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Law: Dissemination of Risk Information: What’s in That Black Box?

Learning Objectives

After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists and pharmacy technicians will be able to

  • Characterize the different risk management strategies used by the FDA
  • Describe how FDA warnings affect healthcare practice
  • Review how warnings are developed and applied

      a pharmacist stands among the stocked shelves holding up a closed black box.

       Release Date

      Release Date: May 15, 2026

      Expiration Date: May 15, 2029

      Course Fee

      Pharmacists   $7

      Pharmacy Technicians   $4

      There is no funding for this CE.

      ACPE UANs

      Pharmacist: 0009-0000-26-026-H03-P

      Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-26-026-H03-T

      Session Codes

      Pharmacist: 26YC26-WZB62

      Pharmacy Technician: 26YC26-BZW42

      Accreditation Hours

      2 hours of CE    (or 0.2 CEU's)

      Accreditation Statements

      The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-026-H03-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

       

      Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

      The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

      Faculty

      Gerald Gianutsos, B.S. (Pharm), Ph.D., J.D.

      Emeritus Associate Professor at the University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences

      Storrs, CT

      Faculty Disclosure

      In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

      Gerald Gianutsos has no relationships with ineligible companies.

       

      ABSTRACT

      All drugs have risks and patients encounter many sources, both reputable and questionable, to receive information about these risks. This continuing education activity will review some of the programs created by the Food and Drug Administration to warn about potential adverse events related to drug use. The emphasis is on boxed warnings, patient package inserts, risk evaluation and mitigation strategies, and medication guides. The activity will review the characteristics and development of these programs, their statutory basis, and their effect on prescribing.

      CONTENT

      Content

      INTRODUCTION

      A woman is anxiously waiting at the pharmacy counter and asks to see the pharmacist. She hands you a container and says, “I picked up this prescription for my father yesterday and I noticed this big black box on the patient information.” There is indeed a visible big black box that surrounds a message saying “WARNING: INCREASED MORTALITY IN ELDERLY PATIENTS WITH DEMENTIA-RELATED PSYCHOSIS.” “What should I do?” she asks, “and why didn’t someone talk to me about this when I picked up the prescription?” You think back and remember that this is called a “boxed warning”…

       

      THE BOXED WARNING

      The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has several means of providing information on drug risks to healthcare practitioners and patients.1 One example is the boxed warning (BW, formerly and colloquially referred to as a “black box warning”). The FDA requires a BW for certain medications and reserves them for the most serious risks associated with a drug.1 It is intended “to identify and describe a discrete set of adverse reactions and other potential safety hazards that are serious or are otherwise clinically significant because they have implications for prescribing decisions or for patient management.”2 A BW is designed to alert healthcare providers and patients to potentially fatal or serious life threatening or disabling adverse effects that may occur with the use of that drug.3

       

      A BW is ordinarily used in situations where1

      • an adverse reaction is so serious in proportion to the potential benefits that it is essential that prescribers consider the risk/benefit before prescribing
      • there is a serious adverse reaction that can be prevented or reduced in severity by appropriate use of the drug
      • the FDA has concluded that the drug can be safely used only if its distribution or use is restricted.

      Appropriate use of the drug in this context includes patient selection, careful monitoring, avoiding certain concomitant therapy, addition of another drug, or managing patients in a specific manner.1

       

      A BW provides a brief, concise summary of the information that is critical for prescribers to consider before providing it to a patient and includes any restriction on distribution or use.1 Typically, a more detailed description of the risk is included elsewhere in the labeling (e.g., in contraindications or warnings and precautions sections), that must be identified by a cross-reference.1

       

      BWs have a required format. The information within the box must not exceed 20 lines, must be arranged in bullet points, and must be preceded with a bold, uppercase header containing the word “WARNING” and identify the subject of the warning.2 The bolded heading and summary must be contained within the box and must be followed by the statement “See full prescribing information for complete boxed warning.”2 The standardization of the BW results in a uniform, easily recognizable warning, ensuring that safety information is easily accessible for its intended audience without confusion.4

       

      The FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) ordinarily determines whether to require a drug to carry a BW. The decision is usually based on clinical data, but serious animal toxicity may also be the basis of a BW in the absence of sufficient clinical data.4 CDER usually seeks the advice of an advisory committee before issuing a warning. CDER is not bound by the committee’s recommendation but usually defers to their advice.4

      a cartoon of a red warning siren

      Approval of a new drug by the FDA may be contingent upon the addition of a BW. Alternatively, the manufacturer may add the warning after marketing if post-marketing surveillance detects a serious adverse effect.5 The FDA continuously monitors data from post-marketing surveillance, such as MedWatch, and may modify the warning if it is warranted.3

       

      While the FDA mandates the warning, the drug manufacturer often drafts and incorporates it into the product's labeling subject to FDA approval.6 Typically, the sponsor submits initial labeling which the FDA reviews and is subject to negotiation; there is a 30-day period during which the agency and the drug sponsor can exchange viewpoints and suggest alternative language.6 The FDA may request edits and clarification or additional studies. The FDA may also insist on narrowing the approved indications for the drug or limit it to severe cases of the approved indication. If the FDA and the manufacturer cannot reach an agreement, the FDA has the authority to make the final determination.6 Moreover, the manufacturer may not issue a BW without prior FDA approval.7

