Patients and pharmacy personnel commonly generalize the term “prior authorization” to describe any situation that requires insurance approval before insurance covers a prescription. Under Medicare Part D, this is known as the coverage determination process. Part D patients may use the coverage determination process to request approval for a non-formulary medication or a formulary medication with restrictions.

        Who hasn’t been frustrated after contacting a prescriber to change a non-formulary prescription to a formulary medication, only to have the formulary medication require prior authorization? Part D plans usually include messaging within rejected claims to help determine which type of coverage determination is needed. When faced with a prescription rejection, pharmacists and pharmacy technicians who understand the nuances of the coverage determination process are equipped to advise their Part D patients on the best course of action.

        Several specific types of coverage determinations are available and each type of coverage determination has specific criteria for approval.16,17 Table 3 provides a summary of coverage determination types, their uses, and the information required for approval.

        Table 3. Types of Coverage Determinations and Their Uses16,17

        Medication Status Coverage Determination Requirements for Approval
        On the formulary, but dosing regimen requires more than the formulary allowance or requires tablet splitting Quantity Limit Exception The quantity allowed by the plan’s formulary is not effective in treating the patient’s condition or requires tablet-splitting to achieve the prescribed dosing regimen.
        On the formulary with step therapy restrictions Step Therapy Exception

         

        The patient tried the step medication and either did not achieve therapeutic effect or experienced an adverse outcome.
        Step Therapy The patient is likely to experience an adverse outcome if they must first try the step medication.
        On the formulary with prior authorization or “hard” DUR restrictions Prior Authorization

         

        The patient meets the Part D plan’s specific criteria for the prescribed medication.
        On the formulary with a “soft” DUR restriction None DUR “soft edits” may require dispensing pharmacists to contact prescribers and obtain clinical information, but do not require a coverage determination.
        Sometimes by Medicare Part B Prior Authorization Why the patient’s situation warrants coverage under Part D for the prescribed medication.
        On the formulary, but the patient cannot afford the copay/coinsurance Tier Exception The required number of lower tier drugs for the same condition are less effective or likely to result in an adverse outcome.

         

        Not available for specialty or non-formulary medications and cannot provide a brand name medication at the generic cost.

        Not on the formulary Non-formulary Exception

         

        The required number of formulary alternative medication(s) were ineffective or likely to result in an adverse outcome.

        Patients should consult their specific plan information to find out how many alternatives are required for tier or non-formulary exceptions.

        Part D plans will only approve a coverage determination request if the product is medically necessary and if the information submitted by the prescriber meets the plan’s criteria. Prescribers may submit information over the phone, by fax, or by mail. Most Part D plans also have an electronic portal to accept information from prescribers. Dispensing pharmacists are only permitted to supply information in place of the prescriber under limited circumstances, such as prior authorizations to determine Part B versus Part D coverage.

        Approval and Denial Parameters

        For exception requests that meet approval criteria, CMS requires Part D plans to maintain the approval at least through the end of the year. Part D plans may approve prior authorizations for a shorter time only if clinically appropriate and approved by CMS as part of the annual formulary approval process.

        Part D plans will deny requests with incomplete information and requests that do not meet approval criteria. Part D plans will also deny any type of coverage determination if the medication is being used for a non-medically accepted indication. Medically accepted indications are uses approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or listed in one of the references that CMS defines as approved compendia10:

        • American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information
        • DRUGDEX Information System
        • Peer-reviewed medical literature (only allowed for biologics and anti-cancer chemotherapy medications)

        Common examples of medications prescribed for non-medically accepted indications include the use of fentanyl lollipops/lozenges for non-cancer pain and hydroxychloroquine for coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19). Federal and state laws may allow prescriptions for non-medically accepted indications, but patients cannot use their Part D coverage to pay for them. Part D plans must block medication coverage if the determination process reveals a non-medically accepted indication, even for previously covered medications, quantities less than the predetermined limit, and any tier cost after a tier exception request.10 Pharmacists are not required to confirm medically accepted indications before dispensing prescriptions because CMS considers this a plan responsibility. As a result, Part D plans will often reject claims and require a prior authorization for medications commonly prescribed for non-medically accepted indications. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can assist patients and prescribers by communicating rejected claim information and explaining the CMS requirement for medically accepted indications. 10

        In addition to medications covered under Part A or B, CMS specifically excludes certain types of medications from Part D coverage10:

        • Products used for weight loss or weight gain
        • Fertility medications
        • Cosmetic and hair growth products
        • Treatments for the symptomatic relief of cough and colds
        • Non-prescription medications
        • Prescription vitamins, except prenatal and fluoride products
        • Erectile dysfunction treatments

        Bulk powders and inert excipients used for compounded prescriptions are also excluded from Part D coverage. Compounds may contain other ingredients that are covered with or without restrictions under Part D. When pharmacies bill some of a compound’s ingredients to Part D, CMS prohibits them from charging patients for the non-Part D portion.10

        Patients cannot obtain Part D coverage for excluded medications using the coverage determination process. Employers may cover some of these medications and manufacturer coupons or prescription discount cards may help make these products more affordable for individuals without employer coverage.

        PAUSE AND PONDER: Generic sildenafil is prescribed for both erectile dysfunction (excluded from Part D coverage) and pulmonary hypertension (eligible for Part D coverage). Can a dispensing pharmacist distinguish between the two to bill Part D for the appropriate product?

        Part D plans may dismiss requests that are inappropriate, unnecessary, or filed incorrectly. CMS requires Part D plans to provide written notification and a reason for the dismissal to the patient and prescriber. 17

        If the patient or prescriber decides that a request is unnecessary, they can withdraw the request before a decision is issued. Withdrawing a request does not prevent the patient or prescriber from submitting a later request for the same medication.17

        When a Part D plan denies a coverage determination, CMS requires them to send the specific reason(s) for the denial to the patient and the prescriber. Part D plans may choose to also send a copy of this information to the dispensing pharmacy.17 Depending on the reason for the denial, the patient or prescriber may choose to appeal the Part D plan’s decision.

        Appeal requests must be within 60 days of the denial, unless good cause is established for missing the 60-day deadline. If the Part D plan denies the appeal, beneficiaries have up to four additional opportunities to appeal through entities outside of their Part D plan. After the second level, higher levels of appeal are only available if the drug cost meets a specific threshold set by CMS.18 Figure 3 outlines the five levels of appeal available to Part D patients.

        Image showing timeline of insurance coverage denials and appeals

        A patient or prescriber can request a re-opening instead of the next level appeal if they feel that a coverage determination or appeal decision is in error. Part D plans may also initiate a re-opening if they identify a decision error.

        Direct Member Reimbursements

        Patients who pay for a covered Part D prescription without using their Part D Insurance may be eligible for reimbursement from their Part D plan through a process called Direct Member Reimbursement (DMR). To qualify for DMR, the prescription must meet the Part D plan’s coverage requirements and not be covered by any other type of insurance or discount card. Prescriptions obtained at an OON pharmacy must meet the Part D plan’s OON rules to qualify for reimbursement.19

        Pharmacies should submit Part D prescriptions to the patient’s Part D plan whenever possible because a DMR reimbursement may not result in a full refund of the cash price.

         

        Timeframes

        Part D plans must offer both standard and expedited timeframes for coverage determination and appeal requests (listed in Table 4). Expedited requests are available when the standard timeframe could result in a significant adverse outcome. DMR requests do not qualify for expedited timeframes because the patient has already received the medication.17

        Table 4. Plan Timeframes for Medicare Part D Requests16

        Request Level Request Urgency Request Type Required Timeframe
        Initial Coverage Determination Standard Quantity Limit Exception

        Step Therapy Exception

        Tier Exception

        Non-Formulary Exception

        72 hours from supporting statement but no longer than 14 days from request received

         

        Initial Coverage Determination Expedited Quantity Limit Exception

        Step Therapy Exception

        Tier Exception

        Non-Formulary Exception

        24 hours from supporting statement but no longer than 14 days from request received

         

        Initial Coverage Determination Standard Prior Authorization

        Step Therapy (non-exception)

        72 hours from request received
        Initial Coverage Determination Expedited Prior Authorization

        Step Therapy (non-exception)

        24 hours from request received
        Initial Coverage Determination N/A Direct Member Reimbursement 14 days from request received
        First Level Appeal Standard Quantity Limit Exception

        Step Therapy Exception

        Tier Exception

        Non-Formulary Exception

        Prior Authorization

        7 days from request received
        First Level Appeal Expedited Quantity Limit Exception

        Step Therapy Exception

        Tier Exception

        Non-Formulary Exception

        Prior Authorization

        72 hours from request received
        First Level Appeal N/A Direct Member Reimbursement Notification of Decision: 14 days from request received

        Payment (if approved): 30 days from request received

         

        Part D plans may automatically apply the expedited timeframe if the clinical information submitted for the coverage determination indicates that waiting may harm the patient’s health. Alternatively, Part D plans may downgrade an expedited request if they determine that the patient’s health will not be harmed by using the standard timeframe. CMS requires Part D plans to notify the patient if a request is downgraded from expedited to standard.17

        All Part D timeframes are based on calendar hours/days and include weekends and holidays. Timeframes start as soon as the Part D plan receives a non-exception coverage determination or any type of valid appeal request, regardless of how much clinical information is included with the request. For exception requests, the timeframe starts as soon as the Part D plan receives clinical information from the prescriber to support the request (known as the prescriber’s supporting statement). When a supporting statement is missing from an exception request, CMS allows up to 14 days for plans to obtain it.17 The following examples demonstrate Part D timeframes over weekends and holidays:

        • A patient requests a standard prior authorization on Friday afternoon, December 23. The prescriber’s office is closed for the three-day holiday weekend. The plan must deny the request in 72 hours (on Monday afternoon), even though the prescriber’s office was not available to provide information during that timeframe.
        • A different patient requests a standard non-formulary exception the same day. Their prescriber’s office is also closed for the three-day holiday weekend but contacts the plan with the supporting information on Tuesday morning. Since this is an exception request, 72 hour timeframe starts on Tuesday morning and the plan has until Friday morning to complete the request.

        When clinical information is incomplete, CMS requires that Part D plans make reasonable efforts to contact the prescriber and obtain the missing information. Once the timeframe has started, making outreach attempts and waiting for additional information does not extend the request timeframe. The Part D plan will deny the request if they do not receive sufficient clinical information by the end of the allotted timeframe.17

        PAUSE AND PONDER: It’s late Friday afternoon and your patient is anxious to request a prior authorization for her medication. The physician’s office is closed for the weekend. Could requesting an expedited coverage determination at this point cause more of a delay?

        When a Part D plan does not process a request within the required timeframe, they must send the request to the IRE as an “auto-forward.” This is the same IRE that processes Part D second-level appeals. Part D plans must notify patients in the event of an auto-forward. CMS monitors Part D plans’ timeliness and issues penalties for excessive numbers of auto-forwards.

        How to Submit Requests

        CMS requires that Part D plans accept coverage determination requests via phone, fax, or mail. For appeals, plans must accept both standard and expedited requests via fax or mail. Verbal requests by phone are required for expedited appeals but optional for standard appeals.17 Many plans also choose to accept electronic requests via an online portal.

        Patients should follow the instructions from their specific Part D plan for requesting a DMR. Part D plans usually require hard copies of payment receipts, so most patients file DMR requests by mail.

        CMS does not permit Part D plans to require a specific form to submit a coverage determination, appeal, or DMR request.17 Although optional, using a form provided by the plan usually streamlines the process and reduces the risk of submitting incomplete information.

        CMS does not allow dispensing pharmacists or pharmacy technicians to request a Part D coverage determination or appeal on behalf of the patient. Only the patient, the patient’s appointed representative, the prescriber, or the prescriber’s staff can request a coverage determination or appeal. Only patients or their appointed representative can request a DMR.17

        The handout entitled “Medicare Prescription Drug Coverage and Your Rights” that dispensing pharmacies supply to patients when prescriptions cannot be filled under their Part D plan provides additional instructions for submitting requests.17,20

        CONCLUSION

        Medicare patients have many choices available for their prescription drug coverage. CMS requires that all Part D plans conform to a set of common standards while allowing specific plans to offer a wide range of benefit options.

        Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians with a basic understanding of Part D coverage options, patient costs, formulary structure, and the coverage determination and appeals process can help patients maximize the benefit from their Part D plan. Although CMS does not allow them to initiate coverage determinations and appeals, pharmacy personnel can advise Part D patients and their physicians on the most effective next steps when faced with a non-covered prescription.

        Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

        All “Prior Authorizations” are Not Created Equal: A Guide to Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Coverage

        Pharmacists Post-test

        After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
        1. Describe the different types of prescription drug coverage available to Medicare patients.
        2. Explain the patient costs associated with Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage.
        3. Demonstrate use of a patient’s Medicare Part D formulary to determine the appropriate type of coverage determination.
        4. Identify prescriptions that Medicare Part D does not cover.

        1. Which of the following is the correct description for the type of Medicare coverage?
        A. Medicare Part A: Covers outpatient and home health care, preventative services, and durable medical equipment.
        B. Medicare Part B: Offered by private insurance companies for prescription drug coverage.
        C. Medicare Part C: Offered by private insurance companies to provide Part A and Part B coverage.

        2. What is an appropriate combination of coverage?
        A. Medicare Part A + Medicare Part B + Medicare Part D
        B. Medicare Part A + Medicare Part B + MAPD
        C. Employer Coverage + Medigap + MAPD

        3. A patient who is turning 65 next month asks you about delaying Part D coverage because she only takes two prescriptions that are very low cost using a prescription discount card. What is the possible risk of this approach when she eventually signs up for Part D coverage at a later date?
        A. She may pay higher monthly premiums due to the coverage gap.
        B. She may pay higher annual deductibles due to the late enrollment penalty.
        C. She may pay higher monthly premiums due to the late enrollment penalty.

        4. It’s January and a patient who paid a $10 copay for his prescription last month now has to pay 100% of the cost. What is the most likely explanation?
        A. He is paying the annual deductible
        B. He is in the coverage gap
        C. His Part D plan doesn’t cover his medication

        5. A patient who takes several expensive medications experiences a sharp increase in her out-of-pocket costs around midyear. What is the most likely explanation?
        A. She has entered the deductible phase
        B. She has entered the coverage gap phase
        C. She has entered the catastrophic coverage phase

        6. A patient’s Part D Plan is rejecting a prescription for apixaban. You locate its formulary online and find that dabigatran is listed, but not apixaban. What type of coverage determination does this patient need from this Part D Plan?
        A. Step Therapy
        B. Non-formulary
        C. Prior Authorization

        7. A patient’s Part D Plans is rejecting a prescription for alirocumab. You locate the formulary online and find that alirocumab is on the formulary but is not covered unless simvastatin has been tried first. What type of coverage determination does this patient need from this Part D Plan?
        A. Step Therapy
        B. Prior Authorization
        C. Tier Exception

        8. A Part D patient is struggling to afford his medication, even after the Part D Plan approved a non-formulary exception. What is their best option for lowering costs?
        A. Talk to the prescriber about switching to an alternative on a lower formulary tier.
        B. Ask their Part D Plan for a tier exception.
        C. Find a manufacturer discount coupon to cover their Part D copay.

        9. A Part D patient presents a prescription for a highly advertised diabetic medication and confides in you that she is not diabetic but hoping the medication will help with weight loss. Her Part D Plan requires prior authorization to establish medically accepted indication. What coverage option is available to them?
        A. Part D after prior authorization approval
        B. Manufacturer discount program
        C. Medicare Advantage

        10. A Medicare Part D Plan is rejecting claims for your patient’s diabetic test strips and lancets. What do you recommend as the next course of action?
        A. Call the Part D Plan and request a coverage determination.
        B. Pay out of pocket and ask the Part D Plan for direct member reimbursement.
        C. Compile the documentation required to submit the claims to Part B.

        Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

        All “Prior Authorizations” are Not Created Equal: A Guide to Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Coverage

        Pharmacy Technician Post-test

        After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to
        1. Describe the different types of prescription drug coverage available to Medicare patients.
        2. Explain the patient costs associated with Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage.
        3. Identify the types of coverage determinations available for Medicare Part D prescriptions.
        4. Outline the timeframes involved in Medicare Part D coverage determination and appeal decisions.

        1. Which of the following is the correct description for the type of Medicare coverage?
        A. Medicare Part A: Covers outpatient and home health care, preventative services, and durable medical equipment.
        B. Medicare Part B: Offered by private insurance companies for prescription drug coverage.
        C. Medicare Part C: Offered by private insurance companies to replace Part A and Part B coverage.

        2. What is an appropriate combination of coverage?
        A. Medicare Part A + Medicare Part B + Medicare Part D
        B. Medicare Part A + Medicare Part B + MAPD
        C. Employer Coverage + MAPD

        3. A patient who is turning 65 next month asks you about delaying Part D coverage because she only takes two prescriptions that are very low cost using a prescription discount card. What is the possible risk of this approach when she eventually signs up for Part D coverage at a later date?
        A. She may pay higher monthly premiums due to the coverage gap.
        B. She may pay higher annual deductibles due to the late enrollment penalty.
        C. She may pay higher monthly premiums due to the late enrollment penalty.

        4. It’s January and a patient who paid a $10 copay for his prescription last month now has to pay 100% of the cost. What is the most likely explanation?
        A. He is paying the annual deductible
        B. He is in the coverage gap
        C. His Part D plan doesn’t cover his medication

        5. A patient who takes several expensive medications experiences a sharp increase in her out-of-pocket costs around midyear. What is the most likely explanation?
        A. She has entered the deductible phase.
        B. She has entered the coverage gap phase.
        C. She has entered the catastrophic coverage phase.

        6. Which of the following combinations of coverage determinations may be required for a single prescription?
        A. Non-formulary + Quantity Limit
        B. Quantity Limit + Prior Authorization
        C. Tier Exception + Non-formulary

        7. Which type of reject requires a Part D coverage determination?
        A. Non-formulary
        B. Refill too soon
        C. DUR soft edit

        8. Which of the following is the correct description for a type of coverage determination under Medicare Part D?
        A. Non-formulary exceptions: Used to request larger quantities of a medication
        B. Tier Exceptions: Used to request a lower copay for a medication
        C. Prior Authorization: Used to request a non-formulary medication

        9. A patient called her Part D plan yesterday morning to request an urgent appeal for their medication. This afternoon, she has not received a response and the claim is still rejecting. How much longer might she have to wait for a response?
        A. The appeal is already out of timeframe because it has been longer than 24 hours
        B. 6 more days, for a total of 7 days
        C. 2 more days, for a total of 3 days

        10. You are working on a prescription that the Part D Plan is rejecting due to a quantity limit. The patient is not out of medication, so you advise him to call and ask for a standard quantity limit exception. How long should the patient expect to wait for the Part D Plan to make a decision?
        A. 24 hours after the patient calls their Part D Plan to request the coverage determination
        B. 24 hours after their prescriber provides clinical information to the Part D Plan
        C. 72 hours after their prescriber provides clinical information to the Part D Plan

        References

        Full List of References

        References

           

          1. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare Enrollment Dashboard. Accessed August 28, 2023. https://data.cms.gov/tools/medicare-enrollment-dashboard
          2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare & You Handbook. Accessed September 5, 2023. https://www.medicare.gov/medicare-and-you
          3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Help with Drug Costs. Accessed September 6, 2023. https://www.medicare.gov/basics/costs/help/drug-costs
          4. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Explore Your Medicare Coverage Options. Accessed September 13, 2023. www.medicare.gov/plan-compare
          5. RelayHealth. Medicare Eligibility Verification Transaction. Accessed December 28, 2023. https://medifacd.mckesson.com/e1/
          6. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare Prescription Drug Benefit Manual Chapter 5: Benefits and Beneficiary Protections. September 20, 2011. Accessed September 5, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/medicare/prescription-drug-coverage/prescriptiondrugcovcontra/downloads/memopdbmanualchapter5_093011.pdf
          7. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Costs in the Coverage Gap. Accessed September 6, 2023. https://www.medicare.gov/drug-coverage-part-d/costs-for-medicare-drug-coverage/costs-in-the-coverage-gap
          8. Kaiser Family Foundation. Changes to Medicare Part D in 2024 and 2025 Under the Inflation Reduction Act and How Enrollees Will Benefit. Accessed December 27, 2023. https://www.kff.org/medicare/issue-brief/changes-to-medicare-part-d-in-2024-and-2025-under-the-inflation-reduction-act-and-how-enrollees-will-benefit
          9. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Announcement of Calendar Year (CY) 2024 Medicare Advantage (MA) Capitation Rates and Part C and Part D Payment Policies. March 31, 2023. Accessed September 6, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/files/document/2024-announcement-pdf.pdf
          10. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare Prescription Drug Benefit Manual Chapter 6 – Part D Drugs and Formulary Requirements. January 15, 2026. Accessed August 23, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/medicare/prescription-drug-coverage/prescriptiondrugcovcontra/downloads/part-d-benefits-manual-chapter-6.pdf
          11. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare Prescription Drug Benefit Manual Chapter 12 – Employer/Union Sponsored Group Health plans. November 7, 2008. Accessed September 5, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/regulations-and-guidance/guidance/transmittals/downloads/dwnlds/r6pdbpdfpdf
          12. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Learn How Medigap Works. Accessed October 25, 2023. https://www.medicare.gov/health-drug-plans/medigap/basics/how-medigap-works
          13. Office of Inspector General. Special Advisory Bulletin, Pharmaceutical Manufacturer Copayment Coupons. September 2014. Accessed September 5, 2023. https://oig.hhs.gov/documents/special-advisory-bulletins/878/SAB_Copayment_Coupons.pdf
          14. Dr Christina Polomoff discusses the complex world of medication discount cards. Am J Manag Care. April 13, 2021. Accessed September 5, 2023. www.ajmc.com/view/dr-christina-polomoff-discusses-the-complex-world-of-medication-discount-cards
          15. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. What Medicare Pat D plans Cover. Accessed September 7, 2023. https://www.medicare.gov/drug-coverage-part-d/what-medicare-part-d-drug-plans-cover
          16. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Final Contract Year (CY) 2024 Part D Bidding Instructions. April 4, 2023. Accessed September 6, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/files/document/final-cy-2024-part-d-bidding-instructions.pdf
          17. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Parts C&D Enrollee Grievances, Organization/Coverage Determinations, and Appeals Guidance. August 3, 2022. Accessed September 10, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/medicare/appeals-and-grievances/mmcag/downloads/parts-c-and-d-enrollee-grievances-organization-coverage-determinations-and-appeals-guidance.pdf
          18. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare Appeals. Accessed August 23, 2023. https://www.medicare.gov/Pubs/pdf/11525-Medicare-Appeals.pdf
          19. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare Prescription Drug Benefit Manual Chapter 14 – Coordination of Benefits. September 17, 2018. Accessed September 11, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Prescription-Drug-Coverage/PrescriptionDrugCovContra/Downloads/Chapter-14-Coordination-of-Benefits-v09-14-2018.pdf
          20. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Medicare Prescription Drug Coverage and Your Rights. Accessed September 12, 2023. https://www.cms.gov/outreach-and-education/outreach/partnerships/downloads/yourrightsfactsheet.pdf

          The ABCD of Off-Label Medications for Weight Management-RECORDED WEBINAR

          About this Course

          This course is a recorded (home study version) of the CE Finale Encore Webinars.

           

          Learning Objectives

          Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

          1.     Discuss the main principles of management of adiposity-based chronic disease (ABCD)
          2.     Identify the efficacy of commonly prescribed medications that may be used off-label for weight reduction
          3.     List major safety considerations for medications prescribed off-label for weight reduction

          Release and Expiration Dates

          Released:  December 15, 2023
          Expires:  December 15, 2026

          Course Fee

          $17 Pharmacist

          ACPE UAN

          0009-0000-23-038-H01-P

          Session Code

          23RW38-CBA96

          Accreditation Hours

          1.0 hours of CE

          Additional Information

           

          How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

          Accreditation Statement

          The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

          Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-038-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

          Grant Funding

          There is no grant funding for this activity.

          Faculty

          Khanh Dang, PharmD, CDCES, FNAP
          Clinical Professor
          UConn School of Pharmacy
          Storrs, CT

          Faculty Disclosure

          In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

          • Dr. Dang has no relationships with ineligible companies

          Disclaimer

          The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

          Content

          Post Test

          Post Test

          The ABCD of Off-Label Medications for Weight Management
          Post Test
          1. When working with a patient to manage ABCD, what is the first goal?

          A. prevent weight regain
          B. stop further weight gain
          C. achieve weight reduction

          2. Which of the following is the correct order of weight reduction efficacy (highest to lowest)?

          A. tirzepatide > semaglutide > phentermine
          B. semaglutide > SGLT2 inhibitors > phentermine
          C. metformin = semaglutide > topiramate

          3. What did the SELECT RCT report about patients 45 years and older with ABCD and existing cardiovascular disease who did not have diabetes?

          A. The placebo-subtracted weight reduction for weekly semaglutide 2.4 mg was 15% of baseline body weight.
          B. Subcutaneous semaglutide 2.4 mg once weekly reduced major adverse cardiovascular events in ABCD.
          C. Subcutaneous semaglutide 2.4 mg once weekly significantly reduced weight but did not prevent cardiovascular events.

          4. What is the most common adverse reaction for GLP-1 receptor agonist-based medications?

          A. nausea and other gastrointestinal adverse effects
          B. hypoglycemia
          C. sleep disturbance

          5. With which drug class can tirzepatide interact ?

          A. beta blockers
          B. ACE inhibitors
          C. oral hormonal contraceptives

          Handouts

          VIDEO

          TOP 10 Cardiovascular Drugs Used Off Label!!!-RECORDED WEBINAR

          About this Course

          This course is a recorded (home study version) of the CE Finale Encore Webinars.

           

          Learning Objectives

          Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

          • Identify how an FDA approved and off label indication differ and the implications of that differential designation
          • Identify which 10 FDA approved cardiovascular drugs have the most promising off label uses for treating other cardiac or noncardiac disorders
          • Describe the mechanisms of action for the purported off label uses of these drugs
          • Identify which national guidelines or consensus statements recommend the off-label use of drugs

          Release and Expiration Dates

          Released:  December 15, 2023
          Expires:  December 15, 2026

          Course Fee

          $17 Pharmacist

          ACPE UAN

          0009-0000-23-039-H01-P

          Session Code

          23RW39-TXJ88

          Accreditation Hours

          1.0 hours of CE

          Additional Information

           

          How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

          Accreditation Statement

          The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

          Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-039-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

          Grant Funding

          There is no grant funding for this activity.

          Faculty

          C. Michael White, PharmD, FCCP, FCP
          BOT Distinguished Professor and Chair of Pharmacy Practice
          University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy
          Storrs, CT              

          Faculty Disclosure

          In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

          • Dr. White has no relationships with ineligible companies

          Disclaimer

          The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

          Content

          Post Test

          Post Test “TOP 10 Cardiovascular Drugs Used Off Label!!!”

          1. Which of the following drugs has been used to enhance the chances of delivering a baby in patients with Factor 5 Leiden and what is the mechanism of benefit?
          a) Thiazide diuretics; reduced placental calcium that stops crystalline umbilical cord blockage
          b) LMWH; preventing placental thrombosis in patients who are hypercoagulable
          c) Disopyramide – decreasing the inotropic effect in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy that leads to placental detachment

          2. Which of the following drugs is effective for treating anal fissures and what is the mechanism of action?
          a) IV iron; iron deficiency anemia promotes fissure formation so treating it reverses fissure
          b) Amiodarone; overactive potassium channels in the anus lead to apoptosis of anal mucosal cells
          c) CCBs; Blood vessel dilation enhancing blood flow to targeted areas in the body

          3. Which of the following drugs is properly linked to the off-label indication it is commonly used for?
          a) Beta-blockers – Raynaud’s phenomenon
          b) Prazosin – Nightmares in PTSD patients
          c) Clonidine – Stage fright

          4. Which of the following drugs is used off label for the treatment of abnormal face and body hair growth in patients and what is the mechanism of action?
          a) Spironolactone – blocking the effects of testosterone in several ways
          b) Beta-blockers – blocking epinephrine induced follicular stimulation
          c) Clonidine – central outflow of norepinephrine causes abnormal hair growth

          5. Sally Sue has had atrial fibrillation for several months. Her cardiologist has prescribed several therapies that have been ineffective, and one that is on the drug shortage list and hard to find. Which of the following might the cardiologist use off-label according to the AHA/ACC Guideline?

          a) Calcium channel blockers
          b) Prazocin
          c) Amiodarone

          Handouts

          VIDEO

          Antipsychotic Utilization in a Pediatric Population-RECORDED WEBINAR

          About this Course

          This course is a recorded (home study version) of the CE Finale Encore Webinars.

           

          Learning Objectives

          Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

          1. Describe current practice guidelines regarding the use of antipsychotic medications in a pediatric population.
          2.  Outline adverse effects associated with the use of antipsychotic medication in a pediatric population.
          3.  Discuss when to initiate an antipsychotic medication in a pediatric patient.

          Release and Expiration Dates

          Released:  December 15, 2023
          Expires:  December 15, 2026

          Course Fee

          $17 Pharmacist

          ACPE UAN

          0009-0000-23-043-H01-P

          Session Code

          23RW43-XYW84

          Accreditation Hours

          1.0 hours of CE

          Additional Information

           

          How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

          Accreditation Statement

          The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

          Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-043-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

          Grant Funding

          There is no grant funding for this activity.

          Faculty

          Megan J. Ehret PharmD, MS, BCPP
          Professor, Co-Director of Mental Health Program
          University of Maryland School of Pharmacy
          Baltimore, MD

          Faculty Disclosure

          In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

          • Dr. Ehret is a consultant with Saladex Biomedical

          Disclaimer

          The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

          Content

          Post Test

          Post Test

          Antipsychotic Utilization in a Pediatric Population

          Megan Ehret, PharmD

           
          1. Which medication is a first-line treatment option for a 14-year-old patient with newly diagnosed schizophrenia?
          a. Divalproex Sodium
          b. Haloperidol
          C. Risperidone

          2. Which medication is a first-line treatment option for a 16-year-old patient with bipolar disorder, most recent episode depressed?
          A. Aripiprazole
          B. Divalproex Sodium
          C. Lurasidone

          3. Which medication can cause the most substantial weight gain?
          A. Cariprazine
          B. Lumateperone
          C. Olanzapine

          4. Which rating scale should be used to screen patients for tardive dyskinesia?

          A. Extrapyramidal Symptom Rating Scale
          B. Barnes Akathisia Rating Scale
          C. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale

          5. In which disease state would it be appropriate to initiate an antipsychotic medication in a pediatric patient?
          A. Autism
          B. Conduct Disorder
          C. Intellectual Disability

          Handouts

          VIDEO

          Indication Deviation in Women’s Health: Off-Label Drug Use from Conception to Menopause-RECORDED WEBINAR

          About this Course

          This course is a recorded (home study version) of the CE Finale Encore Webinars.

           

          Learning Objectives

          Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

          Recognize diverse instances of off-label drug use in women's health, spanning preconception to menopause
          Discuss risks and advantages associated with off-label drug utilization during

          various reproductive stages

          Identify the pharmacist's role in advocating for safe and informed off-label drug use for women’s health

          Release and Expiration Dates

          Released:  December 15, 2023
          Expires:  December 15, 2026

          Course Fee

          $17 Pharmacist

          ACPE UAN

          0009-0000-23-040-H01-P

          Session Code

          23RW40-JXT85

          Accreditation Hours

          1.0 hours of CE

          Additional Information

           

          How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

          Accreditation Statement

          The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

          Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-040-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

          Grant Funding

          There is no grant funding for this activity.

          Faculty

          Kelsey Giara, PharmD
          Freelance Medical Writer
          Pelham, NH

          Faculty Disclosure

          In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

          • Kelsey Giara has no relationships with ineligible companies

          Disclaimer

          The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

          Content

          Post Test

          Pharmacist Post-test

          Learning Objectives
          After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
          • RECOGNIZE diverse instances of off-label drug use in women's health, spanning pre-conception to menopause
          • DISCUSS risks and advantages associated with off-label drug utilization during various reproductive stages
          • IDENTIFY the pharmacist's role in advocating for safe and informed off-label drug use for women’s health

          1. Which of the following can be treated through off-label use of metformin?
          A. Hirsutism of PCOS
          B. PCOS with BMI ≥ 25 kg/m2
          C. Endometriosis

          2. Which of the following medications is used off-label to induce ovulation in women experiencing infertility and trying to conceive?
          A. Letrozole
          B. Clomiphene citrate
          C. Cetrorelix

          3. Which of the following drugs is used off-label to treat menopausal hot flashes?
          A. Clonidine
          B. Paroxetine
          C. Fezolinetant

          4. Which of the following is TRUE about off-label medication use during pregnancy?
          A. All drugs have sufficient efficacy and safety data to support their use during pregnancy
          B. Providers should use the letter-based FDA rating system to aid in shared clinical decision-making
          C. About three-quarters of pregnant women use medications for off-label uses during pregnancy

          5. A patient comes to your pharmacy experiencing frequent hot flashes. She states that a friend suggested she try taking black cohosh. She takes lisinopril for hypertension and metformin for prediabetes, and she is otherwise healthy. Which of the following is the BEST response?
          A. Black cohosh will interact with your blood pressure medication, so you should not take it. Ask your doctor about clonidine instead.
          B. Black cohosh shows some benefit, but clinical trials are inconsistent and available data is insufficient. You can try taking 20 mg daily for a few weeks to see if your symptoms improve.
          C. Black cohosh shows no benefit whatsoever for VMS of menopause. Ask your doctor about letrozole instead.

          6. Which of the following is TRUE about Pregnancy Exposure Registries?
          A. They steal data about women’s babies and sell it on the black market
          B. They are FDA-sponsored registries that collect health information
          C. Pregnant women volunteer to share their experiences with off-label drug use

          Handouts

          VIDEO

          Treating Gout without Doubt

          Learning Objectives

           

          After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

          1. Describe gout's pathogenesis, relationship to hyperuricemia, and complications of untreated gout
          2. Describe the diagnosis and goals of therapy for gout
          3. Recall nonpharmacologic therapy for the management of gout and medications that can increase serum uric acid level
          4. Discuss the appropriate approach to gout therapy (acute attack treatment, prevention of future gout attacks, "medication-in-pocket," and "treat-to-target") and its timing

          After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:

          1. Describe gout's pathogenesis, relationship to hyperuricemia, and complications of untreated gout
          2. Recall nonpharmacologic therapy for the management of gout and medications that can increase serum uric acid level
          3. Recognize different pharmacological classes and regimens for urate-lowering therapy (ULT) and target serum uric acid level
          4. Define the "treat-to-target" and "medication-in-pocket" approaches in gout therapy

             

            Release Date: January 10, 2024

            Expiration Date: January 10, 2027

            Course Fee

            Pharmacists:  $7

            Pharmacy Technicians: $4

            There is no funding for this CE.

            ACPE UANs

            Pharmacist: 0009-0000-24-006-H01-P

            Pharmacy Technician:  0009-0000-24-006-H01-T

            Session Codes

            Pharmacist:  24YC06-JBX39

            Pharmacy Technician: 24YC06-XJB44

            Accreditation Hours

            2.0 hours of CE

            Accreditation Statements

            The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-006-H01-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

             

            Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

            The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

            Faculty

            Samar Nicolas, RPh, PharmD, CPPS
            Assistant Professor of Pharmacy Practice
            MCPHS University
            Worcester/Manchester, MA

            Faculty Disclosure

            In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

            Samar Nicolas has no relationships with ineligible companies.

             

            ABSTRACT

            Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis affecting about 9.2 million adults in the United States (US) and is the result of hyperurice-mia. Gout results from the chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues. Although gout can affect any joint, initial attacks usually in-volve the big toe joint. The most recent guideline for the management of gout recommends colchicine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, or glucocorticoids (oral, intraarticular, intramuscular) as first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares. Patient-specific factors guide the drug choice among the first-line agents. Interleukin-1 inhibitors or adrenocorticotropic hormone are alternative agents. Pharmacists are well-positioned to assess adherence to ULT and educate patients about the importance of urate lowering therapy. Pharmacy technicians can ensure that patients have refills on their medication-in-pocket prescription to facilitate early initiation.

            CONTENT

            Content

            INTRODUCTION

            “I’ve been shot, and I’ve been stabbed; nothing compares to gout pain.”

            This is how Jim, a 77 year old man, describes his pain as he hobbles into the pharmacy to refill his prescription for colchicine. Jim complains that colchicine is not controlling his gout. He is wearing slippers that show his red swollen joint around his right big toe that is warm and painful to touch. Jim says his physician explained that these symptoms are due to podagra, uric acid crystallization and settling in the joint between his foot and big toe.1 As Jim speaks, his breath projects a strong alcohol smell.

            Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis affecting about 9.2 million adults in the United States (US) and is the result of hyperuricemia.2,3 Men are at higher risk of developing gout than women.4 Other risk factors include post-menopause, genetics, end-stage renal disease, and major organ transplant.

            Uric acid overproduction, under-excretion, or both, elevate serum uric acid levels.5 Underexcretion of uric acid accounts for about 90% of gout cases.6 Human bodies produce uric acid as they break down dying tissues.4 Other sources of uric acid are foods high in purines, such as meats, seafood, and alcoholic beverages.7, 8 Ancient Greek history states that only rich people, who could afford these expensive foods, experience gout.9 Therefore, in the 5th century before Christmas (B.C.), people referred to gout as “the disease of kings.”10

            PATHOGENESIS

            Uric acid circulates in the blood as monosodium urate.11 In the kidneys, uric acid and urate undergo filtration and secretion into the filtrate followed by about 90% reabsorption into the blood.12 The American College of Rheumatology (ACR) guideline defines hyperuricemia as serum uric acid of 6.8 mg/dL or greater, the level above which urate becomes insoluble in the blood.4

            Gout results from the chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues.4,13 Insoluble monosodium urate crystals form stone-like deposits, known as tophi, in soft tissues, synovial tissues, or bones.14,15 Tophi trigger an inflammatory response, which presents as an acute gout attack.15,16 However, hyperuricemia does not always result in gout.4

            Although gout can affect any joint, initial attacks usually involve the big toe joint. Gout attacks are sudden and very painful.17 Acute gout attacks reach maximum pain level in 12 to 24 hours and may last 3 to 14 days if patients do not seek therapy.18 For this reason, all healthcare providers including those on pharmacy teams need to educate patients to seek medical care. Effective gout management reduces the risk of long-term complications like degenerative arthritis, urate nephropathy, infections, renal stones, joint fractures, and nerve or spinal cord impingement.19

             

            DIAGNOSIS OF GOUT

            Clinicians diagnose gout by collecting patient history, examining the patient, laboratory workup, and imaging.19 Uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid or tophi in tissues and/or bones confirm gout diagnosis regardless of the uric acid level.4

            TREATMENT OF GOUT

            The ACR guideline describes 3 treatment goals for patients with gout20:

            1. Terminating the acute gout attack
            2. Preventing future attacks
            3. Lowering the serum uric acid level

            Terminating the Acute Gout Attack

            The ACR published the most recent guideline for the management of gout in 2020. The ACR guideline recommends colchicine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or glucocorticoids (oral, intraarticular, intramuscular) as first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares.20  Patient-specific factors guide the drug choice among the first-line agents. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) inhibitors or adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) are alternative agents.20  If a first-line agent is ineffective, intolerable, or contraindicated, the ACR guideline recommends switching to another first-line agent before trying alternative agents. Topical ice is an adjunct to pharmacologic therapy. The severity of the gout flare guides the treatment duration.

             

            Colchicine

            Colchicine exerts its anti-inflammatory effects by binding to free tubulin dimers leading to microtubule polymerization inhibition, which affects cellular function.21, 22 Colchine has had an interesting history, as the SIDEBAR explains. Common side effects of colchicine are dose-dependent and include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.  Because of its mechanism of action, toxic levels of colchicine inhibit cellular division leading to failure of multiple organs .22 Colchicine doses of 0.8 mg/kg are lethal.23 Colchicine undergoes extensive tissue distribution and therefore, a lower dose can be toxic in patients with liver or renal failure. Some unchanged colchicine undergoes renal excretion through glomerular filtration and therefore, requires dosage adjustment for renal dysfunction.21, 24  Cytochrome P450 3A4 hepatic enzymes metabolize colchicine.21, 25 P-glycoprotein facilitates colchicine removal from the body.26 Co-administration of medications that inhibit CYP3A4 enzyme activity (example: grapefruit juice, azole antifungals, erythromycin, verapamil) increase the risk of colchicine toxicity.21, 25 In addition, co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors (example: digoxin) increases the risk of colchicine toxicity.26 Toxic symptoms are dose-dependent with increasing severity.27 Patients with toxicity may present with gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), hypotension, lactic acidosis, or acute kidney injury.22, 27 To decrease the risk of toxicity, colchicine’s prescribing information recommends avoiding its co-administration with P-glycoprotein inhibitors or CYP3A4 inhibitors in patients with renal or hepatic impairment.28 For other patients, the prescribing information recommends weighing risks versus benefits before co-administering colchicine with medications that pose a significant drug interaction.

             

            SIDEBAR: HISTORY OF COLCHICINE

            Colchicine is derived from a plant, Colchicum automnale.29 Other names for this plant include Autumn Crocus, meadow saffron, naked lady, and colchicum.30 Ebers Papyrus, an Egyptian medical document on herbs dating back to 1500 BC, indicates the use of C. automnale for joint pain.31 In 1833, a German pharmacist analyzed the substance and gave it the name colchicine.29 In France, in 1819, a chemist and a pharmacist isolated colchicine from the plant. In 1884, a French pharmacist produced and sold colchicine as 1 mg granules, which is still available in some countries.29,32 Colchicine accounts for about 0.1-0.6% of the plant content.33 Non-surprisingly, the C. automnale plant is poisonous. Humans should not ingest the plant. Symptoms of C. automnale toxicity resemble the side effects or toxicity of colchicine.34 These symptoms range from diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting to organ failure and death.

            Colchicine was available for decades in the US without a U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved labeling.35 Despite the Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requiring the FDA to approve medications based on efficacy and safety data, colchicine was grandfathered in. Grandfathered drugs were medications available on market before the Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act of 1938 or its amendments in 1962.

            In 2006, the FDA initiated the unapproved drug initiative (UDI).36 The goal of the UDI program was to decrease the number of medications in the United States that do not carry FDA approval. Under the UDI program, the FDA allowed exclusive marketing to manufacturers who obtain FDA approval. Some pharmacists and pharmacy technicians may recall colchicine shortage as manufacturers of colchicine received warning letters from the FDA to stop selling colchicine.37 Mutual Pharmaceutical Company submitted a new drug application (NDA) for colchicine in November 2008.38 The UDI did not require manufacturers to conduct new clinical trials to obtain FDA approval. Mutual Pharmaceutical Company’s NDA included data from randomized controlled trials in 1974 and 2004 that proved the safety and efficacy of colchicine. As a result, in July 2009 the FDA approved colchicine for the treatment of gout and familial Mediterranean fever. Colchicine came back to the US market under brand name Colcrys.39

             

            Colchicine is light sensitive. Pharmacies should protect colchicine from light and dispense it in a light-resistant container.28 The FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide to patients when dispensing colchicine.40 Medication guides inform patients of potential serious adverse reactions and harm mitigation strategies. The Institute for Safe Medical Practices (ISMP) lists colchicine on the look-alike sound-alike (LASA) list due to potential for confusion with Cortrosyn, which is the brand name for cosyntropin.41  Of note, cosyntropin is a synthetic adrenocorticotropin hormone that has anti-inflammatory properties and is an alternative agent for gout attacks.42 In patients with a history of gout, the ACR guideline recommends a “medication-in-pocket” (discussed below) approach to allow early initiation of an anti-inflammatory drug at the onset of a gout flare.20 Since colchicine has anti-inflammatory properties, it is an option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach.

            The pharmacist takes a close look at Jim’s prescription refill history to figure out why colchicine is not working for Jim. The pharmacist explores several possibilities:

            • Is Jim adhering to his urate-lowering therapy (ULT)?
            • Is Jim refilling his colchicine as part of a gout flare prophylactic therapy upon initiating ULT?
            • Is Jim asking for colchicine as a “medication-in-pocket” approach?
            • Is Jim consuming excessive alcohol?
            • Is Jim eating foods rich in purines?
            • Is Jim taking any prescription or over-the-counter medications that may increase his uric acid level?

            NSAIDs

            The FDA has approved indomethacin, naproxen, and sulindac for the treatment of acute gout flare.43,44, 45 However, the guideline does not recommend a specific NSAID.20 Choice of agent depends on patient-specific factors including cardiovascular (CV) risk, gastrointestinal (GI) risk, cost, and availability without a prescription.46 Celecoxib is a selective cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor and therefore carries a low GI risk but is associated with a dose-dependent increase in CV risk.47, 48 Ibuprofen carries a low GI risk. Indomethacin, naproxen, diclofenac, and sulindac carry a moderate GI risk.49, 50 Among the nonselective NSAIDs, CV risk is highest with diclofenac and lowest with naproxen.51 Despite differences in CV risk among nonselective NSAIDs, the FDA mandates a boxed warning for all NSAIDs about increased  risk of thrombosis, myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke.52, 53 In addition, the FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide to patients when dispensing a prescription for NSAIDs.54 Any NSAID is an option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach.20

            Glucocorticoids

            The ACR guideline does not recommend a specific oral glucocorticoid.20 Parenteral glucocorticoids (intramuscular, intravenous, or intraarticular) are alternative options for patients who cannot tolerate oral therapy. Glucocorticoids (example: prednisone, methylprednisolone) are an attractive option for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) or those who cannot tolerate colchicine or NSAIDs.1,55 Short-term glucocorticoids do not cause significant side effects.56, 57 Glucocorticoids are an additional option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach, including injectable formulations for patients who cannot take oral medications.20 Methylprednisolone is available in different dosage forms such as oral, intramuscular (as acetate or succinate), intravenous (as acetate), and intraarticular (as acetate).58

            Anakinra

            Anakinra is an IL-1 receptor antagonist.59 It blocks the activity of the inflammatory mediatory IL-1. Anakinra has an off-label indication for gout attacks at a dose of 100 mg subcutaneously daily for 3 to 5 days.60, 61 The ACR guideline classifies anakinra as an alternative agent, particularly due to cost.20 The manufacturer recommends storing anakinra in the refrigerator and protecting from light until ready for administration.62 Patients can self-administer anakinra after demonstrating proper administration technique.59

            ACTH

            Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) binds to melanocortin receptors, which triggers the release of endogenous steroids, thus decreasing inflammation.63 The ACR guideline recommends ACTH as an alternative agent.20,63 ACTH is available as an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.64 The purified cortrophin formulation carries an indication for acute gouty arthritis.65 The manufacturer does not provide a dosing recommendation specific for gout and recommends caution in patients with renal insufficiency.64-66 The manufacturer recommends storing ACTH in the refrigerator until ready for administration and warming to room temperature before injecting.67

            Table 1 summarizes the first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares.

            Table 1. First-line Agents for the Treatment of Gout Flares20, 24, 44-46, 56, 68-71 
            Therapy Dose Comment Monitoring parameters
            Colchicine ·        Day 1 of therapy: Use treatment dose of 1.2 mg by mouth (PO) as soon as possible then 0.6 mg after one hour. Maximum dose 1.8 mg/day.

            ·        Day 2 and until flare resolves, use prophylactic dose of 0.6 mg PO once or twice daily.

            If creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 30 mL/min:

             

            ·        Use 1.2 mg PO as soon as possible then single dose of 0.6 mg after one hour. Avoid repeating therapy within a 14-day period.

            ·        Alternatively, use 0.3 mg PO as soon as possible as a single dose. Avoid repeating therapy within 3-7 days.

             

            If patient is on dialysis:

            ·        Use 0.6 mg PO as a single dose. Avoid repeating therapy within a 14-day period.

            Monitor patients with CrCl ≤ 80 mL/min closely for adverse effects.
            NSAIDs

             

            ·        Indomethacin: 50 mg three time daily until pain is tolerable (usually, 3 to 5 days).

            ·        Sulindac: 200 mg twice daily until attack resolves (usually, 7 days).

            ·        Naproxen: 750 mg x 1 dose then 250 mg every 8 hours until attack resolves (usually, 2 days).

            ·        The manufacturer does not provide recommendations for renal dosage adjustment.

            ·        The Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines recommends avoiding use of NSAIDs If CrCl < 30 mL/minute.

            Monitor GI, renal, and CV toxicity in elderly patients.

            Prescribe lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible.

            Glucocorticoids ·        Follow specific glucocorticoid dosing recommendation. Safest option in patients with CKD. Monitor serum glucose, blood pressure, electrolytes, mood changes, and recurrent infections.

             

            Interestingly, a panel consisting of eight patients with gout participated in the development of the 2020 ACR guidelines.20 The patient panel provided valuable input from a patient perspective regarding therapy preference for patients with an established gout diagnosis. The patient panel strongly favored a medication-in-pocket approach for the treatment of acute gout flares. With this approach, the clinician prescribes an anti-inflammatory medication that the patient keeps on hand for use as needed.72 Moreover, the patient panel favored an injectable dosage form for the medication-in-pocket to control the pain faster in patients who can take nothing by mouth. The medication-in-pocket approach ensures that patients have quick access to an anti-inflammatory medication at the first onset of gout attack symptoms.20

            Jim’s colchicine regimen is consistent with the “medication-in-pocket” to treat an acute gout flare.

            MANAGEMENT OF CHRONIC GOUT

            The goal of chronic gout management is to lower the serum uric acid level with ULT, if indicated, and to prevent future attacks.20 ULT includes medications that decrease uric acid production or promote uric acid excretion.73 The ACR 2020 guideline recommends a “treat-to-target” approach that guides ULT dose titration and maintenance to achieve serum uric acid of less than 6 mg/dL.20 Lower ULT initial dosing with subsequent titration decreases the risk of gout flare associated with ULT initiation.20

            Pause and Ponder: What patient factors determine eligibility for urate lowering therapy (ULT)?

            Table 2 provides recommendation on initiation of ULT based on patient-specific factors.

            Table 2 - Indication for ULT 20
            Patient factors 2020 ACR guideline recommendation Comment
            ≥1 subcutaneous tophi ACR guideline strongly recommends initiating ULT Moderate or high certainty of evidence that benefits of ULT consistently outweigh the risks
            Gout-attributable radiographic damage
            ≥2 gout flares per year
            > 1 flare but < 2 flares per year ACR guideline conditionally recommends initiating ULT Low certainty of evidence or no data available and/or benefits and risks closely balanced
            First flare and any of the following:

            ·        Chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage ≥ 3

            ·        Serum uric acid > 9 mg/dL

            ·        Urolithiasis

            First gout flare ACR guideline conditionally recommends against initiating ULT
            Asymptomatic hyperuricemia*

            *Serum uric acid > 6.8 mg/dL

            Pause and Ponder: Which urate-lowering agent is first-line therapy?

            Table 3 summarizes urate-lowering medications.

            Table 3 - Urate Lowering Medications 20,74-76
            Pharmacological class Mechanism of action Medication Comments
            Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors Inhibition of xanthine oxidase resulting in decreased conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol

            Febuxostat

            ·        Allopurinol is first-line agent.

            ·        Start allopurinol at ≤ 100 mg/day in normal kidney function and ≤ 50 mg/day in CKD stage ≥ 3 then titrate.

            ·        Start febuxostat at ≤ 40 mg/day then titrate.

             

            Uricosuric Agents Inhibition of urate reabsorption in the renal tubules resulting in increased excretion of uric acid in the urine. Probenecid ·        ACR guideline strongly recommends XOI over probenecid for patients with CKD stage ≥ 3

            ·        Start probenecid at 500 mg PO once or twice daily then titrate.

            Urate Oxidase Enzyme Catalysis of uric acid oxidation to water-soluble allantoin resulting in increased excretion of the allantoin in the urine. Pegloticase ·        ACR guideline strongly recommends against use of pegloticase as a first-line agent

            ·        Administer pegloticase 8 mg IV infusion every 2 weeks along with methotrexate 15 mg PO once a week with a folic acid supplement.

            ·        Start weekly methotrexate and folic acid supplementation 4 weeks before initiating pegloticase and continue while on pegloticase.

             

            Clinicians usually determine eligibility for ULT when patients present with an acute gout attack.20 Some experts favor initiating ULT two to four weeks after the resolution of a gout attack.77 One reason for this practice stems from the fear of gout attack worsening with ULT initiation. The other reason is the perception that during a gout attack, patients are in too much pain to process information regarding chronic therapy. However, the ACR guideline favors initiating ULT during a gout flare as patients may not return for a follow-up visit to initiate ULT after the flare resolves.20

            XANTHINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS (XOIs)

            XOI include allopurinol and febuxostat.20 XOI are first-line among urate-lowering agents, and the guideline recommends allopurinol as a first-line agent for all patients with gout, unless contraindicated.

            Allopurinol

            Allopurinol is associated with an increased risk of allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome (AHS), a rare but severe, and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction.78 AHS presents as fever, severe rash, eosinophilia, hepatitis, and acute kidney injury.79 AHS is more common in patients who are African Americans or of Southeast Asian descent.78 Pharmacogenetic studies show that these patients have a gene on their human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system that increases the risk of developing AHS. This gene is the HLA-B*5801 allele.80 The interaction of allopurinol with the HLA-B*5801 allele triggers an immune reaction characterized by T-cell activation.81 Not all patients who are positive for HLA-B*5801 allele develop AHS.82 Risk of AHS increases in HLA-B*5801 allele positive patients who have elevated allopurinol serum level due to dose increase or renal dysfunction.81

            In the US, testing for HLA-B*5801 in Caucasians or Hispanics is not cost-effective.83 The 2020 ACR guideline recommends genetic testing for the HLA-B*5801 allele before starting allopurinol for patients who are African Americans or of Southeast Asian descent.20 The guideline recommends starting allopurinol at a low dose of 100 mg daily for normal renal function and a lower dose in case of renal dysfunction.

            The prescribing information recommends protecting allopurinol from light.74 ISMP lists the brand name of allopurinol, Zyloprim, on the look-alike sound-alike (LASA) list due to potential for confusion with zolpidem.42

             

            SIDEBAR: DID YOU KNOW THAT THE DISCOVERY OF ALLOPURINOL LED TO A NOBEL PRIZE AWARD?