       

      Healthcare professionals should recognize that the BW is the result of a regulatory judgment and emerges from consideration of factors such as clinical trial data, post-market surveillance, mechanistic plausibility, expert opinions, and other subjective factors; it is not based on an objective or systematic standard or threshold.8,9 The determination about a warning may be based on observed harms or anticipated harms, such as risks associated with pharmacologically similar drugs or plausible risks that have not yet been substantiated with current use.8

       

      Drug manufacturers have an incentive to resist labeling their product with a BW since a BW may affect the prescribing of a drug, especially if alternatives exist that do not have a prominent warning.9,10 One example is the use of atypical antipsychotic drugs (such as the one our patient above inquired about). One study examined the prescribing of atypical antipsychotic drugs before and after an FDA advisory leading to a subsequent BW in 2005. The BW warned of an increased risk of mortality associated with the use of atypical antipsychotics among elderly patients with dementia.10 Use of atypical drugs had increased at an annual rate of 34% during the two years prior to the BW. The advisory and BW were associated with a decrease in the use of these drugs beginning within one month of the advisory and continuing at least through 2008.10

       

      Similar declining sales were observed for droperidol and antidepressants in children.9 A mail survey of 2,400 pediatricians in Canada conducted after a warning was required for selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressants found that about three-quarters of prescribers were aware of the warning and 80% of those changed their prescribing habits.11 About one-third of prescribers aware of the warning followed their patients more closely and 7% stopped treatment with these drugs in at least one patient.11

       

      An interesting tale of the effect of a boxed warning occurred with droperidol.12 The FDA approved droperidol in 1970 as an antiemetic and tranquilizer and prescribers used it effectively to prevent and treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. In the late 1990s, reports indicated the drug had the potential to produce cardiac complications, including QT interval prolongation, ventricular arrhythmias, and torsades de pointes. The FDA mandated a BW in 2001 because of the heart complications.12

       

      The warning label stated that patients should be given droperidol only after failing other treatment options and also stated that prescribers should use electrocardiography prior to drug administration and continue for two to three hours afterwards to monitor cardiac arrhythmias.12

      ECG monitor displaying a cardiac rhythm is hooked up to a cartoon heart

      Following this decision, droperidol use dropped as hospitals and clinicians switched to safer alternatives that required less monitoring. The drug virtually vanished from hospital pharmacies and formularies.12 This resulted in strong reaction from the medical community. Critics pointed out that the scientific evidence to support the BW consisted of a few hundred patients receiving varying doses of droperidol, with the vast majority of patients far exceeding the usual antiemetic dosing by as much as two orders of magnitude.12 Most patients who suffered fatal complications had received droperidol doses of 25 to 250 mg, compared with the lower standard intravenous antiemetic dose of 0.625 to 1.25 mg. Moreover, many of the patients who received droperidol doses of 1.25 mg or less and experienced cardiac complications had confounding factors present, which were not accounted for by the FDA.12

       

      Independent reviews of the FDA’s data concluded that droperidol’s safety and efficacy at lower doses was comparable to alternatives, but the FDA refused to drop the warning label.12,13 In 2003, the FDA noted that it had asked the manufacturer to undertake additional safety studies or submit an extensive literature review.12 The drug manufacturer rejected this request, citing financial constraints. However, the FDA provided further clarification that the BW was only meant to apply to droperidol doses specified in the package insert, which was an initial dose of 2.5 mg, since that was the only data available to the agency.12 The FDA could not assess the safety and efficacy of the lower antiemetic dose and considered this to be an off-label use.12 The FDA reasserted that it does not regulate off-label drug use as deemed appropriate by a clinician's professional judgement. Subsequently, the drug regained some use in emergency departments.12

       

      PAUSE AND PONDER: How can you balance providing important risk information while not instilling reluctance to use a medication when counseling?

       

      The BW is not permanent. Warnings can be removed or modified (see below) if new, robust scientific evidence shows the risks are overstated or don't apply to current patient populations.3,8 Some circumstances that would justify removal of a BW include conclusions based on outdated or flawed original studies; better follow-up studies that show a more favorable risk/benefit relationship; warnings that overstate the risk and result in patients avoiding needed treatments; or advocacy from medical organizations.3

       

      BACKGROUND

      The boxed warning was first implemented in 1979 and currently, more than 400 products carry the warning.5,9 One analysis determined that the estimated probability of acquiring a new boxed warning or being withdrawn from the market over 25 years was 20%.14 Many serious adverse drug reactions are not identified until after FDA approval, and a drug’s safety profile often remains uncertain for several years on the market.14

       

      A study of 222 drugs approved between 2001 and 2010 found that 123 resulted in postmarket safety events sufficient to trigger a regulatory response; 61 of these were BW, 59 were safety communications, and three drugs were withdrawn from the market.15 The median time from approval to first postmarket safety event was 4.2 years.15 Eight of the BWs were preceded by a safety communication but only four of these safety communications described the safety risk that triggered the subsequent BW.15 Biologics and psychiatric medications were the most likely to receive a warning.