            Gertrude Elion, who earned a master’s degree in chemistry from New York University in 1941, worked as a lab assistant for George Hitchings. Up until the 1950s, scientists produced medications by screening and modifying naturally existing substances.84 However, Elion and Hitchings’ contribution to medicine was groundbreaking to drug development as they introduced drug therapy that was targeted to specific cells. In 1963, Elion and Hutchings discovered that allopurinol blocked the synthesis of uric acid. In 1988, the Nobel Prize Committee awarded Gertrude Elion and George Hitchings the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for the discovery of allopurinol and other medications.85

             

            Febuxostat

            Febuxostat carries a boxed warning for increased risk of CV death in patients with cardiovascular disease (CVD), when compared to allopurinol.86 Therefore, the 2020 ACR guideline recommends selecting another ULT medication in patients with established CVD.20 For patients who experience a CV event while on febuxostat, the ACR guideline recommends switching to a different ULT medication.20 The FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide when dispensing febuxostat to patients.86

            URICOSURICS

            Probenecid

            Probenecid is the only uricosuric drug approved in the United States.87,88 Probenecid may cause nephrolithiasis (uric acid stones in the kidneys).89 These uric acid stones form as the uric acid crystallizes in an acidic urine. The prescribing information for probenecid recommends adequate hydration and adjunct urine alkalinizing agents (example: sodium bicarbonate or potassium citrate).89 However, the 2020 ACR guideline determined insufficient evidence to recommend the routine use of alkalinizing agents with probenecid.20 Probenecid is usually an add-on therapy in patients with partial response to an XOI. Remember to counsel patients on adequate hydration to decrease the risk of nephrolithiasis.

            ISMP lists probenecid on the LASA list due to potential for confusion with Procanbid, the brand name for procainamide, an antiarrhythmic drug.42 Probenecid also has some interesting abuse potential (see the SIDEBAR).

             

            SIDEBAR: CAN PROBENECID HELP ATHLETES IMPROVE PERFORMANCE?

            Random drug testing in sports led athletes to misuse probenecid to mask the unlawful use of performance-enhancing drugs such as anabolic-androgenic steroids.90 Probenecid inhibits the tubular secretion of anabolic-androgenic steroids in the kidneys, thus inhibiting their excretion in the urine. As a result, urine drug testing will not detect the use of these illegal substance, and athletes can pass the random drug testing successfully. In 1986, a doping control officer traveled from Norway and collected 6 urine samples from 6 Norwegian athletes who were training in the US. The athletes showed up at least 1.5 hours late probably to allow time for onset of action of the masking agent. Five of the samples showed an unusually dilute urine with low specific gravity. In addition, the concentration of endogenous androgenic-anabolic steroids in the urine samples was at least 100 times below normal.90 These unusual findings along with suspicious behaviors projected by the athletes during the testing process, triggered further analysis of the urine samples. The lab identified a “new masking agent”, probenecid and its metabolite, in these urine samples. Today, probenecid appears on the World Anti Doping Agency (WADA) prohibited list.91 The WADA list serves as a standard for identifying substances that athletes may illegally use to enhance performance in sports.91

             

            URATE OXIDASE ENZYME

            Pegloticase

            The FDA approved pegloticase for adults with chronic gout refractory to conventional therapy.92 The 2020 ACR guidelines recommends switching to pegloticase when XOIs, probenecid, and other interventions fail.20 In clinical trials, administering methotrexate with pegloticase increased the chance of tophi resolution by 22.8% compared to pegloticase monotherapy.76 Therefore, pegloticase’s prescribing information recommends co-administration with methotrexate, unless contraindicated. Folic acid supplementation decreases the risk of hepatotoxicity and GI side effects associated with methotrexate.93 Pharmacists should counsel patients about the importance of adherence to folic acid while on methotrexate.

            The manufacturer recommends storing pegloticase in the refrigerator and protecting it from light before dispensing.76 After diluting pegloticase for IV infusion in an institutional setting, healthcare workers should protect the solution from light.

             

            Pause and Ponder: When does the guideline recommend switching urate-lowering agents?

            The 2020 ACR guideline recommends using the maximum tolerated or recommended dose of a ULT.20  Figure 1 outlines the management of patients taking a XOI requiring adjustment to therapy:

            Figure 1. Switching ULT

            Jim’s medication profile reveals that he has been taking allopurinol for little over a year now.

             

            DURATION OF THERAPY

            For patients tolerating ULT, the 2020 ACR guideline recommends indefinite therapy to avoid worsening gout and its associated complications.20 Patients may not adhere to therapy due to cost, pill burden, and low health literacy.94 Remember to counsel patient on adherence and goals of ULT as patients may think they do not need to take ULT if they have no symptoms.

            PREVENTING GOUT FLARE UPON INITIATION OF ULT

            Initiation of ULT may trigger a gout flare due to activation of crystals precipitated in joints.95, 96 The risk of gout flare increases with higher reduction in serum uric acid levels. Studies suggest that gout attacks associated with ULT may decrease patient adherence to ULT.97 Prophylaxis with anti-inflammatory medications decreases the risk of gout flare upon ULT initiation. The 2020 ACR guideline recommends prophylactic therapy upon initiating ULT and for at least three to six months. Patients who continue to experience flares may require a longer duration of prophylactic therapy.20 Experts recommend colchicine or NSAIDs as first-line prophylactic therapy.98 Table 4 summarizes prophylactic medications and recommendations.

            Table 4 – Medications that Prevent Gout Attack with ULT Initiation
            Medication Recommendation
            Low-dose colchicine Use 0.6 mg once or twice daily
            Low-dose NSAIDs Use naproxen 250 mg or equivalent dose of different NSAID

            Add proton pump inhibitor if indicated

            Low-dose prednisone or prednisolone Use less than or equal to 10 mg per day

            Reserve corticosteroids for patients who cannot tolerate colchicine and NSAIDs

             

            NONPHARMACOLOGIC THERAPY AND LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS

            Serum uric acid levels decrease only slightly with dietary modifications.20 In addition, certain diets may trigger a gout flare. To decrease the risk of flares, the 2020 ACR guideline conditionally recommends the following approaches:

            • Limiting alcohol intake
            • Limiting purine intake. Some examples of high-purine foods include seafood like sardines, tuna, haddock, and meats like bacon, turkey, veal, and liver.99, 100
            • Limiting high-fructose corn syrup intake
            • Following a weight loss program if the patient is overweight or obese

            Jim projected an alcohol breath when speaking. Jim may be consuming excessive amounts of alcohol. He may be consuming a non-gout friendly diet.

            DIGITAL HEALTH AND GOUT MANAGEMENT

            Digitalization of health care is rapidly evolving and involves the use of technology to manage health conditions, ameliorate modifiable risk factors, and promote health and wellness.101 Wearable devices such as fitness trackers, patient portals, and mobile apps are only few examples of digital health tools. Investigators suggest that gout mobile health apps may improve patient perception of the disease, clarify beliefs, and benefit self-care.102 However, further studies are essential to prove these mobile applications beneficial. As of this writing, several gout-related mobile health applications are available. Target users for these applications can be clinicians or patients. For example, a physician developed a mobile application called Gout Diagnosis. The application includes an evidence-based algorithm to facilitate an accurate diagnosis of gout.103 On the other hand, patients can download from a variety of existing gout mobile applications at little or no cost.104 The National Kidney Foundation developed a mobile application called Gout Central. This application comes from a reputable foundation and provides patient education on symptoms and risk factors for gout, nonpharmacologic recommendations such as diet and lifestyle modifications, and medications to treat gout and prevent flares.104 The FDA does not regulate mobile medical applications.105 Therefore, the choice of mobile health application depends on patient preference such as cost, ease of use, compatibility, security, and type of content.106

            A mobile application may help Jim learn about foods and drinks that may trigger gout attacks.

            PHARMACY TEAM IMPACT ON GOUT MANAGEMENT

            Pharmacists are the most accessible healthcare professionals. Patients with a gout flare may seek pharmacists for recommendations on pain management. When patients without a previous gout diagnosis present to the pharmacy, pharmacists may recognize signs of gout and refer them to their primary care clinician. Pharmacists can educate patients who have a diagnosis for gout about the phases and goals of gout therapy, including the likelihood that ULT will be a lifelong therapy.

            Pharmacists are well-positioned to assess adherence to ULT and educate patients about the importance of ULT.107 Pharmacists can assess patient understanding of various therapies and remind them that anti-inflammatory medications treat acute gout attack or prevent gout flare upon initiating ULT. Pharmacists should empower patients to request from their clinician a medication-in-pocket prescription. Pharmacists should counsel patients on the proper use of medication-in-pocket by reminding them to take the anti-inflammatory medication as soon as possible, ideally within 12 hours of onset of a gout attack.108 In addition, patients may need a reminder about continuing their ULT while taking the medication-in-pocket for acute flares.109

            Pharmacy technicians can ensure that patients have refills on their medication-in-pocket prescription to facilitate early initiation. Updating the patient’s records in the pharmacy software with the gout diagnosis can facilitate this continuity of care. The pharmacy team should encourage patients to fill all their prescriptions at the same pharmacy. Through access to all the patient’s medications, pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can play a crucial role in optimizing gout management by identifying medications that increase serum uric acid levels.110

            In addition, the pharmacy team can identify potential drug-drug interactions. This is particularly important with colchicine as it is a substrate for CYP3A4 and P-gp and has a narrow therapeutic window.111 In addition, some medications are known to increase serum uric acid levels.20 Advising patients to check with the pharmacy team before purchasing an over-the-counter (OTC) medication can decrease the use of inappropriate medications. When completing transactions at the register, pharmacy technicians are well positioned to identify OTC products that can worsen gout, such as vitamin A or niacin.112 On the other hand, frequent purchase of OTC anti-inflammatory medications like naproxen or ibuprofen may imply uncontrolled gout.

            Patients can find educational videos on YouTube to learn more about gout therapy and appropriate diet.113 Additional resources are available to patients on goutalliance.org. These include videos, podcasts, guides, and awareness events.114 Some patients may like to learn about their condition using gout-related mobile applications.

            Pharmacy interns may benefit in hearing from patients about their experience with gout, especially the debilitating pain. This may help future pharmacists empathize and develop better relationships with patients, which can improve patient outcomes.115

            The entire pharmacy team could engage in alleviating misconceptions about gout. Some patients with gout have reported stigma regarding their condition from friends, family members, and healthcare workers.116 Some patients with gout have even reported an internalized stigma. Stigmatization may be due to the misbelief that gout is benign, preventable, or self-inflicted.

            Did you know that May 22 is National Gout Awareness Day?

            Jim states that he feels embarrassed about wearing slippers that expose his swollen toe. The pain is so intense that he is unable to tolerate a close-toe shoe.

            Table 5 summarizes some medications that may increase serum uric acid level.

            Table 5 – Managing Medications that Increase Serum Uric Acid Level and Risk of Gout Attack20,110,117-119
            Medication Mechanism Recommendation
            Loop and thiazide diuretics

            Use: hypertension, edema

             

            Decrease urate excretion The guideline recommends switching to a different antihypertensive and suggests losartan when feasible.

             

            Aspirin (low-dose, 81 mg)

            Use: prevention of CVD

            Increases uric acid renal reabsorption and decreases secretion The guideline conditionally recommends against discontinuing low-dose aspirin with appropriate indication.
            Niacin

            Use: dietary supplement

            Inhibits the enzyme uricase, thus inhibiting the oxidation of uric acid, or decreases uric acid excretion The guideline does not provide a specific recommendation for niacin-induced hyperuricemia. Experts recommend adequate hydration.

             

            After looking into Jim’s medication profile and inquiring about his OTC products, the pharmacist does not identify any medication that may be increasing his serum uric acid level.

            CONCLUSION

            Gout is the most common type of inflammatory arthritis. Untreated gout can lead to complications such as degenerative arthritis, urate nephropathy, infections, renal stones, joint fractures, and nerve or spinal cord impingement. ULT is indicated for chronic gout management. Allopurinol is the first-line urate-lowering agent. Colchicine, NSAIDs, and corticosteroids are indicated for acute flares, and, in lower doses, for gout flare prophylaxis upon initiating ULT. Diet and lifestyle modifications complement the pharmacologic therapy. The pharmacy team plays a crucial role in identifying drug-induced hyperuricemia and educating patients about the importance of adherence to ULT. Gout flares are painful and debilitating. Pharmacists can recommend initiation of anti-inflammatory therapy for acute gout flares. Pharmacy technicians can ensure patients have refills for their anti-inflammatory medication to facilitate the medication-in-pocket approach.

            Jim’s uncontrolled gout may be due to various reasons that pharmacy team can investigate. Inquiring about Jim’s drinking habits and educating him about the negative impact of alcohol on gout management is a necessary first step in his therapy. If an adequate trial of dietary changes does not control his symptoms, then switching to a different XOI or adding probenecid, depending on what he has tried so far, would be appropriate.

             

             

            Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

            Treating Gout without Doubt

            Pharmacist POST-TEST
            1. Which of the following patient factors accounts for about 90% of gout cases?
            a) Overproduction of uric acid
            b) Underexcretion of uric acid
            c) Liver dysfunction

            2. Why does the American College of Rheumatology (ACR) define hyperuricemia as serum uric acid level greater than or equal to 6.8 mg/dL?

            a) All patients with serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL experience gout
            b) Serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL is insoluble in the blood
            c) Patients with serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL experience urate kidney stones

            3. Which of the following is involved in the pathogenesis of gout?

            a) Chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues
            b) Chronic deposition and crystallization of calcium in the joints and tissues
            c) Increased glomerular filtration rate of uric acid due to caffeine intake

            4. Which of the following is a complication of untreated gout?

            a) Renal stones
            b) Congestive heart failure
            c) Visual changes

            5. Which of the following findings confirms a diagnosis of gout?
            a) Elevated uric acid
            b) Tophi in tissues and/or bones
            c) Burning upon urination

            6. According to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR) guideline, which one of the following is a goal of chronic gout therapy?
            a) Limiting gout attacks to a maximum of 2 attacks per year
            b) Preventing future gout attacks
            c) Decreasing the renal excretion of uric acid

            7. A 55 year-old-man presents with his first acute gout attack. In the absence of contraindications, which of the following medications is an appropriate first-line therapy for this patient?

            a) Colchicine
            b) Intramuscular methylprednisolone
            c) Anakinra

            8. Which one of the following statements is accurate about colchicine drug interactions?
            a) Co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors increases the risk of colchicine toxicity
            b) Co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors decreases colchicine efficacy
            c) Co-administration of colchicine with CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors decreases colchicine efficacy

            9. In the absence of contraindications, which one of the following medications is the first-line urate-lowering therapy?
            a) Allopurinol
            b) Febuxostat
            c) Probenecid

            10. A patient presents to fill his first prescription for allopurinol. Which one of the following is an appropriate counseling point for this patient?
            a) Start taking allopurinol today and continue indefinitely
            b) Discontinue allopurinol once you achieve uric acid level of < 6 mg/dL c) Keep allopurinol on hand and start taking at the first sign of a gout attack 11. A patient experiences an acute attack of gout. You review his medication profile. Which of the following medications may be aggravating his gout? a. atorvastatin b. niacin c. losartan 12. Which of the following is an appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention for gout? a. Increasing intake of purine-containing foods b. Switching from beer or wine to hard alcohol c. Applying ice to sore joints if tolerable

            Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

            Treating Gout without Doubt
            Technician POST TEST question

            1. According to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR), what is the definition of hyperuricemia?

            a) uric acid level > 6 mg/dL
            b) uric acid level ≥ 6.5 mg/dL
            c) uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL

            2. Which of the following statements is accurate about gout attacks?

            a) Gout attacks happen only in the big toe joint
            b) Gout attacks happen only in the morning
            c) Gout attacks happen in any joint

            3. When should patients with a first gout attack seek medical care?
            a) Only if the pain is unbearable
            b) Only if the pain lasts more than 10 days
            c) Anytime patients experience their first gout attack

            4. A patient calls the pharmacy saying that he is starting to experience a gout attack. The patient asks the pharmacy technician to refill his medication-in-pocket prescription. Which one of the following medications can the patient use for medication-in pocket approach?
            a) Allopurinol
            b) Naproxen
            c) Probenecid

            5. A pharmacy technician is refilling a patient’s medication-in pocket prescription for colchicine. The technician notices that after this fill, the prescription has no more refills. The patient’s next appointment is in eight months. What is the best next step?

            a) Send a refill request to the clinician’s office
            b) Inactivate the prescription
            c) Tell the patient to request a prescription during their next visit

            6. What is the goal of therapy for a patient taking allopurinol as part of a gout regimen?
            a) Achieving a serum uric acid level < 6 mg/dL b) Terminating an acute gout attack c) Decreasing the intensity of pain during an acute gout attack 7. Which one of the following nonpharmacologic therapy is beneficial for patients with gout? a) Decreasing the intake of foods high in purines b) Increasing alcoholic beverages consumption c) Decreasing the intake of caffeine 8. A patient visits the pharmacy counter frequently to check-out some OTC products. In the past three months, the patient has purchased the same product four times. Which one of the following OTC products may imply uncontrolled gout? a) Vitamin C b) Ibuprofen c) Dextromethorphan 9. A medication guide should accompany which of the following medications? a) NSAIDs b) Allopurinol c) Probenecid 10. Which one of the following medications Is a urate oxidase enzyme? a) Pegloticase b) Colchicine c) Probenecid 11. A patient experiences an acute attack of gout. You review his medication profile. Which of the following medications may be aggravating his gout? a. atorvastatin b. niacin c. losartan 12. Which of the following is an appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention for gout? a. Increasing intake of purine-containing foods b. Switching from beer or wine to hard alcohol c. Applying ice to sore joints if tolerable

            References

            Full List of References

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              94. Huang IJ, Liew JW, Morcos MB, Zuo S, Crawford C, Bays AM. Pharmacist-managed titration of urate-lowering therapy to streamline gout management. Rheumatol Int. 2019;39(9):1637-1641. doi:10.1007/s00296-019-04333-5
              95. Feng X, Li Y, Gao W. Prophylaxis on gout flares after the initiation of urate-lowering therapy: a retrospective research. Int J Clin Exp Med. 2015;8(11):21460-21465
              96. Jat N, DeSimone EM, McAuliffe R. Urate-Lowering Therapy for the Prevention and Treatment of Gout Flare. www.uspharmacist.com. https://www.uspharmacist.com/article/uratelowering-therapy-for-the-prevention-and-treatment-of-gout-flare
              97. Briesacher BA, Andrade SE, Fouayzi H, Chan KA. Comparison of drug adherence rates among patients with seven different medical conditions. Pharmacotherapy. 2008;28(4):437-443. doi:10.1592/phco.28.4.437
              98. Khanna D, Khanna PP, Fitzgerald JD, et al. 2012 American College of Rheumatology guidelines for management of gout. Part 2: therapy and antiinflammatory prophylaxis of acute gouty arthritis. Arthritis Care Res (Hoboken). 2012;64(10):1447-1461. doi:10.1002/acr.21773
              99. Low Purine Diet Explained with List of Foods to Eat or Avoid. Drugs.com. Updated April 2, 2023. Accessed April 16, 2023. https://www.drugs.com/cg/low-purine-diet.html
              100. Arthritis.org. Published 2020. https://www.arthritis.org/health-wellness/healthy-living/nutrition/healthy-eating/which-foods-are-safe-for-gout
              101. Ronquillo Y, Meyers A, Korvek SJ. Digital Health. [Updated 2023 May 1]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2023 Jan-. Available from: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470260/
              102. Serlachius A, Schache K, Kieser A, Arroll B, Petrie K, Dalbeth N. Association Between User Engagement of a Mobile Health App for Gout and Improvements in Self-Care Behaviors: Randomized Controlled Trial. JMIR Mhealth Uhealth. 2019;7(8):e15021. doi:10.2196/15021
              103. Gout Diagnosis app: diagnosing and treating Gout with evidence based medicine. iMedicalApps. Published June 14, 2016. Accessed August 10, 2023. https://www.imedicalapps.com/2016/06/gout-diagnosis-app-evidence-based-medicine/#
              104. https://www.healthgrades.com/contributors/lorna-collier. Mobile Apps For Gout. Healthgrades. Published February 13, 2014. Accessed August 10, 2023. https://www.healthgrades.com/right-care/gout/mobile-apps-can-help-you-manage-gout
              105. Health C for D and R. Device Software Functions Including Mobile Medical Applications. FDA. Published September 9, 2020. https://www.fda.gov/medical-devices/digital-health-center-excellence/device-software-functions-including-mobile-medical-applications
              106. 10 keys to mHealth apps that are easier to use. American Medical Association. https://www.ama-assn.org/practice-management/digital/10-keys-mhealth-apps-are-easier-use
              107. Dickson A. Treatment and management of gout: the role of pharmacy. The Pharmaceutical Journal. Accessed April 18, 2023. https://pharmaceutical-journal.com/article/ld/treatment-and-management-of-gout-the-role-of-pharmacy
              108. Managing gout in primary care: Part 1 – bpacnz. bpac.org.nz. https://bpac.org.nz/2021/gout-part1.aspx
              109. Golenbiewski J, Keenan RT. Moving the Needle: Improving the Care of the Gout Patient. Rheumatology and Therapy. Published online March 2, 2019. doi:https://doi.org/10.1007/s40744-019-0147-5
              110. Haines A, Bolt J, Dumont Z, Semchuk W. Pharmacists' assessment and management of acute and chronic gout. Can Pharm J (Ott). 2018;151(2):107-113. doi:10.1177/1715163518754916
              111. Hansten PD, Tan MS, Horn JR, et al. Colchicine Drug Interaction Errors and Misunderstandings: Recommendations for Improved Evidence-Based Management. Drug Saf. 2023;46(3):223-242. doi:10.1007/s40264-022-01265-1
              112. Ford ES, Choi HK. Associations between concentrations of uric acid with concentrations of vitamin A and beta-carotene among adults in the United States. Nutr Res. 2013;33(12):995-1002. doi:10.1016/j.nutres.2013.08.008
              113. Onder, M.E., Zengin, O. YouTube as a source of information on gout: a quality analysis. Rheumatol Int 41, 1321–1328 (2021). https://doi.org/10.1007/s00296-021-04813-7
              114. Alliance for Gout Awareness. goutalliance.org. Published November 14, 2022. Accessed August 10, 2023. https://goutalliance.org/
              115. 5 Ways Pharmacists Can Show Empathy. Pharmacy Times. https://www.pharmacytimes.com/view/5-ways-pharmacists-can-show-empathy
              116. Kleinstäuber M, Wolf L, Jones ASK, Dalbeth N, Petrie KJ. Internalized and Anticipated Stigmatization in Patients With Gout. ACR Open Rheumatol. 2020;2(1):11-17. doi:10.1002/acr2.11095
              117. UpToDate. www.uptodate.com. https://www.uptodate.com/contents/diuretic-induced-hyperuricemia-and-gout. Updated March 2023. Accessed April 16, 2023.
              118. Song WL, FitzGerald GA. Niacin, an old drug with a new twist. J Lipid Res. 2013;54(10):2586-2594. doi:10.1194/jlr.R040592
              119. Ben Salem C, Slim R, Fathallah N, Hmouda H. Drug-induced hyperuricaemia and gout. Rheumatology. 2016;56(5):kew293. doi:https://doi.org/10.1093/rheumatology/kew293

              Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

              Learning Objectives

               

              After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

              • Recognize key elements of a drug information request
              • Describe a typical process for researching drug information requests
              • Prioritize information in the final written response
              • Identify the best language to use based on the inquiring party’s needs

              After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to

              • Identify questions that are within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice
              • Recognize tools and resources to use when attempting to answer a drug information question
              • Complete the steps to completing a drug information request that is within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice

                Cartoon person standing in front of gigantic question mark

                 

                Release Date: September 15, 2023

                Expiration Date: September 15, 2026

                Course Fee

                Pharmacists: $7

                Pharmacy Technicians: $4

                There is no funding for this CE.

                ACPE UANs

                Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-035-H01-P

                Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-035-H01-T

                Session Codes

                Pharmacist:  23YC35-PXK63

                Pharmacy Technician:  23YC35-KPX44

                Accreditation Hours

                2.0 hours of CE

                Accreditation Statements

                The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-035-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                 

                Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                Faculty

                Sumoda Achar
                PharmD and MBA Candidate 2024
                UConn School of Pharmacy
                Storrs, CT

                Shelly Evia
                PharmD Candidate 2024
                UConn School of Pharmacy
                Storrs, CT

                Stefanie Nigro, PharmD, BCACP, CDCES
                Associate Clinical Professor
                UConn School of Pharmacy
                Storrs, CT

                Jeannette Y. Wick, RPh, MBA
                Director Office of Pharmacy Professional Development
                UConn School of Pharmacy
                Storrs, CT

                Faculty Disclosure

                In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                Samoda Achar, Shelly Evia, Jeannette Wick, and Stefanie Nigro do not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

                 

                ABSTRACT

                Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians often field questions from patients or other healthcare providers. Pharmacists may be more accustomed to answering questions than pharmacy technicians are, but that doesn't mean that pharmacy technicians can't answer appropriate questions. Pharmacy staff members should know their scope of practice and be willing and able to answer questions that fall within the scope of practice. Using an organized approach can help pharmacy staff members answer questions efficiently and effectively. Documentation is also an important aspect of drug information questions, as is saving the information in case it is needed later.

                CONTENT

                Content

                INTRODUCTION

                A drug information (DI) request is a medication-related question posed by any interested party, but usually a healthcare professional or a patient. As the healthcare team’s drug expert, one of a pharmacist’s main duties is answering these queries effectively and providing an answer that is appropriate for the inquirer’s level of expertise. Pharmacy technicians and pharmacy interns also answer some drug information questions (see TECH TALK SIDEBAR). This continuing education activity outlines various drug information questions that pharmacy staff field most often and describes a methodical approach to ensure pharmacy staff answer requests effectively and accurately.1

                 

                 

                TECH TALK SIDEBAR: Questions within the Pharmacy Technician’s Scope of Practice?2,3

                Pharmacy technicians and interns can answer general questions that are within the bounds of their education and training. That vague statement requires some interpretation. If the answer is common knowledge (not specialized pharmaceutical knowledge), technicians can answer. In addition to working with supervising pharmacists to interpret the statement, pharmacy technicians and interns need to know state law governing their scope of practice.

                 

                Pharmacy technicians and interns are often the first point of contact for customers who want over-the-counter (OTC) medications. Technicians can answer general questions about ingredients if the information is on the label. Some examples include

                • Does this product contain acetaminophen? What brands of acetaminophen do you stock?
                • Where are the medicines for pain?
                • Is there a less expensive generic or store brand for this product?
                • Do you have any [insert name of prescription medication] in stock?
                • Do I need to refrigerate this liquid antibiotic?
                • What does “analgesic” mean?
                • What does “sustained release” mean?
                • Is this prescription for a controlled substance?
                • Why can’t I refill this prescription today?

                 

                Pharmacy technicians and interns can also convey information from the pharmacist but should be careful. A PRO TIP is that if technicians or interns don’t understand what the pharmacist says, they should ask the pharmacist to make the information clearer. And if the answer is long or complicated, they should write it down and recite it back to the pharmacist before transmitting it to the person with the question.

                 

                Helping customers find specific medications or classes of medications is within the technician’s scope of practice. When patients have questions about their medications, doses, and how best to administer them, technicians may hesitate to answer. If the information is clearly printed on the prescription label, on the auxiliary labels, or contained in an FDA-approved Medication Guide, the technician or intern can answer.

                 

                Technicians and interns need to work with the supervising pharmacist to determine if they can answer other questions. When in doubt, technicians should consult with or refer the question to the pharmacist. Technicians and interns must refer questions about potential adverse effects, administration problems, possible alternative medications, and clinical issues to the pharmacist. Before referring the patient, they can collect some baseline information. They cannot counsel or give advice, even if the medication is OTC.

                 

                 

                Depending on the practice setting, the nature and complexity of DI requests can vary. Being able to answer DI requests is every pharmacy employee’s responsibility (although the type of information varies and at a certain level, the response is the pharmacist’s primary responsibility). Having an organized approach to answering DI questions is highly relevant when working within the community and hospital settings.4

                 

                Pharmacy employees who work primarily within a community setting can expect to receive DI requests from patients and from practitioners. These requests can range from asking about drug storage requirements (which a technician can usually answer) to consequences of taking an OTC medication in combination with prescription drugs, to requests regarding the safety of a medication for an uncommon or off-label indication. Pharmacists who work in hospital settings can expect to receive most DI requests from colleagues within the care team. For instance, a DI request could come from a prescriber asking about medication absorption and distribution in a patient with comorbid conditions, or from a nurse asking if a medication can be crushed. Pharmacists who work in industry settings, however, may receive medication information requests that vary greatly from those received in clinical settings.4

                 

                All DI requests require referencing reliable materials and sometimes, various internal policy or research documents. While DI requests are diverse, they all require similar analysis of sources and communication to provide a quality answer. Because pharmacy employees at different levels of responsibility can answer DI questions, this continuing education activity will call the person asking the question the requestor and the person finding the answer the respondent.

                 

                SCREENING THE REQUEST

                One of the most confounding situations in the pharmacy occurs when someone asks a question, the respondent spends times finding an answer, and then the requestor says, “Oh, that’s not what I needed to know!” Sometimes, requestors don’t really know how to ask questions effectively. This is a problem that all customer service fields encounter, and answering DI requests is both a clinical function and a customer service. It’s why when you call many customer service lines, the customer service representative will say, “OK, what I hear you asking is….” and then rephrase the question.5

                 

                To answer DI requests effectively, the respondent must thoroughly understand the question.5 Very specific questions tend to be easily answerable, while others are more general or vague. In both instances, respondents need to ensure they understand the question. They can rephrase the question in their own words and say, “Let me make sure I understand. Do you mean….”, or they can use open ended questions (questions that cannot be answered with a yes or a no) to ask the requestor to provide more information. This avoids answering a question that wasn’t asked or intended or was poorly formulated.

                 

                Often, requestors don’t know how to ask a question that will provide the information they need. The hallmark of this type of question is that the requestor may use jargon inappropriately or words that don’t seem to make sense. Respondents can say, “Excuse me, I’m not sure I understood entirely. Can you rephrase the question?” or “Pardon me, but I didn’t quite understand the question. Can you tell me a little more about what you want to know and why?” That final word—WHY—provides the impetus for the requestor to provide necessary information.

                 

                Once the question has coalesced and both parties agree on its intent, the respondent can solicit important details from the requester and, if applicable, the patient, before delving into a search. At this point, the respondent needs to spend time actively listening to the requestor’s explanations.

                 

                This can be difficult if the requestor is long-winded, difficult to understand, or cognitively impaired, so it requires patience. Here’s a PRO TIP for listening: it’s called the traffic-light-rule.6 During the first 30 seconds (which seems like a short period of time, but is actually relatively long), the requestor’s “talking light” is green. Pharmacy staff should let them talk. In the next 30 seconds, the requestor’s light is yellow: pharmacy staff probably have enough information and should make note of comments or questions. After one minute, the requestor’s talking light is red: pharmacy staff should be comfortable stopping the requestor politely or asking questions.6

                 

                Before continuing, review the following DI requests. How would you proceed? Later  in this activity, we’ll provide a description of the ideal process.

                 

                Pharmacist DI request #1: TN, 35-year-old obese female (BMI = 32.4 kg/m2) with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes will start on an atypical antipsychotic today to manage schizophrenia. TN’s psychiatric nurse practitioner (NP) calls with questions about drug selection. The NP mentions that TN’s drug formulary lists aripiprazole, haloperidol, olanzapine, and quetiapine as tier 1 preferred options. The NP wants your opinion as to which atypical antipsychotic may be most appropriate to prescribe for TN. What do you suggest?

                 

                Pharmacist DI Request #2: You work at a tertiary care internal medicine center. MS, an 80-year-old female, was recently admitted to the medicine floor. She had fallen when she was trying to use the restroom at her nursing home and presented to the emergency department with a wrist fracture. She suffers from insomnia and other comorbidities. Her medication list includes lisinopril 20 mg daily, metformin 500 mg twice daily, rosuvastatin 20 mg daily, and lorazepam 0.5 mg PRN anxiety and sleep. The nursing home staff states that MS received more doses of lorazepam in recent weeks. The medical resident believes that the increased lorazepam use could have contributed to the fall and wants to know if trazodone would be a safer replacement for MS’s insomnia. How do you respond?

                 

                Technician DI Request #1: I left this medication in my bathroom for four days, and then I noticed it says, “Keep in the refrigerator.” My house is cold, and the bottle didn’t feel warm. Is this still good, and if it isn’t, what should I do?

                 

                Technician DI Request #2: My child is having trouble swallowing her medication and refuses to take it. Are there any easier ways I could give it to her?

                 

                Identify Critical Information

                Although it may seem counterintuitive, beginning with the end in mind is critical and the person gathering information must determine the requestor’s preferred response format. This means asking how the requester wants to receive the response. The respondent will need to adjust the answer according to the requestor’s preferences. Some requestors will want to wait for an answer. If the information is to be communicated through email or an electronic medical record, respondents may use their organization’s required format (a SOAP note or similar formats; see Table 1), but formats used in medical records may not be the most efficient approach in person or over phone. In person or on the phone, respondents need to use a more conversational tone. Furthermore, the respondent will need to determine the requestor’s level of medical competency and tailor the response accordingly. If the requestor is a patient, it is more appropriate to use simple language than if a provider asked the same or  similar question. Respondents will have to evaluate these factors critically to provide a sound and comprehensive answer.7

                Table 1. Formats for Communicating Critical Information8,9

                Communication Format Parts of the format Uses
                SOAP S: Subjective information

                This section includes descriptive information about a patient’s symptoms, feelings and experiences.

                 

                O: Objective information

                This section includes pertinent lab values, imaging, or diagnostic tests.

                 

                A: Assessment

                In this section the subjective and objective information are taken into consideration to make an assessment regarding the patient's disease states.

                 

                P: Plan/ Follow Up

                This section outlines a detailed plan regarding the patient's treatment and the follow-up and monitoring required.

                This format is a widely-used written format in healthcare. It helps organize pertinent patient information and efficiently present an answer. This format is especially useful when the respondent must consider multiple pieces of information.
                ISBAR I: Introduction

                Introduction of the pharmacist and the respondent, and the pharmacist’s role and location.

                 

                S: Situation

                What are the current events regarding the patient?

                 

                B: Background

                What has happened in the past with the patient?

                 

                A: Assessment

                Identify the problem at hand and make assessments regarding the patient's disease state.

                 

                R: Recommendation

                Outline the next steps and your plan.

                This format is beneficial for verbal communication. It helps the presenter explain the problem at hand and the solution in a time efficient way.
                TITRS T: Title

                Introduction of who you are and your purpose in helping the patient.

                 

                I: Introduction

                Present the patient and the problems that the patient needs help with.

                 

                T: Text

                State subjective and objective information that is necessary to support any recommendations.

                 

                R: Recommendation

                Outline the treatment plan in a clear, complete, and concise manner.

                 

                S: Signature

                Include name, title, and phone number.

                This format is beneficial when a brief and concise formal consult is needed to communicate a progress note towards a medical team.

                 

                Assess the Urgency of the Response

                While it is critical to provide an appropriate response for the question, doing so in a timely manner is just as critical. Asking the requestor is the simplest way to determine the expected response time. However, many times the requestor isn’t present or cannot be reached, and it is up to the respondent to determine which questions require immediate responses and which may not. Clinically critical topics include

                • Medication safety: does the DI request ask if a certain therapy could cause or have caused harm to the patient?
                • Time sensitivity of the treatment: how important is timeliness to the treatment and disease progression?
                • How much of a concern is the problem to the requestor: does it seem that the requestor needs an immediate response?

                 

                Sometimes, respondents don’t know the answer to the question immediately.10,11 Pharmacy staff will never be able to answer every question, but they can handle every question gracefully and provide a complete, accurate answer within a reasonable time. When they don’t know the whole answer, they should answer what they can immediately and tell the respondent that they need to do a little more research to answer the remainder. A PRO TIP is to tell the requestor when to expect an answer (and to be sure to follow through).10-12

                 

                Obtain Sufficient Background Information

                In simple words, this step is about getting to know the patient or problem or establishing a strong understanding of the patient’s relevant characteristics by obtaining background information. Since some patients have low health literacy, obtaining this information can be a challenge. However, narrowing the search to only include relevant information and filtering unnecessary information can make the process more efficient. This could be achieved by7

                • Asking targeted questions to patients. For example, instead of asking patients if they take their medication regularly (a closed-ended question that can be answered with yes or no), asking when they last took their medications provides a more precise answer.
                • Identifying avenues that can provide accurate information. For example, instead of asking patients what other medications they take, checking the local profile and/or contacting their community or specialty pharmacist to receive a medication list can be more accurate.
                • Reviewing any available records like medical charts or dispensing records.

                 

                Identify Extraneous Information

                Obtaining complete information is important but ensuring that the information is pertinent to the question being asked is just as important.

                 

                Many times, DI requests are in-depth and require researching two or more sources before arriving at an answer. While conducting this search, ensure that the sources are relevant to the problem at hand. For example, if a study suggests that a medication is contraindicated in a patient, determine if the patient’s characteristics are similar to the study’s population. Furthermore, extraneous information could come from data gathering as well. For example, a patient may have multiple diseases, but they may not all impact the problem at hand. Making this distinction is important to provide a thorough and accurate answer.7

                 

                Answers to Pause and Ponder

                Pharmacist DI request #1: Haloperidol is not an atypical antipsychotic; therefore, it would be eliminated immediately and the remaining atypical antipsychotics would be reviewed as outlined below:

                Screen Request Pertinent patient information: past medical conditions (uncontrolled diabetes, schizophrenia). Medications on tier 1 of patient's formulary: quetiapine, olanzapine, haloperidol, aripiprazole.
                Reformulate Request This is a therapeutics drug information request because the provider is looking for the best medication to treat the patient's schizophrenia without adding any contraindications to the patient's current medication list or concomitant medical conditions.
                Formulate Response The provider made the request in writing, so a written response is most appropriate. The SBAR format would succinctly and effectively convey the message. First, we conducted a Google search and a tertiary source search (PubMed) including the pertinent patient information and request. Our search read "effects of antipsychotics on obesity and diabetes." Through this, we determined that some antipsychotics lead to changes in metabolic activity. Because the patient has diabetes that is exacerbated by weight gain, the best choice is an antipsychotic that does not have a significant effect on the metabolism. After conducting a more thorough primary source search on the metabolic effects of antipsychotics, we found that the best drug would be aripiprazole. Additionally, monitoring the BMI and efficacy would be appropriate.
                Assess Understanding Provide the response in a professional and timely manner. Document the request to display accountability and in case there is a similar question in the future. Follow up with the requestor to access the outcomes and ensure that there are no lingering questions or concerns.

                 

                Pharmacist DI request #2:  Off-label use of low-dose (25 to 100 mg) trazodone, a decades-old antidepressant with drowsiness as a side effect, is common.13 In fact, off-label usage for insomnia has surpassed its use for depression.14 The American Academy of Sleep Medicine does not recommend trazodone because of limited supporting data. A 2018 Cochrane review found equivocal evidence supporting its short-term use for insomnia, but little data on long‐term safety and efficacy exists.15 The Beers Criteria doesn’t highlight trazodone as a potentially inappropriate medication in older adults, not because of evidence demonstrating safety, but because of lack of studies demonstrating harm. However, a retrospective cohort study found low-dose trazodone was no safer with respect to fall-related injury risk than benzodiazepines among 15,582 nursing home residents aged 66 years and older. Future studies need to confirm trazodone’s safety with respect to other risks such as dependence, withdrawal, and cognitive impairment.16

                 

                Technician DI request #1:

                It would depend on the medication. Some medications, like amoxicillin, are refrigerated to preserve the taste while most others, such as insulin, are refrigerated to preserve the compound. The technician should ask what medication the patient is referring to and then look up the specific storage requirements for that medication. Some places where this information is available include Drugs.com (https://www.drugs.com/medical-answers/drugs-that-require-cold-storage-166784/) and (https://www.iehp.org/en/members/helpful-information-and-resources?target=emergency-safety). If the medication is not listed in these resources or the medication’s stability has possibly been compromised (such as exposure to extreme heat), the technician should consult the pharmacist.

                 

                Technician DI request #2:

                It would vary depending on the medication. Some medications have specific coating that needs to stay intact to ensure proper drug delivery, and such medications should not be crushed. Other medications do not have such restrictions and can be crushed, split in half, sprinkled in foods like applesauce, or have a liquid formulation that can be considered as an alternative with a doctor’s approval. The technicians should ask, “What medication is your child taking so that I can look it up?” Information regarding which medications can be crushed can be found in the following website https://pharmacist.therapeuticresearch.com/Content/Segments/PRL/2014/Aug/Meds-That-Should-Not-Be-Crushed-7309. If the medication or the specific dosage form is not available on the list, the technician should ask the pharmacist to review the medication.

                 

                Recognize when to ask for additional support or information. While drug information requests can be challenging, involving other healthcare professionals to hear about their experiences with similar clinical situations can offer a new perspective. Some benefits of consulting with experts include formulating a patient-specific answer to the question whereas a study may be irrelevant. When the request requires analysis beyond the scope of a drug information search, it is appropriate to reach out to a professional. While this may take additional time, arriving at the correct answer is more important than to harm the patient unknowingly. And a PRO TIP is that if reaching out will mean you cannot answer the question in the time frame promised, contact the requestor and say you need more time and why.

                 

                REFORMULATING THE REQUEST 

                To ensure the core request is clear, the respondent will need to ask many questions, especially if requesters don’t know what question they need to ask. Before starting to research the answer, respondents need to gather information needed from the requestor. In addition, it’s prudent to identify resources the requestor has already consulted (and their reliability in case information needs to be corrected).

                 

                Categorize the Request

                Requests can be based on complex patient specific cases, for educational purposes, or geared towards a decision-making process in medication therapy for a specific patient demographic. To fully optimize patient care and provide evidence-based recommendations, it is helpful to ask specific questions and consider all factors pertinent to the specific DI request. Categorizing the request can help stay on track, address all concerns, and point the respondent to the appropriate resources. Table 2 lists common categories and the questions that can clarify the request.

                 

                Table 2. Common DI Categories and Related Questions1

                DI Category Related Questions
                Allergy/Cross-reactivity

                 

                Does the patient have any documented allergies?

                What caused or is suspected to have caused the allergic reaction?

                When did the patient take the medication, and when did the reaction occur?

                What type of allergic reaction occurred?

                Is this a class or drug specific effect?

                Alternative, or Complementary Medicine

                 

                Where did the patient obtain the medication?

                Why is the requestor taking or interested in taking the medication?

                What other medications or treatments are available?

                ADR/Safety

                 

                What are the possible side effects?

                What monitoring parameters need to be considered?

                Compatibility (Y-site, syringe, IV)

                 

                What solution will medication be used in?

                If applicable, how will the medications be administered?

                Dosage/Route/Administration

                 

                What is the route of administration?

                What is the recommended therapeutic dose for pediatrics, adults, and geriatrics?

                How should the medication be taken (with/without food, with water, etc)

                Drug Identification

                 

                What was the source of the medication (e.g., domestic or foreign)?

                What is the generic and brand name?

                Where did the medication come from?

                Ingredients/Stability

                 

                What physical conditions exist? (Temperature, light protectant, storage duration, diluents)

                Are there IV admixture compatibility/non-admixture stability data available?

                Interactions

                 

                What are the possible interactions between:

                ●      Drug-drug

                ●      Drug-food

                ●      Drug-lab

                ●      Drug allergy

                Kinetics

                 

                What is the onset/half-life/duration?

                What are the serum levels?

                Is dialysis a consideration?

                What is the medication’s bioavailability?

                Pharmacoeconomics

                 

                Are there other competitors on the market?

                Are there cheaper alternatives with the same therapeutic effects?

                What is the AWP pricing?

                Pharmaceutics

                 

                What is the drug route of administration and drug dosage?

                What patient factors will affect the drug?

                Age, weight, gender, organ function, current medications

                Pharmacology What factors will affect drug metabolism and bioavailability?
                Pregnancy/Lactation What health conditions does the mother have?

                What medications is the mother currently taking?

                What is the current trimester?

                How long has the mother been taking the medication or expected to take this medication?

                Will the drug be present in breast milk?

                How will the drug affect the infant?

                What is the infant's age?

                What health conditions do the mother and infant have?

                Was the infant a full term or premature delivery?

                Vaccinations

                 

                Is the vaccination appropriate for the patient?

                What are some side effects to monitor?

                When should the patient get the vaccination?

                Therapeutics

                 

                What is the desired effect?

                Is the goal cure or prophylaxis?

                What previous medications and doses has the patient used?

                Is this medication being used for an FDA approved or off-label use?

                Toxicity

                 

                What are possible sequelae?

                What management strategies are available?

                Abbreviations: ADR = adverse drug reaction; AWP = Average Wholesale Price; FDA = Food Drug Administration; IV = Intravenous

                 

                Finding Reliable Sources

                Being able to locate sources efficiently and correctly for a DI request is very important. Three main types of sources are available: primary, secondary, and tertiary.

                • A primary source is any original research found in journals. Examples of primary sources are trial results found in the New England Journal of Medicine (NEJM) or similar journals in which researchers use a trial design to answer a specific question. (Note that NEJM and similar journals also publish secondary source materials, too.) This is the strongest Limitations of using this evidence include lack of access to journals that require paid subscriptions and lack of good search skills to find relevant papers.
                • Secondary sources analyze, interpret, present, or restate information from primary sources. Textbooks, books and review articles, commentaries, guidelines, and Medline are examples of secondary sources.
                • Tertiary sources compile information from other sources and organize it. Lexicomp , Micromedex, and DynaMed are common tertiary sources for DI requests as they use information from Food and Drug Administration-approved complete prescribing information (package inserts) and clinical studies. One limitation to be aware of is these sources are not updated rapidly therefore the information could be old and outdated.

                 

                Determine the Best Source

                When evaluating DI requests, in most cases the best course of action is to start with tertiary sources, such as textbooks or DI databases, when possible.1 These platforms provide a starting point and often suggest a basic idea for the answer. For many DI requests such as dosage, half-life, or adverse effects, the tertiary resource may provide a sound answer. Requests asking to compare two medications’ efficacy or assess the appropriateness of an uncommon or off-label medication use may require further research. Databases that identify off-label use include Micromedex.  In such cases, a primary source is the best resource. References sections of databases like DynaMed and Micromedex can be a great start for finding appropriate primary sources. Using search engines such as MEDLINE, PubMed or Google Scholar (scholargoogle.com) can provide access to relevant primary literature as well.1 Reviewing two to three sources is good practice for most drug information requests. Respondents must determine the relevance of the studies by evaluating if the trial size was large enough to be statistically reliable, if its findings were clinically significant, and if the patient population is similar to the patient.

                 

                Use General Search Engines Appropriately

                Using general search engines like Google, and Microsoft Edge can be an acceptable starting point for a search. A metasearch engine is usually better. A metasearch engine is a platform that aggregates the results from multiple search engines and organizes them based on their relevance. Examples of metasearch engines include Dogpile, ixquick, and Metacrawler which aggregate information from sources like Google and Yahoo as well as videos posted on various platforms.

                Researchers must consider the following factors when determining a source’s credibility17:

                • Is the information’s original source listed and reliable?
                • Does the funding for the site come from a sound source such as a university (.edu), an established patient advocacy organization or a professional society (.org), or a government-funded organization (.gov)?
                • How is the information presented and how is it supported?
                • Who wrote the article on the webpage? Is the author a credible healthcare provider or a journalist writing about a medical topic?
                • Is the information updated and verifiable with other sources?

                 

                Table 3 matches types of information and reliable sources to find information.

                 

                Table 3. Finding Reliable Sources for Drug Information Requests

                Type of Request Source
                Alternative or Complementary medicine Natural Medicine Comprehensive Database
                ADR/Safety Lexicomp*, UpToDate*, Micromedex*, Package Inserts
                Compatibility FDA-approved prescribing information, Trissel’s Stability of Compounded Formulations*
                Dosage/Route/Administration Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*, Micromedex*, etc.
                Drug Identification Lexicomp* (Drug I.D) Drugs.com, WebMD Pill identifier, RxResouce.org (pill identification tool)
                Ingredients/Stability Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
                Interactions

                 

                CYP Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
                HIV HIV Drug Interactions

                Clinicalinfo Drug Database

                Kinetics Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
                Pharmacoeconomics Studies published in pharmacoeconomics journals
                Pharmaceutics PubMed* and primary sources
                Pharmacology Lexicomp*, Micromedex* and could require further research with primary sources
                Pregnancy/Lactation LactMed
                Regulatory The Pharmacy Practice Act, Pharmacist's Manual
                Therapeutics Dynamed*, UpToDate*, DiPiro’s textbook
                Toxicity MSDS, PubChem, Micromedex*
                Vaccinations CDC vaccine and immunization schedule, Lexicomp
                Veterinary Information Plumb’s Veterinary Drug Handbook

                *=sources requiring a subscription or payment

                Abbreviations: ADR = Adverse Drug Reactions; CDC = Center for Disease Control and Prevention; CYP = Cytochrome P450; FDA = Food and Drug Administration; MSDS = Material Safety Data Sheet;  HIV = Human immunodeficiency virus

                 

                Another relevant option that many healthcare professionals are considering for answering drug information requests is artificial intelligence (AI) platforms such as ChatGPT. While these seem to be able to provide responses that are based on data and research, the issue that users run into is the AI is not able to approach/appraise situations critically. While AI can provide information that may be or seem accurate, it is cannot assess the data that it uses to ensure that it is relevant to the situation or specific patient. Additionally, AI doesn’t cite its sources, meaning that it can be difficult to assess the appropriateness of the source. Last, it is important to realize that AI has sometimes provided wrong answers that could lead to patient harm and therefore need to be checked against reliable sources.

                 

                Figure 2 summarizes a typical drug information process.

                Figure 2. The Drug Information Process


                FORMULATE THE RESPONSE 

                Verbal responses tend to be easier for most people than written responses, but respondents should document every request. One simple rule should guide the response: Use principles of clear communication. Clear communication reduces risks of misinterpretation and increases the requestor’s understanding. It optimizes patient care. Clear, concise sentences that are short (fewer than 25 to 32 words) and straightforward create an ideal response.18 It is best to be comprehensive with adequate information and complete sentences that leave no confusion. Each statement should have a clear purpose with no extraneous information or unnecessary words. Respondents must paraphrase important information from accumulated data taken from reliable sources, while avoiding copying and pasting from other outside sources. The response must focus on the audience (the requestor) and the requestor’s background, remembering that different types of professionals have different education and focus.18

                 

                Organize and Evaluate Information 

                Organizing information makes research and presentation straightforward and simple for the audience to understand quickly. Templates are available to help keep information organized and formulated, but they have advantages and disadvantages.

                 

                • Pros: Templates provide consistency that makes it easier for requesters to follow. (Saving your responses to DI requests is a PRO TIP, discussed in the SIDEBAR) Templates also provide an idea about how the completed presentation will look and reduce the time associated with creating the response. Some organizations provide templates for their employees. Lacking an approved template, respondents can find customizable templates from their workplace or university. Example templates found in the appendices show how useful templates can be. Templates can act as checklists to remember what should be included in a drug information response.
                • Cons: Many templates limit the amount of allowable customization or text, and respondents must be knowledgeable about editing templates. Templates may also limit the approach to the topic and limit the information to standard or predictable fields; this is a problem when the question is unique or unusual. It is important to understand that templates are guides in answering requests and are not restrictions.

                 

                Templates that can be used while answering drug information questions have different strengths and limitations. The choice of template can be dependent on the pharmacist’s preference as well as the type of drug information request. We reviewed the templates in the addendum and assessed their utility. Take a minute to look at them. How do your assessments compare to ours?

                 

                Template 1 located in Appendix 1:

                Pros: Extensive prompts for what should be included in a drug information response. This format is very detailed which could be useful for less experienced users.

                Cons: Could be too detailed to be used for a wide range of requests. It lacks space, so users will have to use it against a document that they have already created.

                 

                Template 2 located in Appendix 2:

                Pros: This format displays the drug information request topic quickly, organizes patient information and the response, and includes references to use for evidence-based literature support. It is broad enough to be used for multiple types of requests. It could be especially helpful for pharmacists who receive a wide variety of requests as it allows them to focus and tailor responses appropriately.

                Cons: Insufficient prompts or guidance responders, making it more suitable for experienced pharmacy staff. This would too broad for beginners or pharmacy students because it does not outline various aspects of drug information responses.

                 

                SIDEBAR: Saving FAQs for Future Use: The FAQ File19,20

                Pharmacy staff often notice that they receive the same or similar questions repeatedly. Each time a requestor asks the question, the respondent must answer again. When employees in the pharmacy discuss questions they receive, they may find that although each of them has only answered a specific question once or twice, collectively they are answering the same question often. A frequently asked question (FAQ) file has numerous advantages. It can

                • Save time for everyone including the requestor
                • Standardize the answer so that it is consistent each time staff answer the specific question
                • Provide the answer in clear language
                • Create an answer that technicians and students can give to requestors without asking the pharmacist to intervene
                • Refer requestors to web sites or documents for additional information

                 

                To develop a reliable FAQ file, pharmacy staff should take several steps:

                • Identify the questions that are asked frequently.
                • Develop a simple format for all FAQs. Usually, the actual question appears at the top of the documents, with the answer below.
                • Start small and ask one employee to draft the FAQ.
                • Have two or three people review the FAQ, including a pharmacist and at least one or two support personnel. Encourage reviewers to provide constructive criticism. If the FAQ usually comes from a colleague or patient, involve colleagues and patients in the review.
                • A good process for reviewing FAQs is to ask a reviewer to read to a certain point and then stop. The project coordinator should ask, “Can you tell me in your own words what you just read?” If the reviewer explains and the information is incorrect, the project coordinator should not correct the reviewer; rather, the project coordinator should make a note that the section needs work and why.
                • The project reviewer should ask additional, open-ended questions including
                  • What’s your general reaction to this draft FAQ?
                  • What did you like about this draft FAQ?
                  • What did you dislike about this draft FAQ?
                  • Is anything in this draft FAQ confusing?
                  • What would you do if you got this document?
                  • What do you think the writer was trying to do with this document?
                  • And here’s a PRO TIP: Often, people will not answer directly because they do not want to appear uneducated or picky. A way to circumvent this issue is to ask, “Thinking of other people you know who might get this document…”
                    • What about the document might work well for them?
                    • What about the document might cause them problems?
                  • Once the FAQ completes the process and is ready for “prime time,” save it in a format that cannot be edited (i.e. a PDF that is locked for editing) and upload it to a shared file or drive where all employees can access the document and print or clip it to an email when needed.

                 

                Finally, drugs and drug information change over time. Organizations that use FAQ files must schedule routine review (at least annually and more often if necessary) to ensure that the content in FAQ files remains current and correct.

                 

                Proofing and Editing Drafts 

                Proofing and editing written drafts entails first fact-checking the narrative and the sources used, and then reviewing the text to ensure it is clear and professional. The respondent must re-assess and re-evaluate each source and the information gathered. Asking other healthcare professionals who have expertise to contribute to or proofread the draft is smart. Collaborating with colleagues can be beneficial, especially in healthcare. The recent emphasis on interdisciplinary approaches reminds us that healthcare professionals from multiple backgrounds need to collaborate and exchange information more often than not. Colleagues can also help confirm or modify any information, while also giving feedback to learn how to better future drug information requests.