       

      Drugs that were given FDA fast-track approval status were more likely to receive a boxed warning.15,16 One study found that fast-tracked drugs were 3.5 times more likely to receive a BW after already being prescribed to patients.16 The study, looking at 200 approved drugs, found that 30 received a BW and 11 were eventually withdrawn due to safety concerns.16

       

      Familiar examples of drugs requiring a BW include atypical antipsychotics (such as the one the woman asked the pharmacist about), antidepressants, opioids, benzodiazepines, anticoagulants, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, isotretinoin, certain antibiotics, and biologics.3

       

      An early example is the antibiotic, chloramphenicol. Chloramphenicol received a black box-like warning in 1961 before the 1979 regulations were enacted due to concerns over an adverse effect: fatal aplastic anemia (a rare life-threatening hematologic condition marked by bone marrow failure and subsequent low levels of red and white blood cells and platelets in the blood).17 The FDA first warned prescribers through other types of label modifications, but inappropriate use of the drug continued, prompting the FDA to issue its first box-like warning.17 The warning was directed to prescribers and appeared in the Physician’s Desk Reference, without direct communication to patients.18

       

      When a BW is warranted, the FDA usually requires it for all members of a drug class.3 The rationale is that the characteristics necessitating the warning are usually shared by different pharmacologically similar therapeutic agents.  However, there are also circumstances where a BW is not universal for all drugs in a category; for example, two pharmacologically similar drugs may have different pharmacokinetic profiles.9

       

      A boxed warning can also be applied when a drug poses risk-benefit considerations that are unique among drugs in a class.1 It is important to identify when a drug is uniquely associated with a particular risk and is therefore designated as a second‑line therapy for that reason.

       

      Although the BW is intended to warn prescribers, pharmacists, and patients, many researchers and clinicians question this labeling approach’s effectiveness.5 One study of hospital residents and attending physicians found that they had a limited knowledge of which medications carried BWs and the content of the warnings.5, Needless to say, this may put patients at risk.

       

      Another study investigated how frequently physicians prescribe BW drugs and whether they do so in compliance with the warnings. The study used automated claims data from almost one million U.S. patients from 10 geographically diverse health plans.19 They found that over a 30-month period, the range of compliance with BWs among prescribers varied from 0.3% to 49.6%.19,20 More than 40% of health plan enrollees received at least one medication that carried a BW that could potentially apply to them. Most prescriber non-compliance occurred with recommendations for baseline laboratory monitoring. The authors speculated that the lack of consensus regarding the value of laboratory monitoring, for example of liver function testing in preventing drug‑induced liver failure, may explain why some physicians choose not to monitor some laboratory results, given the limited evidence supporting their effectiveness.20 In contrast, they found few instances of prescribing BW drugs to pregnant women that were absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy.19,20 The authors commented that evidence shows that BWs may not adequately function as risk communication tools so consequently, the FDA and manufacturers increasingly implement strengthened risk management programs for certain drugs.20

       

      OTHER RISK MANAGEMENT PROGRAMS

      The FDA has other risk management programs in addition to BWs.21 The Durham-Humphrey Act of 1951 may be considered the first risk management program, since it established the requirement that certain prescription drugs could only be used under the supervision of a licensed healthcare practitioner.21 (Prior to the act, the manufacturer decided if its drug would be prescription or OTC.) In the 1980s, the FDA occasionally asked companies to develop special safety programs called Risk Management Programs (RMPs) or Risk Minimization Action Plans (RiskMAPs) to mitigate serious risks for a limited number of drug products that offered substantial therapeutic benefits.21 These programs consisted of education for patients and providers and distribution restrictions.21,22

       

      Some other current risk management programs include Patient Package Inserts (PPIs), the Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS), and Medication Guides (MGs). FDA’s primary risk management tool is communication through FDA-approved product labeling for healthcare providers and patients.21 The FDA considers labeling to be sufficient to ensure that benefits outweigh the risks for most drugs. However, the FDA may determine that additional precautions, such as REMS, are needed in a limited number of cases.21

      smiling pharmacist is shaking hands with a patient across a table

      Patient Package Inserts

      The forerunner to the boxed warning was the now-familiar patient package insert (PPI) which was first put into place in 1970 for oral contraceptives (OC) and expanded in 1977 to include estrogen-containing drugs.23,24 The PPI includes a warning regarding the most serious adverse effects of drugs and is required to be placed in or accompany each package dispensed to the patient.23 The FDA's rationale for mandating direct information to patients was based on the elective nature of OC use by otherwise healthy women and the potential for serious (sometimes fatal) adverse effects.25 The inclusion of a warning to patients also provided an opportunity for patients to participate with physicians in making a decision about their therapy.25 The agency's action came as a result of several studies published in 1970s that indicated an association between the use of conjugated estrogens and an increased risk of endometrial cancer in women. A recommendation by the FDA’s Obstetrics and Gynecology Advisory Committee also contributed to the decision.26

      a friendly pharmacist is handing a patient their patient package insert

      The institution of the PPI prompted litigation.26 The Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association and others, including the National Association of Chain Drug Stores, sued the FDA alleging that the Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) did not grant the authority to make these types of requirements and that the PPI interferes with the physician-patient relationship.26

       

      The court rejected these arguments. The judge ruled that the FDCA does provide the FDA with authority to require these warnings and concluded that when the FDA “determines that the possible side effects of a drug when used as customarily prescribed are sufficiently serious as to be material to the patient's decision on use of the drug, he or she may require disclosure of those side effects on the labeling.”26 Moreover, the court agreed with the FDA’s point that new studies showing that estrogen may be "unsafe for use" under the conditions explained in the labeling justified the development of the PPI since labeling that did not disclose the risks involved would be misleading.26