                Once the data is confirmed as accurate, the last step is to double check for spelling and grammar errors and ensure the response is clear and concise. A skilled pharmacy technician is often an exceptional collaborator in this step.

                 

                Document, Document, Document

                Documentation is helpful when pharmacy employees have to refer back to that specific topic on a similar drug information question or when colleagues have a similar request in the future. Documenting the response will aid as a reference point and could help clinicians in the future make decisions regarding patient care.21 Documentation will also display accountability and the respondent’s value to the organization and the interdisciplinary team. Many healthcare organizations have policies and procedures for documenting DI requests, and all staff should follow them if they exist.

                 

                ASSESS REQUESTOR’S UNDERSTANDING AND SATISFACTION 

                Following up after responding to a DI request is a professional action. The respondent should follow up with the requestor in a timely manner and assess the outcomes. If the requestor is not completely satisfied, the respondent can adjust the answer and recommendations appropriately.7 Follow-up will also reveal if the requestor has implemented the recommendation (and if it worked), provide feedback for potential modifications in future DI requests, and show professionalism and dedication to patient care. A PRO TIP is to document the follow-up and outcomes.

                 

                CONCLUSION

                Pharmacy teams have serious responsibilities related to DI requests, which can cover a broad spectrum of topics and specialties. Pharmacists, pharmacy technicians, and pharmacy students should use a methodical approach, followed by documentation. As the ever-changing landscape of healthcare, medicine, and technology continues to advance, the providing drug information will remain an integral part of the pharmacist’s responsibilities.

                 

                Table 4 provides additional resources.

                 

                Table 4. Additional Resources

                Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests

                 

                This resource helps characterize the various types of drug information requests

                https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/pharmacy-practice/resource-centers/preceptor-toolkit/sicp-busy-day-systematic-approach-answering-drug-info-requests.ashx?la=en&hash=7C8B36648FAB999DE761D3AE37BFE48A847B8551
                7 Tips on Improving Communication in Your Pharmacy

                 

                This resource provides guidance on how best to speak with patients

                https://www.pbahealth.com/elements/7-tips-on-improving-communication-in-your-pharmacy/
                Formulating an Effective Response: A Structured Approach

                 

                This resource provides strategies to answer formulated drug information requests.

                https://accesspharmacy.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=2275&sectionid=177197497 :
                ASHP Guidelines on the Pharmacist’s Role in Providing Drug Information

                 

                This resource provides suggestions on how to answer a formulated drug information request.

                https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/policy-guidelines/docs/guidelines/pharmacists-role-providing-drug-information.pdf
                How To Evaluate Health Information on the Internet: Questions and Answers

                 

                This resource provides approaches on how to find credible sources to answer drug information requests.

                https://ods.od.nih.gov/HealthInformation/How_To_Evaluate_Health_Information_on_the_Internet_Questions_and_Answers.aspx

                 

                 

                Templates:

                Requirements checklist for drug information Response1 - UBC Blogs. Accessed July 3, 2023. https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/Requirements-Checklist-for-Drug-Information-Response.pdf.

                Drug Information Request and Response Form.; 2017. Accessed July 3, 2023.

                https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/DIR-Example.pdf

                PHRM Handbook. Accessed July 3, 2023.

                https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/Drug-Information-Request-and-Response-Fillable-Form-.pdf

                Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                Pharmacy: Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

                Pharmacists Post-test

                After completing this education activity, pharmacists will be able to
                1) Recognize key elements of a drug information request
                2) Describe a typical process for researching drug information requests
                3) Prioritize information in the final written response
                4) Identify the best language to use based on the inquiring party’s needs

                1. Which of the following describes a good practice in answering complicated drug information requests?
                A. Reviewing at least two sources when looking for answers
                B. Using a couple of metasearch engines (e.g., Dogplie)
                C. Using tertiary sources (e.g., Micromedex, Lexicomp)

                2. A patient approaches the community pharmacy counter asking about experiencing GI upset when taking his daily medications. His medications include metformin, prednisone and lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate targeted question to obtain key information?
                A. Are you taking your medications at the correct times?
                B. How are you taking your medications?
                C. Are you taking your medications with food?

                3. Which of the following are elements of screening a response to correctly identify the key elements in a drug information request?
                A. Setting aside extraneous information to focus on pertinent information
                B. Relying solely on the patient’s recollection of medical information
                C. Asking closed-ended questions to extract targeted information

                4. Which of the following correctly identifies the process of answering a drug information request?
                A. Screen request for pertinent information, reformulate request, formulate response, assess understanding
                B. Assess understanding, reformulate request, screen request for pertinent information, formulate response
                C. Formulate response, reformulate request, access understanding, screen request for pertinent information

                5. A doctor asks how many hours prior to dialysis medication X should be administered to ensure an optimal response. Which category would the question fall under?
                A. ADR inquiry
                B. Therapeutics
                C. Kinetics

                6. If asked a question about the dosing for atorvastatin for a 40-year-old patient recently diagnosed with dyslipidemia, which of the following sources would be the most appropriate place to look for the answer?
                A. Natural medicine comprehensive database
                B. LactMed
                C. Lexicomp

                7. Which of the following correctly pairs the appropriate language and the type of requestor who is asking for information?
                A. Patient: “Possible adverse events include gastrointestinal upset and an increase frequency of bowel movements.”
                B. Provider: “The patient may have a tummy ache and have to go to the bathroom to poop a lot.”
                C. Nurse: “Patients who take this medication may develop some side effects including nausea and diarrhea”

                8. Which of the following statements identifies the purpose of the “assess understanding” step
                A. To gauge requestors’ satisfaction and determine if they implemented the recommendation or need further assistance
                B. To test the requesters health literacy and attempt to match the language you use to the language they understand
                C. To provide new information to requestors so that they have multiple options in case the first answer didn’t resolve their problem

                9. You have been tasked with creating a general drug information template. Which of the following are important aspects to include in your template
                A. Prior medical history; lab values; current medications
                B. Patient’s education; reference authors; siblings’ ages
                C. Patient’s age, financial status, current medications

                10. A patient approaches the pharmacy stating that she left a refrigerated medication on her front porch for more than 24 hours. She asks if it is still safe to use the medication. Which of the following is the most efficient way to answer?
                A. Google the name of the drug and look for a patient or nurse blog site
                B. Look at the package insert for the medication in the pharmacy database
                C. Find two the primary sources for the stability in various temperatures

                Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                Pharmacy: Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

                Pharmacy Technician Post-test

                After completing this education activity, pharmacy technician’s will be able to
                1) Identify questions that are within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice
                2) Recognize tools and resources to use when attempting to answer a drug information question
                3) Complete the steps to completing a drug information request that is within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice

                1. Which of the following questions would require counseling from a licensed pharmacist?
                A. Do I store this liquid antibiotic at room temperature or refrigerate it?
                B. Is there a less expensive generic or store brand for this product?
                C. What other medications should I avoid taking with this prescription?

                2. A patient approaches the community pharmacy counter asking about experiencing GI upset when taking his daily medications. His medications include metformin, prednisone, and lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate targeted question to obtain key information?
                A. Are you taking your medications at the correct times?
                B. How are you taking your medications?
                C. Are you taking your medications with food?

                3. When can pharmacy technicians answer questions and help customers find specific medications or classes of medications while staying within their scope of practice?
                A. If information is clearly printed on the prescription label, on auxiliary labels, or in an FDA-approved Medication Guide.
                B. If the supervising pharmacist is busy and will not have time to help a customer for at least 15 minutes to an hour.
                C. When the technician does not like the specific customer and would like to see the customer leave as soon as possible

                4. Which of the following correctly identifies the process of answering a drug information request?
                A. Screen request for pertinent information, reformulate request, formulate response, assess understanding
                B. Assess understanding, reformulate request, screen request for pertinent information response, formulate response
                C. Formulate response, reformulate request, access understanding, screen request for pertinent information

                5. A 58-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy counter and tells you she received her Shingrix vaccine two weeks ago and does not remember when she needs to come back for her next Shingrix dose. Where would a pharmacy technician be able to find information about vaccine scheduling to answer the patient’s question?
                A. Trissel’s Stability Compendium
                B. LactMed and lexicomp
                C. CDC Vaccine and Immunization Schedule

                6. According to the traffic-light-rule, what should the pharmacy staff member do after one minute of listening?
                A. Pharmacy staff should let patients continue to talk because it’s unlikely they have disclosed enough information.
                B. Pharmacy staff probably has enough information and should make note of comments or questions.
                C. Pharmacy staff should be comfortable stopping the requestor politely or asking additional questions.

                7. A mother is picking up her son’s antibiotic prescription and asks if there is a specific way that her son should take the medication. Where would you find this information about the route of administration for antibiotics?
                a) PubMed
                b) Pharmacists Manual
                c) Lexicomp

                8. Which of the following statements identifies the purpose of the “assess understanding” step
                A. To gauge requestors’ satisfaction and determine if they implemented the recommendation or need further assistance
                B. To test the requesters health literacy and attempt to match the language you use to the language they understand
                C. To provide new information to requestors so that they have multiple options in case the first answer didn’t resolve their problem

                9. You have been tasked with creating a general drug information template. Which of the following are important aspects to include in your template
                A. Prior medical history; lab values; current medications
                B. Patient’s education; reference authors; siblings’ ages
                C. Patient’s age, financial status, current medications

                10. A patient approaches the pharmacy stating that she left a refrigerated medication on her front porch for more than 24 hours. She asks if it is still safe to use the medication. Which of the following is most efficient way to answer?
                A. Google the name of the drug and look for a patient or nurse blog site
                B. Look at the package insert for the medication in the pharmacy database
                C. Find two the primary sources for the stability in various temperatures

                References

                Full List of References

                References

                   
                  1. Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests Step 1: Obtain Background Information. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/pharmacy-practice/resource-centers/preceptor-toolkit/sicp-busy-day-systematic-approach-answering-drug-info-requests.ashx?la=en&hash=7C8B36648FAB999DE761D3AE37BFE48A847B8551
                  2. Understanding Your Scope of Practice as a Pharmacy Technician. Career Advice. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.careerstep.com/blog/news/understanding-your-scope-of-practice-as-a-pharmacy-technician/
                  3. Foster P. What You Can and Can’t Say to Customers as a Pharmacy Technician. October 28, 2016. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.pennfoster.edu/blog/2016/october/what-you-can-and-can-not-you-say-to-customers-as-a-pharmacy-technician
                  4. ASHP Guidelines on the Pharmacist’s Role in Providing Drug Information Background and Rationale. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/policy-guidelines/docs/guidelines/pharmacists-role-providing-drug-information.pdf
                  5. Martin SW. Strategies for Answering Your Customers’ Toughest Questions. Harvard Business Review. June 28, 2012. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://hbr.org/2012/06/handling-customers-toughest-qu
                  6. Nemko M. How to handle difficult clients. Psychology Today. February 25, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/how-do-life/202102/how-handle-difficult-clients
                  7. Malone PM, Witt BA, Malone MJ, Peterson DM. Formulating an Effective Response: A Structured Approach | Drug Information: A Guide for Pharmacists, 6e | AccessPharmacy | McGraw Hill Medical. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://accesspharmacy.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=2275§ionid=177197497
                  8. Podder V, Lew V, Ghassemzadeh S. SOAP Notes. Published 2022. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482263
                  9. Burgess A, van Diggele C, Roberts C, Mellis C. Teaching clinical handover with ISBAR. BMC Medical Education. 2020;20(2):1-8. doi:https://doi.org/10.1186/s12909-020-02285-0
                  https://bmcmededuc.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12909-020-02285-0
                  10. Compassionate Geek. IT Customer Service Skills: What To Do When You Don’t Know The Answer To A Customer Question. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://compassionategeek.com/customer-service-skills-when-you-dont-know-the-answer/
                  11. Expert Panel Forbes Councils Member. Leaders: Nine Good Ways To Handle A Business Question You Don't Know The Answer To. June 7, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.forbes.com/sites/theyec/2021/06/07/leaders-nine-good-ways-to-handle-a-business-question-you-dont-know-the-answer-to/?sh=39d2b40823ba
                  12. Csizmadia A. Oops, I don’t know: How to respond to a customer’s question when you don’t know the answer. September 25, 2018. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.liveagent.com/blog/oops-i-don’t-know-how-to-respond-to-a-customers-question-when-you-don’t-know-the-answer/
                  13. Gill LL. Consumer Reports. Should You Take Trazodone for Insomnia? Accessed January 26, 2022. https://www.consumerreports.org/insomnia/trazodone-for-insomnia-should-you-take-a9455377183/
                  14. Jaffer KY, Chang T, Vanle B et al. Trazodone for insomnia: a systematic review. Innov Clin Neurosci 2017;14:24-34.
                  15. Everitt H, Baldwin DS, Stuart B et al. Antidepressants for insomnia in adults. Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews 2018;5:CD010753.
                  16. Bronskill SE, Campitelli MA, Iaboni A et al. Low-dose trazodone, benzodiazepines, and fall-related injuries in nursing homes: a matched-cohort study. J Am Geriatr Soc 2018;66:1963-71.
                  17. How To Evaluate Health Information on the Internet: Questions and Answers. ods.od.nih.gov. National Institutes of Health. Published June 24, 2011. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://ods.od.nih.gov/HealthInformation/How_To_Evaluate_Health_Information_on_the_Internet_Questions_and_Answers.aspx
                  19. U.S. Department of Health & Human Services. National Institutes of Health Naional Cancer Institute. Making Health Communications Programs Work. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.cancer.gov/publications/health-communication/pink-book.pdf
                  18. Clear Writing Assessment. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Accessed match 25, 2023. https://www.cdc.gov/nceh/clearwriting/docs/Clear_Writing_Assessment-508.pdf
                  20. JIMDO. How to Write an FAQ Page–with Example. October 21, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.jimdo.com/blog/how-to-write-an-faq-page-with-examples/
                  21. 7 Steps to Respond to Drug Information Requests. Pharmacy Times. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.pharmacytimes.com/view/7-steps-to-respond-to-drug-information-requests

                  Set Your Ascites on Improving Patient Care: The Pharmacy Team’s Role in Hepatorenal Syndrome Management

                  Learning Objectives

                   

                  After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists and technicians will be able to

                  1. Describe the prevalence, pathophysiology, and prognosis of hepatorenal syndrome (HRS)
                  2. Explain updated guidelines for diagnosis and treatment of HRS
                  3. Discuss current and emerging therapies for HRS
                  4. Identify the role of pharmacists and pharmacy technicians in HRS treatment

                    Cartoon image depicting a person with ascites.

                     

                    Release Date: August 15, 2023

                    Expiration Date: August 15, 2025

                    Course Fee

                    Pharmacists: FREE

                    Pharmacy Technicians: FREE

                    This CE was funded by:  Mallinckrodt

                    ACPE UANs

                    Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-029-H01-P

                    Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-029-H01-T

                    Session Codes

                    Pharmacist:  23YC29-HPX34

                    Pharmacy Technician:  23YC29-XPX38

                    Accreditation Hours

                    2.0 hours of CE

                    Accreditation Statements

                    The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-029-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                     

                    Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                    The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                    Faculty

                    Rachel Eyeler, PharmD, BCPS
                    Adjunct Clinical Professor
                    UConn School of Pharmacy
                    Storrs, CT

                                               

                    Nicole A. Pilch, PharmD, BCPS
                    Associate Professor Department of Pharmacy and Clinical Sciences
                    Medical University of South Carolina
                    Charleston, SC

                    Faculty Disclosure

                    In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                    Drs. Eyeler and Pilch do not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

                     

                    ABSTRACT

                    Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS) is a specific type of kidney injury unique to patients with end stage liver disease, also known as cirrhosis. Patients with cirrhosis have scarred, stiff livers in which blood cannot flow through easily. Portal hypertension changes blood flow resulting in several consequences: ascites, esophageal varices, and HRS. The American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases guidelines describe two distinct forms of HRS. Therapies such as volume resuscitation (e.g., with crystalloids or albumin) and vasoconstrictors (e.g., norepinephrine or terlipressin) focus on restoring blood flow to the kidneys before they are irreparably injured. Sometimes, clinicians must select therapies based on availability of intensive care unit beds and monitoring equipment. Clinicians also need to consider factors when patients leave the hospital and are discharged to home. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians who are familiar with the basics of HRS can help clinicians make appropriate choices, counsel patients thoroughly, and contribute to better patient outcomes.

                    CONTENT

                    Content

                    INTRODUCTION

                    Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS), a type of kidney injury unique to patients with advanced liver disease, carries a grim prognosis. Therapies such as volume resuscitation (e.g., crystalloids or albumin) and vasoconstrictors (e.g., norepinephrine or terlipressin) focus on restoring blood flow to the kidneys before they are irreparably injured. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can play a crucial role in helping select and monitor therapies for treatment of this syndrome, and perhaps more importantly, by helping patients avoid developing HRS in the first place. By educating patients to avoid certain over the counter (OTC) medications that can worsen the condition (e.g., non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs]), and teaching patients to monitor their diuretic use by weighing themselves daily and monitoring their blood pressure, engaged pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can make a large difference in their patients’ clinical outcomes.

                     

                    HRS: A Complication of Cirrhosis

                    Cirrhosis, an advanced state of liver disease, is increasingly common and an important cause of mortality.1 Globally, in 2017 the estimated incidence of people living with compensated cirrhosis was 112 million. In 2019, cirrhosis was associated with 2.4% of deaths worldwide.2 Classically, cirrhosis in developed countries is most commonly due to hepatitis C infection and alcohol misuse.1 However, over the past decade, the incidence of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) has increased dramatically with improvement in diagnostic criteria and screening. At the same time, treatment improvements for hepatitis B and C infections have decreased viral hepatitis-related deaths in some areas of the world. The COVID-19 pandemic has also had significant impact, with data collected from multiple countries showing a substantial increase in alcohol consumption, and an increase in alcohol-associated cirrhosis deaths.2,3 Testing and treatment rates for hepatitis B and C declined internationally between January 2019 and December 2020,4 and treatment delays are predicted to lead to excess liver-related deaths.2,5

                    PAUSE AND PONDER: How will the new hepatitis C direct-acting antivirals (e.g., elbasvir, glecaprevir, ledipasvir, pibrentasvir, sofosbuvir, velpatasvir, and voxilaprevir) change the landscape of HRS?

                    Although the causes of cirrhosis may be shifting, the transition from chronic liver disease to cirrhosis is generally the same. Chronic inflammation of the liver leads to fibrosis and scarring, causing structural and hemodynamic changes within the liver (Figure 1). One of the main consequences is development of portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results because the scarring of the liver makes it more difficult for blood to flow through it, leading to increased blood pressure in the portal vein as blood is delivered from the splanchnic organs (stomach, small intestine, colon, pancreas, and spleen) (Figure 2). The obstruction of blood flow through the portal vein additionally results in dilation of the splanchnic circulation as a compensatory mechanism aimed at restoring blood flow. In turn, increased blood flow to the splanchnic circulation worsens portal hypertension.1  

                    Figure 1. Stages of Liver Disease.

                    Graphic showing the stages of liver disease, from healthy liver to cirrhosis.

                     

                    Figure 2. The splanchnic circulation. The splanchnic circulation describes blood flow to the abdominal organs. Blood from these “splanchnic” organs is delivered to the portal vein, and accounts for the majority of the blood flow to be processed by the liver.

                    Graphic showing the blood flow from the aorta, through organs and liver, and then finally to the inferior vena cava.

                     

                    Pathophysiology of HRS

                    Portal hypertension and the changes in blood flow that result are the main drivers of several consequences of cirrhosis. These complications include the development of ascites, espophageal varices, and HRS.

                     

                    Ascites is fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity that commonly appears as abdominal swelling or bloat. A patient with significant ascites will often test positive for a “fluid wave.” That is, when a patient is lying flat and someone applies pressure to the abdominal midline, a clinician can tap one flank sharply, and an impulse or “shock wave” will travel through the fluid in the abdomen. The clinician will be able to be feel the tap on the other side.

                     

                    Esophageal varices are enlarged veins in the esophagus that can lead to bleeding that commonly presents as “coffee ground” looking emesis (or vomitus) that is a result of the blood being digested in the stomach then regurgitated through the esophagus. In the case of HRS, the portal hypertension and splanchnic vessel dilation mean that blood tends to pool in the splanchnic circulation, decreasing effective arterial volume (i.e., a decreased amount of blood effectively perfusing organ tissue, including the kidneys). Additionally, the body activates various compensatory mechanisms aimed at increasing blood volume (e.g., the renin-angiotensin system and the sympathetic nervous system). This action is an attempt to restore effective blood volume, which leads to vasoconstriction of the kidney arterioles and further hypoperfusion of the kidney (Figure 3).6

                    Figure 3. Changes in blood flow with cirrhosis. The image on the left represents normal splanchnic and portal blood flow. The image on the right shows blood flow to a cirrhotic liver. Blood from the splanchnic organs meets increased resistance in the portal vein, leading to portal hypertension. The splanchnic arteries vasodilate which worsens portal hypertension and leads to decreased blood flow to the kidneys.

                    Cartoon showing the difference in blood flow between a normal liver and cirrhotic liver. The main difference is backup of blood flow, causing portal hypertension.

                    ABBREVIATIONS: ADH: antidiuretic hormone, IMA: inferior mesenteric artery, RAAS: renal angiotensin aldosterone system, RBF: renal blood flow, GFR: glomerular filtration rate, SMA: superior mesenteric artery

                    Prevalence and Prognosis

                    HRS is a type of acute kidney injury (AKI) that is unique to patients with decompensated cirrhosis. HRS occurs in the absence of hypovolemia or any structural changes to the kidney—in fact, the kidneys often function normally following liver transplantation.7 HRS is common in patients with cirrhosis, and risk of development increases as the severity of cirrhosis and the duration with which the patient has had it increase. In one study of patients with cirrhosis and ascites, the incidence of HRS increased from 18% at one year to 39% after five years.8 The development of HRS is unfortunately associated with a very poor prognosis, and often the only way to reverse the kidney failure is to receive a liver transplant.7

                     

                    Classification and Diagnosis

                    Two distinct forms of HRS have been described. According to the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) guidelines9

                    • Type 1 HRS is a rapid increase in creatinine (0.3 mg/dL or greater) within 48 hours or an increase in serum creatinine to levels that are at least 50% higher than the most recent baseline value measured within three months. It often has a precipitating factor, such as a bacterial infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, or over-diuresis. This type of HRS is more common and more severe, making up 75% of cases and having a median survival of one month.
                    • Type 2 HRS takes a longer time to develop and is defined as an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2 for three months or more in the absence of other (structural) causes. This is the same definition used for all patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Type 2 HRS often co-occurs with other complications of cirrhosis (i.e., refractory ascites) and has a median survival of about seven months.8

                     

                    In recent years the nomenclature has been updated so that type 1 HRS is referred to as HRS-AKI and type 2 is called HRS-CKD.6,9

                     

                    Sometimes it is hard to know that a patient with end-stage liver disease is in kidney failure. These patients may have decreased muscle mass, are prone to malnutrition, and may take diuretics to control volume status. All three of those factors make serum creatinine an unreliable surrogate measure of kidney function.10

                    In patients with cirrhosis and ascites who meet the criteria for AKI, the diagnosis of HRS-AKI becomes one of exclusion. Clinicians must attempt to rule out hypovolemia, shock, medication-induced AKI, and structural kidney injury. In the absence of these alternative causes for AKI, a diagnosis of HRS-AKI can be made, and treatment commenced as soon as possible, as early intervention is key to decreasing mortality.9

                     

                    Sidebar: Why is serum creatinine unreliable in advanced liver disease?

                    In clinical practice, clinicians often estimate kidney function by measuring a patient’s serum creatinine and inputting the value into a kidney function estimating equation. Creatinine is a byproduct of creatine, an amino acid produced by the liver and released into the circulation to reach target tissues, such as muscle. Creatinine is released during normal muscle metabolism. It is used in kidney function estimates because the glomerulus filters it freely, and so theoretically the rate at which the kidneys clear creatinine should be similar to the glomerular filtration rate itself.

                     

                    However, a patient’s serum creatinine value is not affected by glomerular filtration rate alone. A malfunctioning liver may produce lower amounts of creatinine’s precursor, creatine. Additionally, patients with cirrhosis may have decreased oral intake due to nausea, ascites, and/or ongoing alcohol use. This means they consume less creatine is consumed from the diet as well. Finally, since creatinine is a product of muscle tissue breakdown and patients with cirrhosis tend to have significantly reduced muscle mass, they may generate less creatinine from the creatine. The end result is a serum creatinine that is normal or even lower than that seen in healthy individuals.

                     

                    Hence, kidney function estimates that rely on creatinine tend to overestimate kidney function in these patients and even small absolute increases in creatinine could represent an acute kidney injury.

                    PAUSE AND PONDER: Is there a better way to measure true kidney function in patients with end-stage liver disease?

                     

                    Current and Emerging Therapies for HRS

                    Therapies used to treat HRS aim at removing the precipitating factor and increasing blood flow to the kidneys. First, clinicians must identify and treat the potential etiology leading to the decline in kidney function (e.g., antibiotic therapy in the treatment of an infection of ascites fluid called spontaneous bacterial peritonitis [SBP], proton pump inhibitors, and endoscopic intervention to stop a gastrointestinal bleed). Removing the cause is one of the most important factors in ensuring that the change in kidney function is not permanent.

                     

                    Fundamentally the kidney receives insufficient blood flow secondary to a decrease in effective arterial blood flow, so initial therapy’s main goal is to improve the patient’s mean arterial pressure as soon as possible. The most common goal cited is to increase the patient’s mean arterial pressure (MAP) to greater than 65 mmHg to improve perfusion to target end organs, specifically the kidney.11,12 The goal is to improve kidney function and give the patient additional time to secure a liver transplant or stabilize the end stage disease and decrease mortality. This continuing education activity will review the agents used to improve kidney function in the setting of HRS. Table 1 summarizes guideline recommendations for initial management of patients with HRS-AKI.

                     

                    Table 1. Summary of Society Guidelines for Initial Management of HRS-AKI in the ICU9,22,23,32,33
                    Society HRS-AKI Definition Volume expander Vasopressor of choice Target
                    American Association for the Surgery of Trauma 2022 Increase in SCr > 0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours or > 50% increase in SCr in preceding 7 days in patients with cirrhosis/ascites without another cause Lactate ringers or Plasmalyte over Normal Saline; albumin 20-25% 1 gm/kg/day x 48 hours Norepinephrine, Terlipressin MAP > 65 mmHg, increased urine output
                    American Association for the Study of Liver Disease 2021 Increase in SCr > 0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours or > 50% increase in SCr in preceding 7 days in patients with cirrhosis/ascites without another cause; use SCr values for the last 3 months prior to event to evaluate baseline Albumin 1 gm/kg on day 1, then 40 to 50 gm daily while receiving vasopressor therapy Terlipressin,* Norepinephrine 0.5 mg/h ; max 3 mg/h Increase MAP by at least 10 mmHg above pre-treatment baseline or urine output >200 mL over 4 hours; albumin to maintain CVP between 4-10 mmHg;

                    Continue treatment until SCr back to baseline up to 14 days; if SCr remains at or above pre-treatment values after 96 hours stop vasopressor therapy

                    European Association for the Study of the Liver 2010 Kidney failure in the setting of liver disease unexplained by another cause Albumin 1 gm/kg/day (max 100 gm/day) Terlipressin 1 mg every 4 to 6 hours in combination with albumin, if SCr does not improve by at least 30% in 72 hours increase dose to 2 mg every 4 hours Increase in MAP by at least 5 mmHg by day 3
                    American Gastroenterological Association 2022 Increase in SCr > 0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours or > 50% from baseline or urine output is <0.5 mL/kg/hr for > 6 hours Albumin 1 gm/kg/day x 48 hours, if no improvement continue 1 gm/kg x 1 day then 20 to 40 gm daily while receiving vasopressor therapy Terlipressin 1 mg every 4 to 6 hours; increase to 2 mg every 4 to 6 hours if reduction in SCr < 25% by day 3 if available up to 14 days, alternative norepinephrine or midodrine/octreotide Increase MAP by at least 10 mmHg or urine output by at least 50 mL/h for at least 2 hours, maintain priority for liver transplant if survive
                    *not approved in US at the time of guideline construction

                     

                    ABBREVIATIONS: CVP = central venous pressure; MAP = mean arterial pressure; SCr = serum creatinine

                     

                     

                     

                    PAUSE AND PONDER: When might these interventions be considered “too late?” What would you do then?