       

      The manufacturers asserted that, “requiring the physician to communicate information emanating from Washington without regard to his or her professional judgment concerning the accuracy of the advice or the desirability of the patient being exposed to it” interfered with the physician-patient relationship.26 The court reasoned that the requirement does not preclude a physicians from exercising their judgement since they are “free to discuss the matter fully with the patient, noting his own disagreement and views” and that the labeling requirement actually encourages this behavior. The court stated that the manufacturers “urge recognition not of a right to exercise judgment in prescribing treatment, but rather of a right to control patient access to information.”26

       

      It is also worth noting the messages submitted to the FDA during the public comment period prior to the enactment of the PPI.25 The agency received more than 1,000 comments with consumer groups supporting the development of warning labels.25 The comments revealed that patients often do not understand the language healthcare professionals use. Further, patients exposed to oral information usually are not attentive to it, often do not remember it, and are unwilling to ask for clarification.25

       

      PAUSE AND PONDER: How do you think these findings from 1975 would be applied today? In what ways are they (or aren’t they) still relevant?

       

      The FDA initially proposed requiring PPIs for 50 to 75 drug classes during a pilot phase, with plans to expand the requirement to nearly all prescription drugs afterward.25 Obviously, this has not yet occurred.

       

      Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies

      Another warning that the FDA uses to alter patient behavior impact pharmacists and technicians: the REMS.  REMS are designed to help reduce the occurrence or severity of a particular serious adverse event produced by a drug and may go beyond mere communication.27 FDA can require a REMS for prescription drugs and biologics if the agency determines a warning is necessary to ensure that the benefits of the medication outweigh the risks. These medications would not be approved—or would be withdrawn—without a REMS due to their known or potential serious risks.27

       

      The FDA’s authority to require REMS was established by the passage of the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007 (FDAAA).28 The FDAAA expanded the FDA’s authority to manage risks. The FDA’s practice already included most of the REMS elements, but the new law created the authority to utilize risk evaluation and mitigation strategies and provided for structure, enforcement, and dispute resolution.22 Prior to FDAAA (before 2007), 16 drugs were approved with restrictive risk management programs, including clozapine (the "No Blood, No Drug" program) and thalidomide (the "System for Thalidomide Education and Prescribing Safety" program, or S.T.E.P.S.).22

       

      In determining whether REMS is necessary, the law requires consideration of the following factors29:

      • the estimated size of the population likely to use the drug involved
      • the seriousness of the disease or condition that is to be treated with the drug
      • the expected benefit of the drug with respect to such disease or condition
      • the expected or actual duration of treatment with the drug
      • the seriousness of any known or potential adverse events that may be related to the drug and the background incidence of such events in the population likely to use the drug
      • whether the drug is a new molecular entity

       

      A REMS is a required risk management plan that can include one or more elements to ensure that the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks.29 If the FDA determines that a REMS is necessary, it may require additional resources describing the risks including a PPI or a MG (see below).29 They may also require “elements to assure safe use” (ETASU) as part of a REMS if the documentation is not adequate to mitigate a serious risk.29

       

      ETASU may include one or a combination of the restrictions described in Table 1.29

       

      Table 1. Possible Prescribing Restrictions Associated with ETASU29
      • Prescribing may be limited to healthcare providers who have a particular training or experience or are specially certified
      • Dispensing only from certified pharmacies or healthcare settings or restricted to certain settings such as a hospital
      • Dispensing restricted to patients subject to monitoring or who provide evidence of safe use conditions such as a laboratory test
      • Enrollment in a patient registry

       

      FDA’s determination as to whether a REMS is necessary for a particular drug is a drug-specific inquiry, reflecting an analysis of multiple, interrelated factors and of how each component applies in a particular case.29 In conducting this analysis, FDA evaluates whether “any drug‑specific risks outweigh the drug’s benefits and whether additional interventions beyond FDA‑approved labeling are needed to ensure that its benefits continue to outweigh its risks.”28 FDA relies on both premarketing and postmarketing risk assessments in making the determination. Pharmacy employees can consult FDA’s website (https://www.accessdata.fda.gov/scripts/cder/rems/index.cfm ) to view which drugs currently require a REMS.

       

      While FDA determines that a REMS is necessary, specifies the requirements, and approves the specific programs, the drug’s manufacturer is responsible for developing and implementing the program.27 Some manufacturers develop these programs themselves while other manufacturers hire vendors or other companies to develop and implement the programs on their behalf.

       

      The law requires that when a drug has a REMS, any generic equivalents for these drugs must also have a REMS.27 Sometimes, the brand name manufacturer and the generic version’s manufacturer jointly develop and implement a REMS (referred to as a “shared system REMS”). At other times, the brand name drug and the generic have different REMS, but both must meet the same goal(s) and requirements.

       

      The law permits waiving REMS distribution or use restrictions for certain medical countermeasures during a declared public health emergency and establishes a pathway to ensure access to REMS restricted drugs for off-label use in serious or life-threatening conditions.29 It does not appear that the FDA has ever exercised this option.

       

      REMS can affect healthcare practitioners and patients in many ways.30 Some medications with a REMS can only be dispensed in specific healthcare settings, such as hospitals or infusion centers. Many REMS do not require pharmacists to do anything outside of their normal dispensing activities. However, for certain REMS, pharmacists and other dispensers may need to complete certain requirements in order to dispense the drug. These may include completing training, verifying safe use conditions (e.g., verifying required laboratory monitoring or that a patient or healthcare provider is enrolled in the REMS), counseling patients, and/or providing the patient with educational materials or a MG prior to dispensing a medication with a REMS.30 Certain REMS may require the pharmacies to become certified. For example, the anticonvulsant vigabatrin is only available in an inpatient setting or from pharmacies that are able to comply with the REMS’ requirements. Another example is mifepristone, discussed below.

       

      Some drugs require both a BW and a REMS. Pharmacists and technicians have probably encountered the dual warnings for isotretinoin. The FDA approved isotretinoin for the treatment of severe acne in 1982.22 Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic and the FDA issued multiple warnings against the use of the product during pregnancy: in three sections of the package insert (warnings, precautions, and contraindications) and also in a patient information brochure and in information to prescribers.22 Shortly after approval, reports of human malformations emerged in patients taking the drug. As a result, health communication letters were sent to 500,000 prescribers and 60,000 pharmacists reminding them about the warnings on the package insert. The 1982 warning was sufficient to inform users of the dangers from the drug and also provided protection for the manufacturer to avoid liability, at least according to the Florida Supreme Court.31

      a clipboard with a checklist of requirements and red warning symbol on the bottom right

      In 1988, following a meeting of the Dermatologic Advisory Committee, warnings were upgraded and an isotretinoin Pregnancy Prevention Program (PPP) was implemented; this was the first risk management program introduced by a pharmaceutical company.22,31 The program included several elements: a boxed warning; informed consent for female patients; a PPP kit for physicians containing patient information brochures and pregnancy counseling materials for the prescriber; a prescriber tracking survey; and annual and quarterly meetings with FDA.22

      a pharmacist counsels a young patient about a new prescription

      Pharmacy personnel are aware that isotretinoin also has a REMS designation, the iPLEDGE program.32 The iPLEDGE Program was originally implemented in early 2005 and approved as the iPLEDGE REMS in 2010. The goal of the REMS was to inform prescribers, pharmacists, and patients about isotretinoin’s serious risks and safe-use conditions and prevent fetal exposure to the drug. One of the REMS requirements is that prescribers must be enrolled, and the dispensing pharmacist must receive a Risk Management Authorization (RMA) before filling and dispensing prescriptions.32

       

      Isotretinoin has also been associated with an increased risk of neuropsychiatric adverse events including depression, anxiety, and increased suicidality.33 These risks prompted the FDA to issue a BW in 2005, but these observations have been refuted.33

       

      Another example of a drug that carried both a boxed warning and a REMS is the atypical anti-psychotic drug, clozapine. The FDA approved clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia in 1989 and its labeling included a warning due to a risk of producing severe neutropenia.34 The initial requirement called for weekly white blood cell monitoring. The requirement was revised in 2005 to weekly monitoring for the first six months of therapy, biweekly monitoring for months six to 12 months, and monthly monitoring therafter.34 The monitoring protocol formally became a REMS in 2015.35 The REMS was lifted in 2025 as a result of evidence suggesting that the risk is no greater than for other antipsychotics and a decision by FDA to decrease the burden on the healthcare delivery system and improve access to clozapine.35,35

       

      Clozapine and most other second-generation antipsychotic drugs also carry a BW warning of increased risk of death related to psychosis and behavioral problems in elderly patients with dementia.35 (Where have we seen this lately?)

       

      A REMS that generated considerable controversy is the one for the abortion drug mifepristone. The FDA approved mifepristone but concluded that certain restrictions were necessary to ensure its safe use. It received both a BW for rare, but potentially fatal, bleeding episodes, and a REMS.36 The initial REMS in 2011 required prescribers to be certified. They also needed to demonstrate necessary qualifications to assess whether patients are appropriate candidates for the drug and provide intervention in case of complications. It also restricted dispensing to in-person in a clinic, medical office, or hospital visit. (Notably, the so called “in-person dispensing requirement” was temporarily lifted during the COVID-19 public health emergency, permitting telehealth prescribing.) The FDA determined in 2021 that the REMS should be modified to reduce the burden on the healthcare delivery system and improve access to this time-sensitive medication. The modifications removed the in-person requirement and also permitted pharmacies to become certified to dispense the drug. These changes spawned numerous lawsuits by states and healthcare providers on both sides of this highly contentious issue: one side wanting to reinstate the in-person requirement and the other to eliminate the REMS. Some of these suits are still ongoing.37

       

      REMS have also created another controversy. The FDA, the Federal Trade Commission, generic drug manufacturers, and some members of Congress have expressed concern that brand-name manufacturers are using REMS to prevent or delay generic drugs from entering the market. The Director of the CDER, for example, has testified that some brand pharmaceutical companies have used REMS and distribution restrictions to impede competition by withholding or refusing to sell samples of the branded drug to the generic company for purposes of bioequivalence testing and prolonging negotiations related to developing a single, shared system of REMS.22

       