                     

                    Crystalloids

                    Initial evaluation of patients includes an assessment of their effective arterial blood volume status. Early cessation of home medications that impact blood pressure or volume status, such as diuretics (e.g., spironolactone, furosemide) will allow a more accurate determination. If the patient’s effective arterial blood volume is not optimized, inadequate blood flow to the kidney can precipitate acute kidney injury in the setting of cirrhosis.

                     

                    Crystalloids, such as normal saline and Lactated Ringer’s, stay within the intravascular space and provide appropriate initial fluid replacement. However, clinicians must provide fluid replacement (also referred to in this case as fluid resuscitation) carefully and with appropriate monitoring as patients can become volume overloaded. Patients with end stage liver disease have low albumin levels and tend to lack the oncotic pressure (a type of osmotic pressure induced by plasma proteins, especially albumin) required to keep crystalloids within the intravascular space. Even minimal resuscitation can produce significant peripheral edema and pulmonary edema, and worsen ascites.13

                    Pharmacists should provide support in appropriate monitoring of volume status and ensuring serum electrolytes are frequently obtained. Fluids may need to be stopped abruptly in response to volume overload to prevent hypervolemic hyponatremia (low sodium levels).14 Appropriate understanding of the patient’s intravascular volume status will determine if using albumin during resuscitation is appropriate.

                     

                    Albumin

                    Patients with end-stage liver disease typically have reduced or low albumin levels because the liver is no longer able to manufacture these proteins. Reduced albumin decreases the circulating oncotic pressure which yields fluid leakage from blood vessels into other areas of the body (e.g., peritoneal space), reducing the arterial blood volume going to the kidney. This becomes especially apparent when a precipitating event such as a hemorrhage or infection occurs, which further decreases circulating blood volume. Clinicians often administer concentrated albumin (e.g., 25% or 25 grams/100 mL) every six to eight hours to increase the intravascular circulating blood volume. Albumin allows fluid to move from the interstitial spaces back into the blood stream and keeps exogenously administered crystalloids in the vessels, thereby increasing blood flow to the kidneys.12 Clinicians should reserve concentrated albumin for patients with baseline low serum albumin (e.g., less than 3 mg/dL) who are also volume overloaded and limit them to just the amount that restores hemodynamic stability.15

                     

                    Patients who have inadequate total body volume or those who have capillary leak (e.g., septic shock) may benefit from less concentrated (e.g., 5%) albumin infusions. A recent single center open-label, randomized study evaluated hypotensive patients with end-stage liver disease and compared volume replacement with albumin to normal saline.16 The primary outcome was to determine which approach could reverse a mean arterial pressure less than 65 mmHg more effectively within the first hours of resuscitation. Of note this trial excluded patients who needed immediate interventions, such as variceal bleed or vasopressor agents.17 The researchers randomized patients to receive 250 mL of 5% albumin over 30 minutes followed by 50 mL/hr for three hours or normal saline 30 mL/kg over 15 to 30 minutes followed by 100 mL/h over three hours. Albumin was more effective than normal saline in improving mean arterial pressure above 65 mmHg in the first hour (25.3% albumin vs 14.9% normal saline, p = 0.03) of resuscitation. The benefit continued over the next three hours (p < 0.001) and survival was also better in patients resuscitated with albumin than those treated with saline (43.5% vs 38.3%).16,18 The researchers note that results are predicated on appropriate management of the underlying causes of hypotension (i.e., sepsis).

                     

                    Albumin is expensive, can be and has been subject to shortages. It should be used with stewardship in end stage liver disease and HRS; however, the evidence for benefit is robust especially when combined with other modalities.16 It is important to understand the patient’s volume status and hemodynamic goals to select the appropriate concentration and frequency.19,20 The AASLD Guidelines for the Diagnosis, Evaluation and Management of Ascites, Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis and HRS suggest that patients who present with HRS should receive 1 gram/kg albumin on day 1 and then 40 to 50 grams per day until kidney function improves and other therapies are no longer needed.9,15 The daily dose may be reduced (e.g., 20 to 40 grams/day) if given in combination with vasopressor agents with a goal to maintain adequate volume. Clinicians sometimes use a surrogate measure of volume using a central venous catheter to measure central venous pressure (CVP), which reflects the amount of blood in the patient’s anterior vena cava and venous tone. In this case, a CVP goal between 10 and 15 mmHg is targeted.10,21 Unfortunately CVP can be unreliable when ascites is present and clinicians may need to employ other invasive methods along with close monitoring for the development of pulmonary edema.9,22,23

                     

                    Ensuring albumin is available for patients with HRS is necessary. Some ways to aid centers in managing their supplies when shortages occur include limiting scheduled orders to 24 hours (e.g., 1 gram of 25% every 8 hours for 24 hours). Limiting “evergreen” orders to 24 hours will ensure clinicians assess patients appropriately before administering additional albumin and may prevent unappreciated volume overload. Also, standardized order sets will prevent use of partial vials, larger than needed vials (e.g., 250 mL or 500 mL) and inappropriate ordering of the incorrect concentration (e.g., 5% versus 25%). Teaching hospitals may also benefit from limiting albumin orders to certain clinical situations or diagnoses to avoid ubiquitous use for volume resuscitation in patients (e.g., trauma) who can be resuscitated with crystalloid.

                     

                    Vasopressors

                    Vasopressors are given in combination with resuscitation, specifically albumin. The exogenous albumin facilitates adequate oncotic pressure to keep fluid in the vasculature, allowing vasopressors to constrict the vessels, increase mean arterial pressure, and supply fluid to the kidney. Vasopressors will be ineffective and can make kidney function worse if fluid in the vasculature is insufficient. Therefore, prescribers should only institute vasopressors along with or after volume resuscitation. The main adverse effects associated with any vasopressor therapy are related to ischemia (poor blood flow) in the peripheral limbs/tissues (e.g., fingertips, skin), gastrointestinal tract, or heart.9 Limited head-to-head trials exist to identify which agent or combination is the most effective in reversing HRS beyond early implementation of therapy in combination with albumin volume expansion. Table 2 summarizes the pros, cons, and considerations related to vasopressor agents used in the treatment of HRS.

                     

                    Table 2. Vasopressor Agents Pros, Cons and Considerations
                    Medication Pros Cons Considerations
                    Norepinephrine Frequently used in the ICU setting, team comfort with monitoring for adverse effects and ease/experience with titration May be less effective in hypothermia, pH dysregulation, continuous infusion May require ICU setting, especially for acute titration; may require a central line
                    Terlipressin Does not require a central line, or continuous infusion Requires additional monitoring for ischemia which may require ICU level care to ensure safety Requires monitoring for ischemic events
                    Octreotide Can be given outside the ICU Slow response, IV or subcutaneous administration May be continued as an outpatient
                    Midodrine Available as an oral agent, can be given outside the ICU Slow response, only available as an oral agent; frequency of dosing May be provided on discharge to help maintain blood pressure in the setting of hypotension

                    ABBREVIATIONS: ICU = intensive care unit; IV = intravenous

                     

                    Norepinephrine

                    Norepinephrine is an exogenous catecholamine that targets alpha-1-adrenergic receptors which helps improve peripheral vascular resistance.24 Norepinephrine has been used consistently in the United States (U.S.) for many years and has been the agent of choice until the recent approval of terlipressin. Norepinephrine’s limitation is that it can be less effective, as are other catecholamines, if patients have temperature or pH dysregulation. Appropriate resuscitation and correction of these variables can improve norepinephrine’s efficacy. A meta-analysis comparing the effectiveness of norepinephrine and terlipressin suggests that norepinephrine is as effective in increasing mean arterial pressure and reversal of kidney dysfunction.24 The most frequent doses of norepinephrine cited in terlipressin head-to-head trials were between 0.5 to 3 mg/hour and/or 0.05 to 0.7 mcg/kg/minute titrated to increase mean arterial pressure 10 mmHg above baseline or increasing urine output to more than 200 mL/hour.24 Clinicians must monitor norepinephrine administration carefully to prevent complications of vasoconstriction, such as cardiac or digital ischemia and therefore it is often restricted to the intensive care unit (ICU).24

                     

                    Terlipressin

                    Terlipressin is a prohormone of lysine-vasopressin, causing extended release of lysine-vasopressin and activation of V1 and V2 receptors allowing intermittent administration.24 V1 receptors are predominantly located in the smooth muscles of the arterial vasculature in the splanchnic region. Activating V1 receptors constricts the splanchnic vessels (reducing delivery of blood flow to the portal vein, lowering portal pressure) which subsequently may improve blood flow to kidneys. Additionally, activation of the V2 receptors causes reabsorption of water in the kidney.24,25 Terlipressin has been evaluated in several prospective, placebo-controlled clinical trials evaluating its efficacy in improving kidney function in HRS.18 Specifically, a recent prospective, randomized, double-blind controlled trial evaluated the effectiveness of terlipressin against placebo in combination with albumin in reversing HRS-AKI.25 Terlipressin was more effective than placebo in reversing HRS (32% vs 17%, p < 0.006), but did yield more respiratory failure.25 This trial was an impetus for U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval of terlipressin in 2023.

                     

                    The FDA approved terlipressin for rapid reduction in kidney function in the setting of cirrhosis with no other etiology, or reversal of HRS at a dose of 1 mg administered by intravenous bolus every six hours.10 If the patient’s serum creatinine fails to improve or increases within the first 96 hours then prescribers should discontinue terlipressin. If improvement is marginal (e.g., less than 30% from baseline) the dose can be increased to 2 mg every six hours.10 Therapy should be continued until the patient’s serum creatinine is 1.5 mg/dL or less for two days or a maximum of 14 days. Prescribers should use terlipressin with caution in patients with a history of ischemic conditions (e.g., cardiac, mesenteric).10 Terlipressin should not be used in patients who have a serum creatinine exceeding 5 mg/dL, in patients who are hypoxic (SpO2 less than 90%), or in patients who develop ischemia.10,23

                     

                    Terlipressin is often given outside the ICU and does not need continuous cardiac monitoring, which may make it desirable for longer term administration.10 Initial clinical trials compared norepinephrine continuous infusion (1 mcg/kg/minute increased every four hours to increase MAP by 10 mmHg) to terlipressin (1 mg every four hours; increased to 2 mg every four hours after three days) combined with albumin to maintain a CVP between 10 and 15 mmHg. These trials defined a complete response as an improvement in serum creatinine by at least 30% from baseline within 14 days of therapy. There was no difference in responders between norepinephrine and terlipressin (70% and 83%).21,26,27 Therefore terlipressin’s benefit may lie in its intermittent dosing and ability to be administered outside the ICU.

                     

                    Terlipressin’s most common adverse reactions (≥10%) include abdominal pain, nausea, respiratory failure, diarrhea, and dyspnea. Terlipressin does have some additional considerations. It also has a boxed warning for possible serious or fatal respiratory failure, and clinicians need to monitor patients’ oxygen saturation carefully.28

                     

                    Terlipressin is supplied as a single dose 0.85 mg vial that must be stored under refrigeration and protected from light. Vials are reconstituted with 5 mL of sodium chloride and if not used, must be refrigerated and expire after 48 hours. The initial dose based on the approved labeling is one vial (0.85 mg) every six hours; which can be increased to two vials (1.7 mg) every six hours.28

                     

                    Midodrine and Octreotide

                    Midodrine and octreotide in combination have been a staple in the treatment of acute HRS for the last two decades in the U.S. Midodrine, an oral tablet, is like norepinephrine and produces vasoconstriction through alpha-1-adrenergic receptors.24 Octreotide injection is a somatostatin analogue that decreases the release of vasodilatory substances and glucagon leading to vasoconstriction of the splanchnic circulation.24 Because norepinephrine must be administered in the ICU, some healthcare facilities favor the combination of midodrine and octreotide. They also use midodrine/octreotide if they have not added terlipressin to their formularies.23 Unfortunately, patients tend to respond slowly to the combination and the combination requires an extended duration for full benefit.23 Octreotide cannot be given without midodrine but midodrine may be continued long-term (e.g., post-discharge) to maintain blood pressure in patients who are persistently hypotensive.23,29

                     

                    Researchers recently published a single center experience with standardizing administration of midodrine and octreotide for treatment of HRS at their center.29 They wanted to standardize the use and dosing of albumin in combination with midodrine dosed at 2.5 to 10 mg three times daily and octreotide 50 to 100 mcg subcutaneously three times daily for 14 days and compare it to previous unstandardized prescribing. The goal was to obtain a full response: a serum creatinine within 0.3 mg/dL of baseline within seven to 14 days. Use of the standardized protocol was more effective in producing a full response than the historical unstandardized practice (25% vs 10%, p = 0.07).29 Additionally, the researchers also found that fewer patients in the protocol group required kidney replacement therapy. Guidelines suggest initiating midodrine at a dose of 7.5 mg three times daily and titrating it to 12.5 mg three times daily in combination with octreotide.23 The combination may still be in favor because it is a cost-effective alternative to terlipressin outside the ICU.

                     

                    Midodrine is supplied in three tablet strengths which include 2.5 mg, 5 mg and 10 mg.30 This allows outpatient tapering or adjustment if the patient experiences tachycardia. Unfortunately, it is short acting and requires three times daily dosing initially. In practice, dropping the middle of the day dose without reducing the strength allows improved adherence once the patient’s blood pressure is stable. Midodrine’s labeling includes a boxed warning for possible marked elevation of supine blood pressure, and clinicians should monitor supine and standing blood pressure regularly.30

                     

                    Octreotide is supplied in single dose ampules or multidose vials that must be stored in the refrigerator and protected from light; multidose vials must be discarded within 14 days. Octreotide is stable for 14 days at room temperature.31 Doses of 50 mcg to 100 mcg are administered every eight hours around the clock during the inpatient stay. If patients continue on octreotide as outpatients, the hospital pharmacy often needs to supply the doses. Patients and caregivers need appropriate education on subcutaneous injections and disposal of injection materials. In practice, the dose used in the hospital with success is often continued and not reduced to allow for the shortest duration possible. Octreotide subcutaneous injections on the outpatient side typically require additional insurance approval and preparation so discharge planning early is important.31

                     

                    The Role of Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians in the Treatment of HRS

                    Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can play an integral role in improving outcomes for patients presenting with or who have a history of HRS. Prevention is the key! Patients with end-stage liver disease should avoid medications that can precipitate HRS such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and will require appropriate adjustment or discontinuation (if possible) of potential nephrotoxic agents (e.g., certain antimicrobials).

                     

                    Ensuring patients with a history of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) are on appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis can prevent subsequent SBP events that decrease blood flow to the kidneys. In the ambulatory setting, careful blood pressure monitoring and adjustment of blood pressure medications commonly used to treat portal hypertension (e.g., carvedilol), can ward off hypotensive events that can precipitate HRS.

                     

                    Table 3 summarizes some lifestyle counseling tips that can help empower patients to play an active role in optimizing their care and preventing HRS episodes. Additionally, general management of concurrent disease states, such as heart failure and diabetes, can aid in maintaining optimal hemodynamics.

                    Table 3. Lifestyle Counseling Points for Patients with Cirrhosis at risk for HRS35-37
                    Avoid alcohol Even if the cause of liver damage isn’t drinking, alcohol use can increase the amount of damage. Patients who cease alcohol can experience dramatic improvements in some of the complications of cirrhosis.
                    Low sodium diet (especially in patients with ascites) Limit sodium intake. This can be quite difficult, but if it can be done will help quite a bit with volume management. Patients with ascites are often asked to target ≤2 g/day. (For reference, 1 teaspoon of salt contains 2.3 g!)
                    Weight loss in patients who are overweight Even a small amount of weight loss (e.g., a few pounds) can have a beneficial effect in patients with NAFLD or chronic HCV.
                    Protect yourself from infections Patients need to stay up to date on vaccinations, wash their hands frequently, and avoid people who are sick.
                    Organize medication schedule Patients with liver impairment can take seven to 10 medications a day—some administered multiple times a day. Investing in a strong adherence-enhancing system with alarm reminders or reminders from caregivers can be key.
                    Use OTC medications carefully NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen and naproxen, can precipitate acute kidney injury.
                    Monitor weight daily (if on diuretic treatment) Patients need to weigh themselves first thing in the morning after urinating. They should report significant weight changes to their providers (e.g., losing 1 pound or more a day or gaining more than 5 pounds in a week).

                     

                     

                    SIDEBAR: Did you know…acetaminophen can be a great choice for patient with HRS?34

                    Imagine a situation where a medical intern is cross-covering in the medical intensive care unit and receives a call from a nurse about a patient with HRS. The patient is experiencing some mild pain and the nurse would like an as-needed medication to help.

                     

                    Or…

                     

                    You are working in the pharmacy and receive an order for oxycodone 5 mg every six hours as needed for mild pain. You are very concerned that this patient has both kidney and liver insufficiency and oxycodone is not a good choice but what else can you recommend?

                     

                    What about acetaminophen?!?

                     

                    Acetaminophen tends to have a bad rap mainly because it is in so many prescription and OTC products. It’s often in the news for causing liver toxicity. Oftentimes patients and providers do not think about the total acetaminophen exposure (the total daily dose of acetaminophen) and that is where the danger can come in. When the amount of acetaminophen’s toxic intermediary N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI) exceeds the liver’s glutathione stores, NAPQI starts to stick to hepatocytes (the liver’s main structural component). NAPQI acts like an antigen and stimulates the immune system to attack the liver.

                     

                    Fortunately, it takes a significant amount administered at one time or consistently over several days to expend the glutathione stores. Doses up to 2,000 mg per day are safe and effective in most patients with severe liver insufficiency. (The maximum daily dose in healthy adults is 3900 mg.) Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can ensure providers and patients with liver disease know they have alternative options. They can also help patients avoid reaching for a NSAID, especially if the patient has had a recent bout of HRS or if the patient is taking other medications that would suggest the presence of liver insufficiency (e.g., lactulose, rifaximin, norfloxacin). Remember prevention of HRS is the key!

                     

                    When a hospital admits a patient, healthcare providers need to understand what the patient was taking at home and stop or continue the appropriate medications at the right doses. For example, prescribers should discontinue medications that could be reducing blood pressure (e.g., beta blockers and alpha beta blockers) on admission.11,16 They need to consider adjusting home medications for kidney dysfunction and restarting medications needed to manage other complications of end-stage liver disease (e.g., lactulose for encephalopathy).

                     

                    When prompt administration of resuscitation with albumin is needed, the team may need help selecting the appropriate concentration. Patients who are significantly volume overloaded but have fluid in the extravascular space (e.g., in the abdominal cavity) would likely benefit from concentrated (25%) albumin. With the multidisciplinary team, the pharmacy team needs to understand the patient’s volume status and goals of therapy. Helping teams develop protocols to treat HRS can aid in goal-directed therapy and allow quick implementation of pharmacologic interventions to improve blood flow to the kidneys.

                     

                    At discharge pharmacists and pharmacy technicians must ensure that medications are appropriately adjusted for the patient’s current kidney and liver function after the acute event has resolved or stabilized. The pharmacy team should be involved in educating patients on how to organize their new medication regimens, how to monitor their responses to therapy and recognize common adverse effects, and how appropriate lifestyle changes can increase the effectiveness of therapy and help avoid the advanced complications of liver disease.

                     

                    CONCLUSION

                    HRS is a common complication for patients with advanced liver disease and ascites. Patients are in a state of decreased effective arterial blood flow to the kidneys and other end organs, and kidney injury is easily precipitated by nephrotoxic agents, over-diuresis, or bacterial infection. Acute treatment is aimed at restoring blood flow to the kidneys with the use of volume resuscitation and splanchnic vasoconstrictors. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can identify medications that may worsen kidney function, and assist in the appropriate prescribing, monitoring, and stewardship of these agents. Additionally, appropriate patient education—empowering patients to monitor their fluid/blood pressure status and avoiding OTC medications that can worsen their condition or precipitate HRS—is key in optimizing patient outcomes.

                    Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                    Set Your Ascites on Improving Patient Care: The Pharmacy Team’s Role in HRS Management
                    Pharmacist post-test
                    JC is a 56-year-old patient with end-stage liver disease secondary to non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) who presents to the emergency department with her caregiver after she was found disoriented in the backyard overnight. An arterial line is placed and the initial mean arterial pressure is 40 mmHg with a central venous pressure of 3 mmHg.

                    Past Medical History:
                    • Type 2 diabetes
                    • NAFLD, biopsy proven six years ago
                    • variceal bleed last year
                    • ascites and recent worsening encephalopathy.
                    Vital signs:
                    • blood pressure 72/30 mmHg
                    • temperature 102.3 F (39 C)
                    • weight 56 kg, last weight 58 kg one week ago
                    • no urine output
                    Labs:
                    • Scr 3.8 mg/dL (Scr 0.7 mg/dL last week).
                    No signs of edema or ascites.
                    Current medications: pantoprazole 40 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg every other day, carvedilol 6.25 mg twice daily, lactulose 30 mL TID, glipizide 10 mg daily, citalopram 10 mg daily.

                    Please use the case above to answer the next 5 questions.

                    1. JC’s blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg in triage, an arterial line is placed and CVP is initially 3 mmHg. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention given this information?
                    A. Normal saline 500 mL bolus
                    B. Vasopressin 0.04 units/min continuous infusion
                    C. Midodrine 10 mg three times daily

                    2. During JC’s admission the team requests your evaluation of the patient’s home medications. Which home medication would you discontinue on admission?
                    A. Carvedilol
                    B. Lactulose
                    C. Citalopram

                    3. What should the patient’s goal mean arterial pressure (MAP) be?
                    A. Increase MAP by 30%
                    B. Decrease MAP to 30 mmHg
                    C. MAP of at least 65 mmHg

                    4. The team is trying to determine what dose and concentration of albumin to administer. Based on only the information in the case, which initial dose and concentration is the most appropriate?
                    A. 100 grams of 5% albumin
                    B. 60 grams of 25% albumin
                    C. 60 grams of 5% albumin

                    5. The hospital is currently on ICU diversion and no critical care beds are available, so she must be cared for on the internal medicine unit. That unit cannot manage central lines. What is the most appropriate regimen to improve the patient’s MAP in addition to the currently infusing albumin?
                    A. Terlipressin
                    B. Norepineprhine
                    C. Octreotide

                    6. A patient has received terlipressin 1 mg every 6 hours for the past four days and the patient’s serum creatinine has increased from 3.5 mg/dL to 5 mg/dL. How should terlipressin be adjusted?
                    A. Stop terlipressin
                    B. Increase terlipressin dose to 1 mg every four hours
                    C. Increase terlipression dose to 2 mg every six hours

                    7. Which of the following medications should be avoided in patient with hepatorenal syndrome and/or liver cirrhosis?
                    A. Acetaminophen
                    B. Naproxen
                    C. Guaifenesin

                    8. HR is a 53-year-old Hispanic male who presents from hepatology clinic with an acute rise in serum creatinine. Admission medication reconciliation notes that his primary care doctor recently started him on losartan, and his blood pressure was 74/52 mmHg on admission. Following hydration with normal saline and stopping all other offending medications, the doctor prescribes midodrine and octreotide. What hemodynamic change can you expect following initiation of midodrine?

                    A. Decrease in blood pressure
                    B. Increase in portal pressure
                    C. Increased blood pressure

                    9. Which of the following is the most accurate rationale for combining albumin with other agents that cause vasoconstriction to manage hepatorenal syndrome?

                    A. Exogenous albumin administration decreases intravascular oncotic pressure and allows for a decrease in mean arterial pressure when combined with vasoconstricting agents
                    B. When specifically used in the setting of infection, exogenous albumin administration allows for enhanced delivery of protein bound antimicrobials to their required site of action
                    C. Use of intravenous concentrated albumin allows fluid from the extravascular space to be pulled into the blood stream and increases blood volume and delivery to the kidney

                    10. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of HRS?
                    A. Increased blood flow to the kidney in the setting of splenic vasodilation
                    B. Decreased blood flow to the kidney in the setting of portal hypertension
                    C. Decreased blood flow to the kidney in the setting of splenic vasoconstriction

                    11. Which of the following is a definitive treatment required to resolve HRS?
                    A. Liver transplant
                    B. Kidney transplant
                    C. Portal vein transplant

                    12. Which of the following best describes the main difference between Type I HRS and Type II HRS?
                    A. Type 1 HRS is associated with a higher rise in serum creatinine (at least 0.3 mg/dL from baseline).
                    B. Type 1 HRS happens more quickly (increase in serum creatinine over the most recent baseline taken within the past three months).
                    C. Type 1 HRS shows the presence of structural kidney disease (e.g., polycystic kidney disease or glomerular, interstitial, or vascular diseases).

                    Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                    Set Your Ascites on Improving Patient Care: The Pharmacy Team’s Role in HRS Management
                    Pharmacy technician post-test
                    1. Which of the following is a reason that liver disease affects the kidneys?
                    A. Toxins that are cleared by the liver are toxic to the kidneys
                    B. The treatments for liver disease release nephrotoxins
                    C. Liver disease affects blood flow to the kidneys

                    2. Which of the following best describes main difference between Type I HRS and Type II HRS?
                    A. Type 1 HRS is associated with a higher rise in serum creatinine (at least 0.3 mg/dL from baseline) over any time period.
                    B. Type 1 HRS happens more quickly (increase in serum creatinine over most recent baseline taken within the past three months).
                    C. Type 1 HRS shows the presence of structural kidney disease (e.g., polycystic kidney disease or glomerular, interstitial, or vascular diseases).

                    3. A patient with a past medical history of cirrhosis and ascites comes into the pharmacy complaining of mild to moderate knee pain and asks for help picking an over-the-counter analgesic. Which of the following will the pharmacist most likely recommend because of safety concerns?
                    a. Naproxen
                    b. Low dose acetaminophen
                    c. Ibuprofen

                    4. A patient is picking up prescriptions for furosemide and spironolactone. Which of the following should the patient remember to do to prevent an over-diuresis that can precipitate HRS?
                    a. Weigh himself daily in the morning after he urinates; record his weights
                    b. Eat a high sodium diet; read labels carefully and aim for more than 2 grams/day
                    c. Practice good sleep hygiene; aim for an average 7 hours/night

                    5. JC is a 55-year-old patient admitted to the intensive care unit with worsening ascites and hepatorenal syndrome. His mean arterial pressure is 50 mmHg, and the ICU doctor orders IV crystalloids. Which home medication might the team want to discontinue?
                    A. Carvedilol
                    B. Lactulose
                    C. Citalopram

                    6. Which of the following is a definitive treatment required to resolve HRS?
                    A. Liver transplant
                    B. Kidney transplant
                    C. Portal vein transplant

                    7. Which of the following is a vasopressor of the splanchnic circulation?
                    A. Lactated ringers
                    B. Terlipressin
                    C. Albumin

                    8. Which of the following is the most accurate rationale for combining albumin with other agents that cause vasoconstriction in the management of hepatorenal syndrome?
                    A. Exogenous albumin administration decreases intravascular oncotic pressure and allows for a decrease in mean arterial pressure when combined with vasoconstricting medications
                    B. When specifically used in the setting of infection, albumin allows for enhanced delivery of protein bound antimicrobials to their required site of action
                    C. Use of intravenous concentrated albumin pulls fluid from the extravascular space into the blood stream and increases blood volume and delivery to the kidney

                    9. What is a drawback to the use of midodrine and octreotide in the treatment of HRS?
                    A. It constricts the splanchnic circulation.
                    B. It was not available in the United States until 2023.
                    C. It takes an extended number of days for full benefit.