      MEDICATION GUIDES

      Another means of alerting patients to potential risks is the MG.38 An MG is part of the FDA-approved prescription drug labeling for certain prescription drugs when the FDA determines that38

      • Patient labeling could help prevent serious adverse reactions
      • The drug has serious risk(s) relative to benefits of which patients should be made aware because information concerning the risk(s) could affect patients' decision to use, or to continue to use, the product, or
      • Patient adherence to directions for use is crucial to the drug’s effectiveness

       

      The medication’s manufacturer develops MGs, but the FDA must approve them. They are required to be distributed to the patient or the patient’s agent at the time of dispensing in paper form although the patient may request electronic delivery instead.38

       

      The MG contains information on proper use of the drug product, such as contraindications, how to use the drug properly (e.g., adhering to dosing instructions and what to do in case of an overdose), adverse reactions reasonably likely to be caused by the drug product that are serious or occur frequently, activities to be avoided while taking the drug, risk to special populations, or risk of dependence.39

       

      It is important to appreciate that while MGs may be required for drugs with a BW, not every BW triggers an MG.8 Consequently, many high-risk discussions may not take place. BWs are primarily intended as signals to healthcare providers providing guidance on what clinicians prescribe and how pharmacists should dispense and function and less as direct patient alerts.8 Their effectiveness in changing behavior has been questioned.8 Moreover, even the MGs may not achieve their desired result.

       

      A recent study utilizing 449 patients seeking primary care services (18 to 85 years old) analyzed 185 patient Medication Guides.40 The authors found that the guides averaged almost 2000 words with a mean reading level of 10-11th grade. Only one guide was deemed suitable for readability. None provided summaries or reviews. Moreover, comprehension of the guides was poor, especially among patients with low or marginal literacy. The authors concluded that current MGs are of little value to patients, as they are too complex and difficult to understand especially for individuals with limited literacy.40 The SIDEBAR describes “plain language” communication tips that manufacturers should use to simplify such patient communications.

       

       

      SIDEBAR: What is Plain Language?
      The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services designed Plain Language Guidelines to help communicators present information so that readers can find, understand, and use information quickly. The guidelines emphasize clarity, organization, and audience awareness—principles that are especially important in healthcare, where misunderstanding can have serious consequences.

       

      A central tenet of plain language is writing for the intended audience. This means identifying who the readers are, what they already know, and what they need to do with the information. For example, materials written for patients should avoid technical jargon or, when technical terms are necessary, define them clearly. The guidelines encourage writers to anticipate readers’ questions and structure content so that answers are easy to locate.

       

      Organization is another key principle. The DHHS recommends placing the most important information first—often referred to as “front-loading.” Readers should not have to work through dense paragraphs to find critical instructions or key messages. Effective use of headings, subheadings, and logical flow allows readers to scan documents and quickly identify relevant sections. Bulleted or numbered lists are encouraged when presenting steps, recommendations, or multiple items, as they improve readability and reduce cognitive load.

       

      Word choice plays a significant role in plain language. The guidelines advocate for using common, everyday words instead of complex or unfamiliar terminology. For instance, “use” is preferred over “utilize,” and “help” over “facilitate.” Writers should keep sentences relatively short and direct. Active voice—sentence structure that clearly identifies who is responsible for an action—makes instructions more actionable and less ambiguous.

       

      Design and formatting are integral to comprehension. Adequate white space, readable fonts, and consistent formatting make documents more approachable. The guidelines suggest avoiding large blocks of text and instead breaking content into manageable chunks. Visual aids—such as tables, charts, or icons—can enhance understanding when used appropriately, but they should complement, not replace, clear writing.

       

      Another important aspect of the DHHS Plain Language Guidelines is testing and revision. Reviewing materials with real users whenever possible ensures the content is understandable and useful. Feedback can reveal gaps in clarity or assumptions about reader knowledge that may not be true. Revising based on this input is an essential step in producing effective communication.

       

      Ultimately, the DHHS Plain Language Guidelines are not about “dumbing down” content but about making it accessible and usable. In healthcare and public health contexts, this approach supports better decision-making, improves patient outcomes, and promotes equity by ensuring that information is understandable to people with varying levels of literacy and background knowledge.

       

       

      In May 2023, the FDA published a proposed rule about a new type of FDA-approved patient labeling, known as Patient Medication Information (PMI).39 The intent of the PMI is to highlight essential information that patients need to know about the prescription drug product, including basic directions on how to use the product.

       

      PAUSE AND PONDER: What information do you think a PMI should contain to successfully provide adequate warnings to patients?

       

      RECENT DEVELOPMENTS

      As noted above, the inclusion of a BW is not necessarily permanent. An important example is the smoking cessation drug varenicline. The drug was approved in 2006. Shortly after its approval, anecdotal reports from popular press and internet sites, post‐marketing case reports, and reports to the FDA's Adverse Event Reporting System suggested that some patients prescribed varenicline had experienced suicidal thoughts and aggressive and erratic behavior.41 The FDA initiated safety reviews in response to these reports and concluded that the drug was associated with adverse psychiatric events.41 The agency issued a public health advisory in 2008 and mandated a boxed warning in 2009.43 Subsequently, a large clinical trial of patients with and without psychiatric illness found that the drug was not associated with an increased incidence of clinically significant neuropsychiatric adverse events. The FDA removed the boxed warning in 2016.42

       

      FDA has recently lifted the boxed warning on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) drugs, which are commonly used to treat menopause symptoms.44 The warning was mandated in 2003 based a study of more than 16,000 post-menopausal women receiving conjugated equine estrogens plus medroxyprogesterone.3,44 The study found an increased risk of breast and endometrial cancers, stroke, blood clots, heart attacks, and dementia associated with the use of the hormone therapy.3,44 Following the implementation of the label, the use of these treatments among postmenopausal women decreased from 30% to 5% over the next two decades.3

       

      FDA removed the BW in November 2025, citing “fear and misinformation surrounding hormone replacement therapy.”44 The FDA justified the change by noting problems in the initial research, including “the average age of women in the study was 63 years—over a decade past the average age of a woman experiencing menopause—and study participants were given a hormone formulation no longer in common use.”44 Moreover, randomized studies showed that women who initiate HRT within 10 years of the onset of menopause (generally before age 60) have a reduction in all-cause mortality and bone fractures, and may reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and Alzheimer’s disease.45 The FDA’s actions further illustrate the effect that a BW has on prescribing and use and also the dynamic nature of the warnings. Of note, an epidemiologist pointed out that these changes in labeling were not the result of new information but rather a reconsideration and reassessment of the risk-benefit for these drugs.3 However, FDA is not seeking to remove the boxed warning for endometrial cancer for systemic estrogen-alone products.

       

      PAUSE AND PONDER: How would you have handled the situation presented at the beginning of this activity?

      stick figure sitting on a question mark with a hand on it's chin, seems to be thinking

      SUMMARY

      The FDA has a number of tools that can be used to communicate drug risks to healthcare providers and patients. These include boxed warnings, REMS, and MGs. Pharmacy personnel should be aware of these different tools and how they are developed to manage the risk-benefit of drugs. In addition, pharmacy personnel should recognize that the warnings are subject to change and need to remain aware of the evolving judgment on how risks should be managed. They also need to be ready to answer questions from patients receiving these warnings.

       

       

      Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

      Law: Dissemination of Risk Information: What’s in That Black Box?
      26-026 P

      LEARNING OBJECTIVES

      At the conclusion of this activity, participants should be better able to
      1. Characterize the different risk management strategies used by the FDA
      2. Describe how FDA warnings affect healthcare practice
      3. Review how warnings are developed and applied

      1. Who determines whether a drug should have a boxed warning?
      A. FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research
      B. The manufacturer
      C. An FDA advisory committee

      *

      2. What is the basis of the determination that a drug requires a boxed warning?
      A. It is based strictly on clinical data
      B. Serious adverse effects during post-marketing surveillance
      C. It is based on observed or anticipated harm

      *

      3. One of the earliest risk warnings issued by the FDA (prior to official boxed warnings) was for chloramphenicol. How did this differ from what is done today?
      A. The information was only made available to prescribing physicians.
      B. Patients had to sign a written acknowledgement that they received the warning.
      C. Pharmacists had to confirm the prescription in telephone contact with the physician.

      *

      4. What effect does a boxed warning usually have on prescribers?
      A. Prescribers improve their oversight of patients drug based on the warning.
      B. Very little since prescribers tend to ignore the warnings
      C. If aware of the boxed warning, prescribers often prescribe the drug less often.

      *

      5. What is the FDA boxed warning for atypical antipsychotic drugs?
      A. Do not use in combination with traditional antipsychotic drugs
      B. May cause increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia
      C. May cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis

      *

      6. What was the first drug to require a patient package insert?
      A. Isotretinoin
      B. Oral contraceptives
      C. Fluoxetine

      *

      7. What did a study examining patient FDA-approved medication guides find?
      A. Patients appreciate receiving the information.
      B. Prescribers feel they interfere with the physician-patient relationship.
      C. Patients’ comprehension of medication guides was poor.

      *

      8. What did the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act (FDAA) do?
      A. It gave the FDA authority to require Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies.
      B. It granted authority to the FDA to mandate patient package inserts.
      C. It mandated the issuance of a medication guide for all drugs receiving a REMS.

      *

      9. During COVID, the FDA made a controversial change to the REMS for mifepristone. What was the change?
      A. It dropped the need for certification for prescribing.
      B. It dropped the in-person dispensing requirement.
      C. It dropped the requirement that patients sign a patient agreement form.

      *

      10. The FDA recently changed the boxed warning for hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopause symptoms? What was the change?
      A. They removed the boxed warning for endometrial cancer for systemic estrogen-alone products.
      B. They removed the boxed warning for HRT due to reassessment of decades old research.
      C. They expanded the boxed warning for HRT to include younger women.

      Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

      Law: Dissemination of Risk Information: What’s in That Black Box?
      26-026 T

      LEARNING OBJECTIVES

      At the conclusion of this activity, participants should be better able to
      1. Characterize the different risk management strategies used by the FDA
      2. Describe how FDA warnings affect healthcare practice
      3. Review how warnings are developed and applied

      1. Who determines whether a drug should have a boxed warning?
      A. FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research
      B. The manufacturer
      C. An FDA advisory committee

      *

      2. What is the basis of the determination that a drug requires a boxed warning?
      A. It is based strictly on clinical data
      B. Serious adverse effects during post-marketing surveillance
      C. It is based on observed or anticipated harm

      *

      3. One of the earliest risk warnings issued by the FDA (prior to official boxed warnings) was for chloramphenicol. How did this differ from what is done today?
      A. The information was only made available to prescribing physicians.
      B. Patients had to sign a written acknowledgement that they received the warning.
      C. Pharmacists had to confirm the prescription in telephone contact with the physician.