                    10. Which of the following medications needs to be administered in the intensive care unit?
                    A. Albumin
                    B. Norepinephrine
                    C. Octreotide

                    References

                    Full List of References

                    References

                       
                      1. Tsochatzis EA, Bosch J, Burroughs AK. Liver cirrhosis. Lancet. 2014 May 17;383(9930):1749-61.
                      2. Huang DQ, Terrault NA, Tacke F, Gluud LL, Arrese M, Bugianesi E, Loomba R. Global epidemiology of cirrhosis - aetiology, trends and predictions. Nat Rev Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2023 Jun;20(6):388-398.
                      3. Kim D, Alshuwaykh O, Dennis BB, Cholankeril G, Ahmed A. Trends in Etiology-based Mortality From Chronic Liver Disease Before and During COVID-19 Pandemic in the United States. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2022 Oct;20(10):2307-2316.e3.
                      4. Kondili LA, Buti M, Riveiro-Barciela M, Maticic M, Negro F, Berg T, Craxì A. Impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hepatitis B and C elimination: An EASL survey. JHEP Rep. 2022 Sep;4(9):100531.
                      5. Blach S, Kondili LA, Aghemo A, Cai Z, Dugan E, Estes C, Gamkrelidze I, Ma S, Pawlotsky JM, Razavi-Shearer D, Razavi H, Waked I, Zeuzem S, Craxi A. Impact of COVID-19 on global HCV elimination efforts. J Hepatol. 2021 Jan;74(1):31-36.
                      6. Tariq R, Singal AK. Management of Hepatorenal Syndrome: A Review. J Clin Transl Hepatol. 2020 Jun 28;8(2):192-199.
                      7. Arroyo V. The liver and the kidney: mutual clearance or mixed intoxication. Contrib Nephrol. 2007;156:17-23.
                      8. Ginès A, Escorsell A, Ginès P, Saló J, Jiménez W, Inglada L, Navasa M, Clària J, Rimola A, Arroyo V, et al. Incidence, predictive factors, and prognosis of the hepatorenal syndrome in cirrhosis with ascites. Gastroenterology. 1993 Jul;105(1):229-36.
                      9. Biggins SW, Angeli P, Garcia-Tsao G, Ginès P, Ling SC, Nadim MK, Wong F, Kim WR. Diagnosis, Evaluation, and Management of Ascites, Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis and Hepatorenal Syndrome: 2021 Practice Guidance by the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases. Hepatology. 2021 Aug;74(2):1014-1048.
                      10. Wong F, Kwo P. Practical Management of HRS-AKI in the Era of Terlipressin: What the Gastroenterologist Needs to Know. Am J Gastroenterol 2023 Jun 1;118(6):915-920.
                      11. Chandna S, Zarate ER, Gallegos-Orozco JF. Management of Decompensated Cirrhosis and Associated Syndromes. Surg Clin North Am. 2022 Feb;102(1):117-137.
                      12. Patidar KR, Peng JL, Pike F, et al. Associations Between Mean Arterial Pressure and Poor ICU Outcomes in Critically Ill Patients With Cirrhosis: Is 65 The Sweet Spot? Crit Care Med. 2020 Sep;48(9):e753-e760.
                      13. Francoz C, Durand F, Kahn JA, Genyk YS, Nadim MK. Hepatorenal Syndrome. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol. 2019 May 7;14(5):774-781.
                      14. Maynard E. Decompensated Cirrhosis and Fluid Resuscitation. Surg Clin North Am. 2017 Dec;97(6):1419-1424.
                      15. Nanchal R, Subramanian R, Karvellas CJ, et al. Guidelines for the Management of Adult Acute and Acute-on-Chronic Liver Failure in the ICU: Cardiovascular, Endocrine, Hematologic, Pulmonary, and Renal Considerations. Crit Care Med. 2020 Mar;48(3):e173-e191.
                      16. Philips CA, Maiwall R, Sharma MK, et al. Comparison of 5% human albumin and normal saline for fluid resuscitation in sepsis induced hypotension among patients with cirrhosis (FRISC study): a randomized controlled trial. Hepatol Int. 2021 Aug;15(4):983-994.
                      17. Cullaro G, Kanduri SR, Velez JCQ. Acute Kidney Injury in Patients with Liver Disease. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol. 2022 Nov;17(11):1674-1684.
                      18. Mujtaba MA, Gamilla-Crudo AK, Merwat SN, Hussain SA, Kueht M, Karim A, Khattak MW, Rooney PJ, Jamil K. Terlipressin in combination with albumin as a therapy for hepatorenal syndrome in patients aged 65 years or older. Ann Hepatol. 2023, Vol. 28, p. 101126.
                      19. Kugelmas M, Loftus M, Owen EJ, Wadei H, Saab S. Expert perspectives for the pharmacist on facilitating and improving the use of albumin in cirrhosis. Am J Health Syst Pharm. 2023, Vol. epub.
                      20. Zheng X, Bai Z, Wang T, et al. Human Albumin Infusion for the Management of Liver Cirrhosis and Its Complications: An Overview of Major Findings from Meta-analyses. Adv Ther. 2023, Vol. 40, pp. 1494-1529.
                      21. Nassar Junior AP, Farias AQ, D' Albuquerque LA, Carrilho FJ, Malbouisson LM. Terlipressin versus norepinephrine in the treatment of hepatorenal syndrome: a systematic review and meta-analysis. PLoS One. 2014, Vol. 9, p. e107466.
                      22. Seshadri A, Appelbaum R, Carmichael SP 2nd, et al. Management of Decompensated Cirrhosis in the Surgical ICU: an American Association for the Surgery of Trauma Critical Care Committee Clinical Consensus Document. Trauma Surg Acute Care Open. 2022, Vol. 7, p. e000936.
                      23. Flamm SL, Wong F, Ahn J, Kamath PS. AGA Clinical Practice Update on the Evaluation and Management of Acute Kidney Injury in Patients With Cirrhosis: Expert Review. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2022, Vol. 20, pp. 2702-2716.
                      24. Flamm SL, Brown K, Wadei HM, Brown RS, Kugelmas M, et al. The Current Management of Hepatorenal Syndrome–Acute Kidney Injury in the United States and the Potential of Terlipressin. Liver Transplantation . 2021, Vol. 27, pp. 1191-1202.
                      25. Wong F, Curry MP, Reddy KR, Rubin RA, Porayko MK, Gonzalez SA, et al. Terlipressin plus albumin for the treatment of hepatorenal syndrome type 1. N Engl J Med 2021;384:818-828. N Engl J Med. 2021, Vol. 384, pp. 818-828.
                      26. Alessandria C, Ottobrelli A, Debernardi-Venon W, Todros L, Cerenzia MT, Martini S, Balzola F, Morgando A, Rizzetto M, Marzano A. Noradrenalin vs terlipressin in patients with hepatorenal syndrome: a prospective, randomized, unblinded, pilot study. J Hepatol. 2007, Vol. 47, pp. 499-505.
                      27. Martín-Llahí M, Pépin MN, Guevara M, Díaz F, Torre A, Monescillo A, Soriano G, Terra C, Fábrega E, Arroyo V, Rodés J, Ginès P and Investigators, TAHRS. Terlipressin and albumin vs albumin in patients with cirrhosis and hepatorenal syndrome: a randomized study. Gastroenterology. 2008, Vol. 134, pp. 1352-1359.
                      28. Terlivaz [package insert]. Mallinckrodt Pharmaceuticals;2023.
                      29. Hiruy A, Nelson J, Zori A, et al. Standardized approach of albumin, midodrine and octreotide on hepatorenal syndrome treatment response rate. Eur J Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2021, Vol. 33, pp. 102-106.
                      30. Midodrine [package insert]. Upsher-Smith Laboratories; 2020.
                      31. Octreotide Acetate Inejction [package insert]. Fresenius Kabi; 2022.
                      32. European Association for the Study of the Liver. EASL clinical practice guidelines on the management of ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, and hepatorenal syndrome in cirrhosis. J Hepatol. 2010 Sep;53(3):397-417.
                      33. Pitre T, Kiflen M, Helmeczi W, et al. The Comparative Effectiveness of Vasoactive Treatments for Hepatorenal Syndrome: A Systematic Review and Network Meta-Analysis. Crit Care Med. 2022 Oct 1;50(10):1419-1429.
                      34. Rogal SS, Hansen L, Patel A, Ufere NN, Verma M, Woodrell CD, Kanwal F. AASLD Practice Guidance: Palliative care and symptom-based management in decompensated cirrhosis. Hepatology. 2022 Sep;76(3):819-853.
                      35. Nobili V, Carter-Kent C, Feldstein AE. The role of lifestyle changes in the management of chronic liver disease. BMC Med. 2011 Jun 6;9:70.
                      36. Saleh ZM, Bloom PP, Grzyb K, Tapper EB. How Do Patients With Cirrhosis and Their Caregivers Learn About and Manage Their Health? A Review and Qualitative Study. Hepatol Commun. 2020 Nov 17;5(2):168-176.
                      37. US Department of Veterans Affairs. Ascites due to Cirrhosis. 2018. https://www.hepatitis.va.gov/pdf/ascites-fact-sheet.pdf Accessed 6/30/2023.

                      The Nitty Gritty: Dry Eye Guidance for the Pharmacy Team

                      Learning Objectives

                       

                      After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists and technicians will be able to

                      1. Describe the etiology and pathophysiology of dry eye disease (DED) and its impact on quality of life
                      2. Identify available and emerging over-the-counter and prescription therapies to treat DED
                      3. Optimize artificial tear selection based on patient-specific characteristics
                      4. Infer when to refer patients to the pharmacist or an eye care provider for DED

                         

                        Release Date: August 15, 2023

                        Expiration Date: August 15, 2025

                        Course Fee

                        Pharmacists: FREE

                        Pharmacy Technicians: FREE

                        This CE was funded by:  Alcon Vision, LLC

                        ACPE UANs

                        Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-030-H01-P

                        Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-030-H01-T

                        Session Codes

                        Pharmacist:  23YC30-TVX83

                        Pharmacy Technician:  23YC30-XVT99

                        Accreditation Hours

                        2.0 hours of CE

                        Accreditation Statements

                        The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-030-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                         

                        Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                        The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                        Faculty

                        Jennifer Salvon, RPh
                        Clinical Pharmacist
                        Mercy Medical Center
                        Springfield, MA

                        Faculty Disclosure

                        In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                        Ms. Salvon does not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

                         

                        ABSTRACT

                        Dry eye disease (DED) is a multifactorial condition affecting the ocular surface and tear function. Symptoms include burning, itching, and watery eyes. DED affects millions of people in the United States. Many underlying factors contribute to DED making therapeutic management difficult. Left untreated, DED can result in visual changes affecting everyday activities such as reading and driving. Simple environmental changes often help alleviate symptoms. Before seeking healthcare professional assistance, many people self-treat with over-the-counter artificial tear products, leading to high costs and frustration. Treatment involves patient education, environmental and lifestyle modifications, topically applied products, and, in severe cases, surgical procedures. Several recently approved products offer alternative treatment approaches. A knowledgeable, informed pharmacy team is prepared to counsel patients on product choice and to make appropriate referrals contributing to better patient outcomes.

                        CONTENT

                        Content

                        INTRODUCTION

                        The feeling of grit under the eyelids is uncomfortable, annoying, and frustrating and can pose a serious health issue. This feeling, often accompanied by burning, itching, redness, and visual disturbances, is a symptom of keratoconjunctivitis sicca, otherwise known as dry eye disease (DED). At its simplest, DED is inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva from tear hyperosmolarity (higher concentration of solutes like salts, sugars, or other dissolved particles) and tissue dryness. Left untreated, DED may result in severe eye inflammation, corneal ulcers, and vision loss.1

                         

                        DED affects approximately 16.4 million people, or 6.8% of the United States (U.S.) adult population.2,3 DED is likely underreported and underdiagnosed, with estimates as high as 22.9 million adults experiencing symptoms.2 Researchers estimate DED’s global prevalence is as high as 50%.4

                         

                        Despite this prevalence, experts began to recognize DED as a disease state only about 30 years ago.5,6 Initially described as a component of Sjogren’s syndrome (an autoimmune disease involving tear and saliva glands), DED emerged as a separate condition as ocular surface study progressed. The National Eye Institute first defined DED in 1995.1

                         

                        The Tear Film and Ocular Surface Society (TFOS) is a non-profit organization focused on eye health research and education.5 In 2015, the Dry Eye Workshop II (DEWS II), organized by TFOS, examined multiple aspects of DED. The workshop updated the definition, diagnosis, and classification of DED, the disease’s impact, therapeutic management options, and clinical trial design.5

                         

                        TFOS DEWS II defines DED as "… a multifactorial disease of the ocular surface characterized by a loss of homeostasis of the tear film, and accompanied by ocular symptoms, in which tear film instability and hyperosmolarity, ocular surface inflammation and damage, and neurosensory abnormalities play etiological roles."5 In simpler terms, DED occurs when the tear film, which keeps the eyes moist, becomes imbalanced, leading to problems like tear film instability, high concentration of substances in the tears, inflammation and damage on eye surface, and abnormal nerve sensations.

                         

                        Many risk factors contribute to DED development (Table 1). Women are two to three times more likely to develop DED than men.3,4 Risk of developing DED increases with age. Adults aged 50 or older are three times more likely to develop symptoms than those 18 to 49 years old.2,3 However, DED’s incidence is rising steadily in the younger population, possibly due to increased disease awareness.3 Digital device use may also contribute. Studies show that using digital devices decreases blink rate and increases incomplete blinks, leading to ocular surface dryness and, ultimately, DED.4.7

                         

                        Table 1. Dry Eye Disease Risk Factors1,4,5

                        Modifiable Non-modifiable
                        Androgen deficiency

                        Computer use

                        Contact lens wear

                        Environment

                        Medications

                        Age ≥ 50 years

                        Asian race

                        Connective tissue diseases (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus)

                        Diabetes

                        Female sex

                        Meibomian gland dysfunction

                         

                         

                        DED impacts the American economy significantly. Several factors contribute to DED burden: direct costs of medical care, the impact of lost productivity, and the associated quality of life burden. In the U.S., estimates of direct medical costs exceed $3.84 billion, fueled by healthcare professional visits, pharmacologic therapies, and surgical procedures.4,8 The cost of lost productivity (i.e., time spent seeking and receiving treatment, avoidance of aggravating work environments, and inability to perform work due to visual changes) is even more substantial. One study estimates that these indirect costs total $11,302 per patient annually.8 If more than 16 million people have DED, that totals more than $150 billion annually.4,8

                         

                        Beyond monetary costs associated with DED, the disease also affects vision-related quality of life (VR-QoL). As DED progresses, visual quality decreases. Individuals with DED are three times more likely to report visual difficulties than those without.4 This impacts many daily activities such as reading, driving, watching television, and smartphone use.4 DED-associated pain and discomfort, along with difficulty in activities of daily living, impact mental health negatively.8 A 2021 study examined self-reported health status and psychological burden in patients with DED. The study associated DED with having a negative self-perception of health status and experiencing increased psychological stress.9

                         

                        A Deeper Look at DED

                        A better understanding of DED requires review of the surface anatomy of a healthy eye (see Figure 1). The eye's surface consists of the ocular surface and ocular adnexa (accessory anatomical parts).10 The ocular surface includes the cornea, conjunctiva (including goblet cells), and tear film. The ocular adnexa includes the eyelids, lacrimal and meibomian glands, tear ducts, and the connecting muscles and nerves.10

                         

                        Figure 1. Eye Surface Anatomy and Tear Film Formation

                        Anatomical image of the eye and tear film.

                         

                        Tears lubricate the eye, and the tear film—which provides nutrients and moisture, removes microbes, and smooths the ocular surface—has three layers10,11:

                        • Outermost lipid layer, produced by meibomian glands
                        • Aqueous layer, produced by the lacrimal gland
                        • Innermost mucin layer, produced by goblet cells

                         

                        Tear film instability, primarily increased tear osmolarity, leads to ocular surface damage in DED.7 DED's categorization is based on the mechanism leading to tear hyperosmolarity. In aqueous deficient dry eye disease (ADDE), decreased tear secretion increases tear film osmolarity. Increased evaporation of tears leads to hyperosmolarity in (you guessed it) evaporative dry eye disease (EDE).5

                         

                        ADDE is further categorized based on the underlying cause: Sjogren’s Syndrome or non-Sjogren’s syndrome. As mentioned, Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease attacking the salivary and lacrimal glands resulting in dry mouth and eyes. Non-Sjogren’s syndrome ADDE has various causes, including lacrimal deficiency, lacrimal gland duct obstruction, and systemic drugs. These mechanisms decrease tear secretion, resulting in tear hyperosmolarity.5,10

                         

                        Meibomian gland dysfunction (MGD) is the primary cause of EDE.12,13 Meibomian glands line the inside of the upper and lower eyelid. Lipid secretion by meibomian glands forms a coating on the aqueous layer, impeding tear evaporation and providing protection against environmental irritants. Risk factors for MGD include aging, hormonal changes, contact lens wear, diet, and systemic and topical medications.13

                         

                        Separation of DED into ADDE and EDE implies mutual exclusivity, but many patients presenting with DED exhibit characteristics of both. Recent evidence indicates the two classifications co-exist, with more patients presenting with EDE due to MGD. 6,14,15 Regardless of the subtype or mechanism, the result is a vicious, self-perpetuating cycle of inflammation.6,16 Tear film hyperosmolarity triggers an innate inflammatory immune response, activating CD4+ T-cells. This leads to conjunctival and corneal cell death and impaired lacrimal gland function, further decreasing tear production.16,17 This further increases tear hyperosmolarity, which continues the cycle.

                         

                        Diagnosing DED is problematic due to its multi-factorial nature and inconsistent symptom presentation. Exploring differential diagnoses using triaging questions is crucial to exclude diseases that mimic DED, including allergic, bacterial, or viral conjunctivitis; blepharitis; and rheumatic disorders.5,18 A thorough patient history screens for risk factors such as smoking, contact lens wear, and certain systemic and topical medications. Several questionnaires also exist to help clinicians screen for DED. The Dry Eye Disease Questionnaire (DEQ-5) contains five items asking patients to rate the frequency of eye discomfort, eye dryness, and watery eyes during a typical day.18 The Ocular Surface Disease Index (OSDI) is another popular questionnaire. The OSDI questionnaire asks a series of 12 questions assessing eye symptoms, vision issues (e.g., reading, driving), and environmental conditions.18

                         

                        Patients with positive questionnaire results should progress to a more detailed tear film and ocular surface examination. A positive result in any of the following tests is diagnostic of DED18:

                        • Tear breakup time (TBUT): There are two methods for measuring TBUT, using fluorescein dye or illumination of the cornea. Both measure how long it takes for tears to break up after a blink. Lower TBUT scores indicate tear instability.
                        • Osmolarity: Clinicians use a device with a test strip to gain a sample of the tear film from both eyes to check tear osmolarity. An osmolarity of 308 mOsm/L or greater in either eye or a difference of more than 8 mOsm/L between the eyes is diagnostic of DED.
                        • Ocular surface staining: After applying dye to the lower eyelid’s inner lining, clinicians examine the ocular surface for missing or damaged epithelial cells. Positive scores range from five to nine spots depending on the dye used.

                         

                        Clinicians also commonly deploy the Schirmer test to evaluate the eye’s ability to produce tears. A notched paper strip placed over the lower eyelid stimulates tear production during the test. After five minutes, a length of wetting greater than 10 mm indicates normal tear function. Values less than 5 mm signify tear insufficiency.18

                        Pause and ponder: How would vision loss affect your everyday life?

                         

                        Treatment Goals

                        Treatment goals for DED are to decrease ocular inflammation and restore ocular surface homeostasis (balance). DED's complexity and heterogeneous presentation necessitate an individualized approach. TFOS DEWS II recommendations emphasize identifying the disease’s root cause to determine an appropriate management approach.14 From there, the report outlines a stepwise, flexible approach to guide treatment based on patient-specific disease etiology and severity.14 Table 2 briefly summarizes recommended management steps.

                         

                        Table 2. Treatment Steps in DED Management14

                        Step 1:

                        ·       Education

                        ·       Environmental modifications

                        ·       Lifestyle modifications

                        ·       Dietary supplementation

                        ·       Eyelid hygiene

                        ·       Medication review

                        ·       Artificial Tears

                        Step 2:

                        ·       Preservative-free artificial tears

                        ·       Prescription therapy

                        ·       Tear Conservation

                        ·       Overnight treatments

                        ·       In-office treatments

                        Step 3:

                        ·       Tear stimulation

                        ·       Biological tear substitutes

                        ·       Therapeutic contact lenses

                        Step 4:

                        ·       Prescription therapy

                        ·       Surgical intervention

                         

                         

                        NON-PHARMACOLOGIC TREATMENT

                        One of the first steps, patient education, is essential for successful disease management.14 Patient education starts with thoroughly explaining DED’s chronic nature, including the ongoing, often long-term nature of therapeutic management. Discussing the patient’s home and work environment during the session may identify contributing factors.14 The environment affects overall health and well-being. Air pollution, low humidity, high altitude, and wind contribute to DED development.14 Adding an air humidifier inside or using protective eyeglasses outside can help mitigate DED symptoms. Other strategies include minimizing exposure to digital screens, cigarette smoke, and air conditioning.19

                         

                        Proper lid hygiene is important in managing many eye conditions, including DED.14 Patients can use a cotton swab to scrub the eyelid with a dilute solution of baby shampoo to keep the area free of crusty build-up and environmental contaminants. Warm eye compresses also promote good lid hygiene and help alleviate DED symptoms. Unfortunately, lid hygiene adherence is poor, with estimates of just over 50% adherence at six weeks.14 Reinforcing the importance of lid hygiene with patients is an important component of DED patient counseling.

                         

                        Identifying medications that may contribute to DED is an important task for pharmacy staff. Many medication classes produce drying effects on the body, intentionally or as an adverse effect.14,19 Table 3 lists examples of medications that may worsen DED. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians should review patient profiles to identify drying medications, including ophthalmic formulations, as medications for glaucoma (an eye condition causing progressive vision loss) may contribute to DED.14 Mitigating options to consider include changing the route of administration from oral to topical, substituting with a therapeutic alternative, and adjusting doses.14

                        Table 3. Examples of Medications that Worsen Dry Eye Disease14,19

                        Drug Class Examples
                        Antihistamines and decongestants

                         

                        Chlorpheniramine

                        Diphenhydramine

                        Fexofenadine

                        Loratadine

                        Pseudoephedrine

                        Antidepressants

                        ·       TCA

                        ·       SSRI

                        ·       SNRI

                         

                        Amitriptyline

                        Citalopram

                        Duloxetine

                        Fluoxetine

                        Sertraline

                        Venlafaxine

                        Anti-Parkinson’s Levodopa
                        Antipsychotics

                         

                        Aripiprazole

                        Perphenazine

                        Quetiapine

                        Beta-blockers

                         

                        Atenolol

                        Carvedilol

                        Metoprolol

                        Propranolol

                        Diuretics

                         

                        Furosemide

                        Hydrochlorothiazide

                        Proton pump inhibitors

                         

                        Omeprazole

                        Pantoprazole

                        Hormone therapy Estrogen

                        DED = dry eye disease; TCA = tricyclic antidepressants; SSRI = serotonin-selective reuptake inhibitor; SNRI = serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

                         

                        Diet and Nutrition

                        An emerging body of evidence suggests that certain diet changes and nutritional supplementation may play a role in DED treatment. Dehydration increases tear osmolarity, so maintaining adequate hydration is important to disease control.14 Lactoferrin is an anti-inflammatory glycoprotein found in natural tears. Studies have found decreased lactoferrin levels in patients with DED leading researchers to the explore lactoferrin topical application and oral supplementation as treatment for the condition. One study found improved dry eye symptoms and tear film stability in patients taking an oral lactoferrin supplement.20 Oral lactoferrin is available as a supplement in many retail locations.

                         

                        Supplementation with omega-3 fatty acids also shows potential in DED. Omega-3 fatty acids block proinflammatory substances and are essential for ocular surface homeostasis.14 Some studies have found that omega-3 fatty acid supplementation improves TBUT and Schirmer scores.21,22 Conversely, The Dry Eye Assessment and Management (DREAM) trial reported no difference between groups receiving omega-3 fatty acids and placebo.23 While oral omega-3 fatty acids show benefit for some patients, further study is necessary. These conflicting results prompted studies for alternative administration routes. Topical application of omega-3 fatty acids shows promise. A systematic review of 10 studies (five in animals and five in humans) showed overall improvement in ocular surface staining and TBUT.24 Further study is necessary to evaluate long-term efficacy and optimize dosage and delivery formulations.

                         

                        Artificial Tears

                        Patients often attempt self-treatment before seeking healthcare professional assistance. Tear replacement with artificial tear (AT) formulations is essential for patient comfort and a mainstay of initial and ongoing therapy. Global sales of AT reached $2.64 billion in 2019, and experts predict this to reach $4.30 billion by 2027.25 Many AT products line the pharmacy shelves, all touting their ability to lubricate the eye. Faced with the confusing array of products, patients often employ a trial-and-error approach for AT selection, leading to high costs and frustration. Knowing the differences between ATs enhances the pharmacy team’s ability to counsel patients effectively.

                         

                        AT supplementation is generally safe and well tolerated and associated adverse effects are mild, including blurred vision and ocular discomfort.14 Most ATs are water-based with viscosity-enhancing agents added for lubrication. Osmolarity, viscosity, and pH vary between products. Table 4 describes the components of AT products and their functions.

                         

                        Table 4. Components of Artificial Tear Products11,14,26

                        Component Purpose Examples
                        Viscosity-enhancing agents (lubricants) Aid lubrication

                        Increase tear film thickness

                        Protect ocular surface

                        Promote tear retention

                        Improve goblet cell density

                        Carbomer 940 (polyacrylic acid)

                        Carboxymethyl cellulose (CMC)

                        Dextran

                        Glycerin

                        Hyaluronic acid (HA)

                        Hydroxypropyl-guar (HP-guar)

                        Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)

                        Polyvinyl alcohol

                        Polyvinylpyrrolidone

                        Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

                        Lipids

                         

                        Restore the lipid layer

                        Increase lipid layer thickness

                        Prevent evaporation

                        Mineral oil

                        Castor oil

                        Flaxseed oil

                        Osmoprotectants

                         

                        Balance osmotic pressure

                         

                        Trehalose

                        Levocarnitine

                        Erythritol

                        Betaine

                        Preservatives

                         

                        Prevent microbial growth in multi-dose formulations Benzalkonium chloride (BAK)

                        Sodium chlorite

                        Sodium perborate

                        Buffers

                         

                        Control pH Sodium borate

                        Sodium citrate

                        Sodium phosphate

                        Electrolytes

                         

                        Promote ocular surface homeostasis Potassium

                        Calcium

                        Magnesium

                        Phosphate

                         

                         

                        Viscosity-enhancing agents, or demulcents, are the most common ingredient in AT and typically listed as the active ingredient on product packaging. The higher the viscosity (i.e., the thicker the product), the longer the ocular surface retention time, but differences in viscosity can influence product choice. High viscosity can create visual disturbances and buildup on the eyelid leading to decreased adherence.26 These products are best for nighttime use, and patients should use lower-viscosity products during the day.26 Many products contain multiple viscosity-enhancing agents. Commonly paired agents include carboxymethyl cellulose (CMC) with hyaluronic acid (HA) and hydroxypropyl-guar (HP-guar) with HA.14,26 Studies suggest that combining viscosity-enhancing components improves symptom control.14

                         

                        There is significant interest in developing novel formulations to increase the spreading and retention time of applied drops.14 Lipid-containing eye drops are gaining in popularity as understanding of DED’s pathophysiology progresses.14 Lipids restore and thicken the lipid layer of the tear film and prevent tear evaporation. Formulated as oil-in-water emulsions, lipid-containing products contain macro-, micro-, or nano-particles. Particle size is important. Macro particles are associated with cloudy, blurred vision. As particle size decreases, blurring decreases.14

                         

                        Osmoprotectants balance osmotic pressure, as the name implies, to protect and prevent corneal and conjunctival cell death.26 Levocarnitine and erythritol protect cells from hyperosmolar stress and improve DED’s symptoms.26 Clinical trials have shown that trehalose is more effective at improving ocular surface staining than saline.14,26

                         

                        Multi-dose products contain preservatives to prevent microbial growth, but these can also worsen symptoms in DED. Benzalkonium chloride (BAK), the most common preservative, may cause corneal damage and interfere with tear film stability.14 Newer “disappearing preservatives” (e.g., sodium chlorite, sodium perborate) have a lower impact on the ocular surface. Exposure to light or the ocular surface breaks down these compounds, minimizing toxicity.14,27 Even newer preservatives carry risk, making preservative-free drops the best choice, especially in patients with severe DED. Preservative-free AT products are available in disposable single-use units but are generally more expensive.14

                         

                        The pH of ATs affects product activity, stability, patient comfort, and safety.14 Adding electrolytes to reproduce the electrolyte profile of the tear film aids osmotic balance. Studies show that hypotonic solutions (i.e., having a lower osmotic pressure) decrease DED signs.26

                         

                        No large-scale, randomized clinical trials have evaluated all currently available AT formulations. Some clinical trials evaluate individual AT products, and a few head-to-head studies exist.16,28 Several published systematic reviews have concluded that ATs treat DED safely and effectively. One systematic review of more than 60 studies published in 2022 drew the following conclusions27:

                        • Combination formulations, including the following, may be more effective than single-ingredient products: CMC and HA, HA and trehalose, CMC and glycerin, and HA and coenzyme Q10.
                        • Formulations containing polyethylene glycol (PEG) may be more effective than those with CMC.
                        • Preservative-free formulations are preferable.
                        • Patients with EDE and/or MGD should use drops containing phospholipids.
                        • Patients should administer AT four times daily for one month to assess efficacy.
                        • Patience is key; sometimes, it may take up to four months of consistent use to see improvement.

                         

                        Another literature review of 18 studies compared commercially available AT products and concluded that products containing CMC, hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC), or HA were the most beneficial in improving patient comfort level.29 This study also determined that clinicians should recommend administration three to four times daily for two months to assess patient response before escalating therapy. The use of a preservative-free formulation is preferable.29 If patients choose or clinicians recommend preservative-containing eye drops, administration should be limited to four to six times daily.29 Researchers created a stepwise approach to selecting AT products29:

                        • Step 1: Start with CMC, HPMC, or HA-based formulations
                        • Step 2: Move to formulations with PEG or PEG and glycerin
                        • Step 3: Consider gel or lipid formulations
                        • Step 4: Progress to ointments, liposomal sprays, or prescription inserts

                         

                        Both studies reached similar conclusions. Adherence and persistence are key to successfully evaluating an individual product, a fact that pharmacy staff should reiterate to patients. While some trial and error may be necessary, following the above recommendations allows patients and providers an organized approach to AT selection. While AT are a mainstay of early symptomatic treatment of dry eye disease, they do not address DED’s underlying causes. Prescription therapies target the underlying inflammatory processes.

                         

                        Hydroxypropyl cellulose ophthalmic insert (HCOI) is a prescription-only lubricant insert containing 5 mg of hydroxypropyl cellulose. The insert is preservative-free and designed to provide continuous lubrication throughout the day. Patients insert HCOI once daily using an applicator.30 They rinse the applicator in hot water then use the grooved end to pick up the insert. Patients then place the insert in a pocket created by pulling out the outer corner of the eyelid. The HCOI softens and slowly dissolves, stabilizing and thickening the tear film, prolonging TBUT. One study comparing HCOI to using AT four or more times a day found increased TBUT and decreased foreign body sensation with HCOI compared to AT.30,31 Reported adverse effects include blurred vision, eye irritation, eyelid matting, and light sensitivity.30

                         

                        Pause and Ponder: A patient approaches the pharmacy counter with a plastic bag full of bottles of different brands of artificial tears. Dumping them on the counter, she states, “None of these work! I don’t know what to do next.” What advice would you give her?

                         

                        PRESCRIPTION THERAPIES

                        Available prescription therapies (outlined in Table 5) target the inflammatory cycle of DED through different mechanisms with varying degrees of success.

                         

                        Table 5. Prescription Therapies to Treat Dry Eye Disease28,32-36

                        Drug Brand Name (Manufacturer) Formulation(s) Dosing Supplied
                        Cyclosporine A Restasis

                        (Allergan)

                        0.05% emulsion 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use vials
                        Cequa

                        (Sun Pharma)

                        0.09% solution 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use vials
                        Generic

                        (Mylan)

                        0.05% solution 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use vials
                        Lifitegrast Xiidra

                        (Novartis)

                        5% solution 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use containers
                        Loteprednol Eysuvis

                        (Kala Pharma)

                        0.25% suspension 1-2 drops in each eye QID for up to 2 weeks Multi-dose 10 mL bottle
                        Perfluorohexyloctane Meibo

                        (Bausch & Lomb)

                        100% solution 1 drop in each eye QID Multi-dose 5 mL bottle
                        Varenicline Tyrvaya

                        (Oyster Point Pharma)

                        0.03 mg/0.05ml solution 1 spray in each nostril BID Multi-dose nasal spray

                        ABBREVIATIONS: BID, twice daily; QID, four times daily

                         

                        Cyclosporine A

                        Cyclosporine A (CsA) is an anti-inflammatory immune modulator approved for use in DED more than two decades ago.16 Calcineurin activates T-cells, increasing inflammatory cytokine production. CsA inhibits calcineurin to prevent T-cell activation, disrupting the inflammatory cycle in DED.16

                         

                        Many clinical trials have evaluated CsA’s safety and efficacy in DED treatment.1,5,14,37 Results consistently show that CsA improves Schirmer test scores, corneal staining results, and goblet cell density. Improvement often takes several months, making patient education key to adherence.1,5,14,37 Topical CsA alleviates symptoms in approximately 50% of patients.1 Patients using CsA experience decreases in blurred vision, ocular dryness, foreign body sensation, and watery eyes.1,14 Treatment often causes stinging and irritation. Other adverse effects include blurred vision, ocular itching, eye redness, and foreign body sensation.37 Pretreatment with an ophthalmic steroid such as loteprednol may decrease CsA’s adverse effects.1,38

                         

                        As a hydrophobic (water-fearing) substance, CsA is challenging to formulate into an ophthalmic topical formulation. Initially, products used castor oil and corn oil as vehicles, but poor bioavailability and adverse effects preclude their use.16 The first commercially available CsA product, a 0.05% emulsion, uses a castor oil-in-water emulsion, which reduces but does not eliminate adverse reactions.37

                         

                        Approval of CsA 0.09% nanomicellar solution introduced a novel formulation.16,37 Clinical efficacy trials found a response as early as day 28.16At the end of 12 weeks, 17% of study participants receiving CsA 0.09% experienced increased tear production with a Schirmer score greater than 10 mm. Reported adverse effects included mild instillation site pain, eye irritation, blepharitis, and headache.32 Preliminary studies suggest CsA 0.09% is more effective and better tolerated than CsA 0.05%.16

                         

                        Lifitegrast

                        Approved in 2016, the novel drug lifitegrast is a lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1 (LFA-1) antagonist.33 LFA-1 binds to intracellular adhesion molecule-1 during inflammation, activating T-cell migration and resulting in ocular inflammation. Lifitegrast binds to LFA-1, preventing this interaction and decreasing T-cell-mediated inflammation.33 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved this drug based on four randomized, double-masked, 12-week efficacy and safety trials. 33,39-41 All studies showed a reduction in patient-rated eye dryness scores at the end of 12 weeks. Patients in three of the four studies experienced reduced corneal staining scores.33

                         

                        The one-year multicenter, randomized, placebo-controlled SONATA study evaluated lifitegrast safety.42 Reported adverse effects included burning, reduced visual acuity, dry eye, and taste changes. Researchers observed no serious adverse events and discontinuation rates were 12.3% and 9% for lifitegrast and placebo, respectively.42 A 2021 retrospective review of 600 patient charts examined real-world experience with lifitegrast in DED.43 Most patients continued treatment for six months and showed improvement in DED symptoms. Patients also experienced improved quality of life at three and 12 months of treatment.43

                         

                        Perfluorohexyloctane

                        Perfluorohexyloctane, formerly known as NOV3, reduces tear evaporation from the ocular surface.44 The drug’s exact mechanism in DED is unclear. In May 2023, the FDA approved an ophthalmic formulation containing perfluorohexyloctane for treating DED in adults 18 and older based on data from two phase 3 clinical trials: GOBI and MOJAVE.44,45

                         

                        These trials evaluated efficacy and safety in more than 1,200 patients with DED meeting similar inclusion and exclusion criteria based on tear film break-up time, ocular surface disease scores, and MGD evaluations. Both trials were multi-center, randomized, double-masked, and saline-controlled.44,45 GOBE and MOJAVE results also consistently showed statistically significant reductions in reported symptoms of DED. Reported adverse events occurred in less than 4% of study participants and included blurred vision, blepharitis, instillation site pain, and conjunctival redness.44,46 Patients must remove contact lenses before and for at least 30 minutes after administration of perfluorohexyloctane drops.34

                         

                        Perfluorohexyloctane should be available in the second half of 2023.44

                         

                        Short-Term Corticosteroids

                        Corticosteroids are potent inhibitors of inflammatory mediators.14 Many clinical trials have demonstrated their efficacy in breaking the inflammatory cycle of DED. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is associated with increased intraocular pressure, cataracts, and risk of infection.14

                         

                        Loteprednol is a synthetic corticosteroid derived from prednisolone. Its rapid breakdown into inactive metabolites reduces risk of adverse reactions.47 A retrospective safety study concluded that loteprednol therapy carries a low risk of treatment-related elevated intraocular pressure compared to other steroids.48 Several loteprednol ophthalmic formulations are available, but only the 0.25% suspension is FDA approved for the short-term treatment of DED. This formulation uses mucus-penetrating particle (MPP) technology to allow nanoparticle penetration through the mucin layer.47,49

                         

                        The FDA approved loteprednol 0.25% suspension based on the STRIDE series of trials.36 These trials randomized patients with DED to the drug or a vehicle control four times daily in both eyes for two weeks. All trials reported significant improvements in eye redness and discomfort at the end of two weeks.36

                         

                        One role for topical steroids in DED is pre-treatment prior to topical CsA therapy. A 2014 study compared loteprednol versus AT during a two-week lead-in period to CsA.38 Patients self-administered either loteprednol or AT four times daily for two weeks, followed by CsA twice daily plus either loteprednol or AT twice daily for an additional six weeks. Both groups showed improved ocular staining and OSDI and Schirmer scores. Loteprednol provided more rapid relief of DED symptoms and resulted in a lower CsA discontinuation rate than AT.38

                         

                        Patients with moderate-to-severe DED with adequate long-term control may still experience periodic symptom exacerbation. Short-term pulse steroid therapy (using steroids of a week or two, then tapering and resuming if necessary) can be useful for patients with symptom exacerbations.14

                         

                        Varenicline Nasal Spray

                        Pharmacy staff may recognize varenicline as a treatment for smoking cessation, but a newer nasal spray formulation shows utility for treating DED. Tear film production results from stimulating afferent nerves in the cornea and conjunctiva and parasympathetic nerves in the lacrimal gland, meibomian glands, and goblet cells.50,51 This neural pathway is accessible through central nervous system or peripherally through the nasal cavity. While the drug’s mechanism in DED is not fully understood, experts theorize that varenicline, a cholinergic agonist, activates this pathway to stimulate tear production.50,51

                         

                        The randomized, double-masked, vehicle-controlled, 28-day ONSET-1 and ONSET-2 trials evaluated varenicline nasal spray’s safety and efficacy.50,51 Participants self-administered one spray of varenicline solution or vehicle in each nostril twice daily. Both studies found a significant improvement in tear production measured by Schirmer scores. The most common patient-reported adverse effects included sneezing, cough, throat irritation, and nasal irritation.50,51 The 2021 MYSTIC study examined varenicline nasal spray's long-term safety and efficacy compared to placebo over a 12-week period.52 Patients reported no severe or serious adverse events during the study; sneezing was the most common adverse reaction, occurring in 82% of patients.52

                         

                        Varenicline packaging includes two glass bottles, each containing a 15-day drug supply. Patients must initially prime the bottle by pumping seven sprays into the air away from the face. Re-priming by pumping one spray into the air is necessary after five days of nonuse.35

                         

                        Steps for administration of varenicline nasal spray35:

                        • Blow nose if needed to clear nostrils
                        • Remove the cap and clip from the bottle
                        • Hold the bottle upright, placing one finger on each side of the applicator and thumb on the bottom of the bottle
                        • Tilt head back slightly
                        • Insert the applicator tip into one nostril, pointing it toward the ear on the same side of the nostril, leaving space between the tip and the wall of the nostril
                        • Place tongue on roof of mouth and breath gently while pumping one spray into the nostril
                        • Repeat in other nostril
                        • Wipe the applicator with a clean tissue and replace the cap and clip

                         

                        Antibiotics

                        Clinicians sometimes use oral or topical antibiotics with anti-inflammatory effects off-label to treat DED due to MGD.14 Many patients experience MGD due to overgrowth of eyelid flora, so reduction of eyelid flora and inflammation improves patient-reported symptoms.53 Oral administration of doxycycline and minocycline in small doses (40 to 400 mg of doxycycline and 50 to 100 mg of minocycline) to treat MGD improves patient-reported symptoms.1,53 Unfortunately, gastrointestinal adverse effects limit the use of these medications. One study found that azithromycin 1% eyedrops improved eyelid inflammation and tear film lipid layer stability.54

                         

                        EMERGING THERAPIES

                        New and novel therapies are also in the pipeline for DED treatment. Pharmacy staff should be aware of their potential place in therapy and prepared to incorporate them upon approval.

                         

                        Reproxalap

                        Exploring another causative mechanism in DED, reproxalap is a reactive aldehyde species (RASP) inhibitor. RASP molecules are found at the top of the inflammatory cascade and are elevated in many inflammatory diseases. They bind to and disrupt the function of enzymes and ion channels, which activates pro-inflammatory mediators. RASP inhibition, therefore, decreases pro-inflammatory substances associated with DED.55,56

                         

                        A randomized, double-masked, phase 2a trial evaluated the efficacy of three formulations of reproxalap: 0.1% and 0.5% solutions and a 0.5% lipid solution.55 Participants used the products four times daily for 28 days. The study found a significant improvement in four questionnaire scores, Schirmer test values, tear osmolarity, and tear staining scores. Within one week, patients reported symptom improvement. Researchers concluded that reproxalap could potentially alleviate DED symptoms.55

                         

                        A separate randomized, double-masked, phase 2b trial compared reproxalap 0.01% and 0.25% to a control vehicle solution.56 Patients self-administered drops four times daily for a total of 12 weeks. The study found statistically significant improvements in ocular dryness and staining over 12 weeks.56

                         

                        A 2021 tolerability study compared ocular adverse effects between two formulations of reproxalap 0.25% (one solution, one lipid-based) and lifitegrast 5% solution.57 Over seven days, study participants received one dose of each solution with a 3-day washout period between administrations. Researchers assessed adverse effects after 1 hour. Reproxalap formulations were similar to one another and superior to lifitegrast in ocular discomfort, blurry vision, and dysgeusia.57

                         

                        Reproxalap offers a novel approach to treating the underlying inflammatory process involved in DED. Preliminary study results show improvements in DED symptoms and better patient tolerability, potentially leading to lower discontinuation rates and improved patient outcomes.

                         

                        Cationic Cyclosporine

                        A cationic (positively charged) 0.1% CsA nanoemulsion is available in Europe to treat DED.58 Experts theorize that a cationic emulsion increases the surface time of CsA on ocular tissues. All FDA-approved products are anionic (negatively charged). Clinical trials are evaluating CsA 0.1% nanoemulsion for FDA approval.58

                         

                        PHARMACY TEAMS: FRONT-LINE SUPPORT

                        Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians are among the most accessible healthcare providers. People routinely turn to neighborhood pharmacies for advice on many health topics. Most people self-treat dry eye symptoms long before seeking professional help. These facts make the pharmacy team essential in supporting people suffering from DED. The SIDEBAR provides basic counseling information about eye products.

                         

                        SIDEBAR: Counseling Tips for Eyedrop and Eye Ointment Administration59,60

                        Proper administration of ophthalmic formulations is key to their success. Administration is awkward, and many patients struggle with it. Advising patients on proper technique is a key role for the pharmacy team. General tips for all ophthalmic products include

                        • Confirm you have the correct product
                        • Check expiration date
                        • Read the directions
                        • Wash your hands
                        • If using both eyedrops and eye ointment, wait five to ten minutes between drops, and administer the eyedrops at least 10 minutes before the ointment
                        • Using a mirror may make it easier to see what you are doing

                         

                        Eyedrops:

                        1. Gently shake the bottle
                        1. Be sure the eye dropper is clean, and do not let it touch any surface
                        2. Tilt your head back and look up
                        1. Pressing your finger gently on the skin just beneath the lower eyelid, pull your lower eyelid down and away from your eyeball to make a “pocket” for the drops
                        2. With the other hand, hold the eye drop bottle upside down with the tip just above the pocket
                        3. Squeeze the prescribed number of eye drops into the pocket
                        4. If you think you did not get the drop of medicine into your eye properly, use another drop
                        5. Blink a few times so that the medicine spreads across your eye
                        6. For at least 1 minute, close your eye and press your finger lightly on your tear duct (small hole in the inner corner of your eye) to keep the eye drop from draining into your nose
                        1. Wash your hands
                        1. Wait at least 10 minutes before you use other eye products, especially ointments, gels, or other thick eye drops

                         

                        Eye ointment:

                        1. Be sure the top of the ointment tube is clean, and don’t let it touch any surface, including the eye, eyelid, or lashes. (If it does, call your pharmacy and arrange to get another tube of eye ointment.)
                        2. Tilt your head back and look up
                        3. With one hand, pull the lower eyelid down with one or two fingers to create a small pouch
                        4. With the other hand, position the medicine above your eye
                        5. Put a thin line of ointment in the pouch. Close the eye for 30 to 60 seconds to let the ointment absorb
                        6. Wash your hands
                        7. Eye ointments can cause some temporary blurring of vision

                         

                        Knowledge of risk factors, including precipitating medications (revisit Table 3 for a refresher), aids in identifying patients at risk for developing DED. Technicians are often the first point of contact at the pharmacy counter, routinely fielding questions. Actively listening and asking open-ended questions help gather necessary information. Patients reporting dry eye symptoms or buying AT products may need counseling or a referral to a pharmacist or an eye care professional.

                         

                        Educating patients about avoiding certain environmental factors is important. Remind patients that minimizing exposure to wind or smoke, taking a break from digital screens, and using a humidifier may help alleviate symptoms. Adherence to therapeutic interventions is key in DED treatment. Some interventions, such as lid hygiene, are time-consuming, and many patients stop after only a few days.  Reinforcing the importance of lid hygiene with patients is an important component of DED patient counseling.

                         

                         

                        Advising patients on selecting an appropriate AT product decreases frustration and increases overall patient satisfaction. Proper administration of ophthalmic preparations can be difficult for some patients, particularly older individuals. Taking the time to counsel on proper technique sets patients up for successful administration and improved outcomes.

                         

                        Patients with severe refractory DED may not benefit enough from lifestyle modifications and pharmacologic therapy. Many other interventions exist including14

                        • Punctal plugs blocking the tear ducts to promote tear conservation
                        • Pulsed light therapy delivered in office with a handheld flash gun
                        • Tear stimulation utilizing topical and systemic secretagogues
                        • Biological tear substitutes utilizing patient-derived serum
                        • Use of therapeutic contact lenses made of silicone hydrogel
                        • Surgery to correct any causative physiological abnormalities

                        Pharmacy staff should recognize when patients with worsening DED symptoms may require escalation of therapy and refer them to an eye care provider when appropriate.

                         

                        Pause and Ponder: Consider your home and work environment. Could you take steps to minimize conditions contributing to developing dry eye?

                         

                        CONCLUSION

                        You may have noticed a recurring theme throughout this activity: education. Helping patients understand the chronic nature of DED and navigate treatment options improves patient care and outcomes. Education must include the entire pharmacy team. Understanding the roles of each treatment allows for effective management and counseling. Educated pharmacy teams can assist patients with product selection, counsel on the timing and administration of treatments, improve safety, and provide referrals when appropriate.

                         

                        Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                        The Nitty Gritty: Dry Eye Guidance for the Pharmacy Team

                        Posttest

                        Learning Objectives:
                        1. Describe the etiology and pathophysiology of dry eye disease (DED) and its impact on quality of life
                        2. Identify available and emerging over-the-counter and prescription therapies to treat DED
                        3. Optimize artificial tear selection based on patient-specific characteristics
                        4. Infer when to refer patients to the pharmacist or an eye care provider for DED

                        Pharmacists:
                        1. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing DED?
                        A. Caucasian race
                        B. Digital device use
                        C. Obesity

                        2. How does meibomian gland disease (MGD) contribute to DED?
                        A. Decreased lipid secretion affecting the outer layer of the tear film
                        B. Increased lipid secretion affecting the outer layer of the tear film
                        C. Decreased tear secretion leading to tear film instability

                        3. Prince Charming shares with you his recent DED diagnosis. Which of the following medications in his profile is most likely contributing to his symptoms?
                        A. Duloxetine
                        B. Donepezil
                        C. Erythromycin

                        4. Which of the following is a function of viscosity-enhancing agents in artificial tears?
                        A. Balance osmotic pressure
                        B. Control pH
                        C. Increase lubrication

                        5. Olaf stops by the pharmacy asking for assistance selecting an artificial tear product. He describes mild dry eye symptoms he is experiencing with the change in seasons. As a first choice, you suggest a product containing which of the following?
                        A. Carboxymethylcellulose (CMC)
                        B. CMC and hyaluronic acid (HA)
                        C. Polyvinyl alcohol

                        6. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to advise Olaf to use the recommended AT product to effectively manage symptoms and assess efficacy?
                        A. Apply 1-2 drops in each eye 1-2 times a day for 4-6 months
                        B. Apply 1-2 drops in each eye 4-6 times a day for 1-2 weeks
                        C. Apply 1-2 drops in each eye 3-4 times a day for 1-2 months

                        7. Buzz Lightyear recently received a diagnosis of DED due to MGD. Which of the following would be an appropriate first-line treatment choice?
                        A. Artificial tears formulated with mineral oil
                        B. Loteprednol 0.25% ophthalmic suspension
                        C. Oral omega-3 fatty acid supplements

                        8. Elsa started using cyclosporine A 0.05% eye drops for DED last month. While picking up her first refill, she mentions the drops are controlling her symptoms well but causing a burning sensation when she administers them. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
                        A. Let her know this is a known adverse effect and to continue therapy as prescribed
                        B. Recommend she stop using the drops immediately, as she may be harming her eyes
                        C. Offer to contact her eye care provider to switch to cyclosporine A 0.09%

                        9. Which of the following is a novel eye drop approved for long-term use in DED?
                        A. Perfluorohexyloctane
                        B. Varenicline
                        C. Loteprednol

                        10. Snow White frequently stops by the pharmacy to ask for guidance about treating her DED. Today she shared that her AT is no longer working, and it’s the fifth one she has tried. You confirm she is properly and consistently administering ATs. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation for Snow White?
                        A. Assist her in selecting a more appropriate AT product to try based on trial-and-error
                        B. Advise her to reach out to her ophthalmologist to explore prescription therapies
                        C. Tell her that she must move out of the dusty cabin she shares with the seven dwarves

                        Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                        Pharmacy Technicians:
                        1. Dry eye disease (DED) affects approximately how many U.S. adults?
                        A. 7 million
                        B. 16 million
                        C. 23 million

                        2. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing DED?
                        A. Caucasian race
                        B. Digital device use
                        C. Obesity

                        3. Prince Charming shares his recent diagnosis of DED. Which of the following medications in his profile may be a contributing factor?
                        A. Duloxetine
                        B. Donepezil
                        C. Erythromycin

                        4. Why is it important to engage with patients at the counter and ask open-ended questions?
                        A. So you can stay updated with their vacation plans and get some destination ideas
                        B. To help gather important health-related patient information and optimize therapy
                        C. It’s not important; the patient wants to pick up their prescription as quickly as possible

                        5. Which of the following is a function of viscosity-enhancing agents in artificial tears?
                        A. Balance osmotic pressure
                        B. Control pH
                        C. Increase lubrication

                        6. Cinderella approaches the register with two open bottles of AT and a receipt from one week ago. She asks if she can return the products, as they did not work. Which of the following is the BEST response?
                        A. Refer Cinderella to the front end of the store to process the refund
                        B. Issue Cinderella a refund and suggest she speak to an ophthalmologist
                        C. Refer Cinderella to the pharmacist for counseling

                        7. Buzz Lightyear stops at the counter to purchase artificial tear eye drops. When he asks you how to use them, what should you do?
                        A. Tell him to follow the directions on the box; they clearly outline how to use them
                        B. Offer Buzz a patient handout explaining eye drop use, and refer him to the pharmacist
                        C. Explain that his doctor is the best person to educate him about eye drop administration

                        8. Olaf stops by the pharmacy, complaining that his eyes always feel dry, especially when he is outside sledding. Which of the following is the BEST suggestion?
                        A. Wear eye protection when sledding to reduce wind exposure
                        B. Watch YouTube videos of other people sledding instead
                        C. Build a snowman friend on top of the mountain and play there

                        9. Elsa seems quieter than usual when picking up her prescriptions. When you ask her if everything is OK, she shares that it feels like something is in her eye all the time and she is having a hard time reading her book for book club. Which of the following is the BEST response?
                        A. Suggest that she get the audiobook instead so she can still enjoy her book club
                        B. Let her know that this is common and over-the-counter therapies may help
                        C. Recommend that she see an eye care provider to prescribe loteprednol eye drops

                        10. While picking up a prescription, Snow White also purchases 4 bottles of artificial tears, stating that she goes through them like water. When you ask her if they help, she replies “Eh, not really…” How should you respond?
                        A. Tell her to keep it up; sometimes, artificial tears take a while to work
                        B. Explain that this isn’t typical and refer her to the pharmacist for counseling
                        C. Let her know it’s okay to stop using them if they aren’t working

                        References

                        Full List of References

                        References

                           
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