      *

      4. What effect does a boxed warning usually have on prescribers?
      A. Prescribers improve their oversight of patients drug based on the warning.
      B. Very little since prescribers tend to ignore the warnings
      C. If aware of the boxed warning, prescribers often prescribe the drug less often.

      *

      5. What is the FDA boxed warning for atypical antipsychotic drugs?
      A. Do not use in combination with traditional antipsychotic drugs
      B. May cause increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia
      C. May cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis

      *

      6. What was the first drug to require a patient package insert?
      A. Isotretinoin
      B. Oral contraceptives
      C. Fluoxetine

      *

      7. What did a study examining patient FDA-approved medication guides find?
      A. Patients appreciate receiving the information.
      B. Prescribers feel they interfere with the physician-patient relationship.
      C. Patients’ comprehension of medication guides was poor.

      *

      8. What did the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act (FDAA) do?
      A. It gave the FDA authority to require Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies.
      B. It granted authority to the FDA to mandate patient package inserts.
      C. It mandated the issuance of a medication guide for all drugs receiving a REMS.

      *

      9. During COVID, the FDA made a controversial change to the REMS for mifepristone. What was the change?
      A. It dropped the need for certification for prescribing.
      B. It dropped the in-person dispensing requirement.
      C. It dropped the requirement that patients sign a patient agreement form.

      *

      10. The FDA recently changed the boxed warning for hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopause symptoms? What was the change?
      A. They removed the boxed warning for endometrial cancer for systemic estrogen-alone products.
      B. They removed the boxed warning for HRT due to reassessment of decades old research.
      C. They expanded the boxed warning for HRT to include younger women.

      References

      Full List of References

      1. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Guidance for Industry. Warnings and Precautions,
      Contraindications, and Boxed Warning Sections of Labeling for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products — Content and Format. October 2011. Accessed April 9, 2026.
      https://www.fda.gov/media/71866/download
      2. Specific Requirements On Content And Format Of Labeling For Human Prescription Drug And Biological Products Described in § 201.56(b)(1).21 CFR 201.57 Accessed April 9, 2026.
      https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-21/chapter-I/subchapter-C/part-201/subpart-B/section-201.57
      3. Coulson M. What is a Black Box Warning? Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Health. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://publichealth.jhu.edu/2025/what-is-a-black-box-warning
      4. Mullady RG. Everything You Needed and Wanted to Know About Black Boxed Warnings. VLex January 01, 2001. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://law-journals-books.vlex.com/vid/everything-needed-wanted-boxed-warnings-52940328
      5. Smollin CG, Fu J, Levin R. Recognition and Knowledge of Medications with Black Box Warnings Among Pediatricians and Emergency Physicians. J Med Toxicol. 2016;12(2):180-184. doi: 10.1007/s13181-015-0519-3.
      6. Laurent A. The FDA Boxed Warning: Regulatory Strategy & Negotiation. Intuition Labs. Updated January 25, 2026. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://intuitionlabs.ai/articles/fda-boxed-warning-negotiation
      7. U.S. Food and Administration. Prescription Drug Advertising; Content and Format for Labeling of Human Prescription Drugs. Fed Reg. 1979;44(124):37434-37467.
      8. Dinerstein C. The Black Box: The FDA’s Strongest Warning is a Work in Progress. American Council on Science and Health. December 17, 2025. Accessed April 9, 2026.
      https://www.acsh.org/news/2025/12/17/black-box-fdas-strongest-warning-work-progress-49876
      9. Panagiotou OA, Contopoulos-Ioannidis DG, Papanikolaou PN, Ntzani EE, Ioannidis JP. Different black box warning labeling for same-class drugs. J Gen Intern Med. 2011;26(6):603-610. doi: 10.1007/s11606-011-1633-9.
      10. Dorsey ER, Rabbani A, Gallagher SA, Conti RM, Alexander GC. Impact of FDA black box advisory on antipsychotic medication use. Arch Intern Med. 2010;170(1):96-103. doi: 10.1001/archinternmed.
      11. Cheung A, Sacks D, Dewa CS, Pong J, Levitt A. Pediatric prescribing practices and the FDA Black-box warning on antidepressants. J Dev Behav Pediatr. 2008;29(3):213-215. doi: 10.1097/DBP.0b013e31817bd7c9.
      12. Kramer KJ. The Surprising Re-emergence of Droperidol. Anesth Prog. 2020;67(3):125-126. doi: 10.2344/anpr-67-03-14.
      13. Perkins J, Ho JD, Vilke GM, DeMers G. American Academy of Emergency Medicine Position Statement: Safety of Droperidol Use in the Emergency Department. J Emerg Med. 2015;49(1):91-7. doi: 10.1016/j.jemermed.2014.12.024.
      14. Lasser KE, Allen PD, Woolhandler SJ, Himmelstein DU, Wolfe SM, Bor DH. Timing of new black box warnings and withdrawals for prescription medications. JAMA. 2002;287(17):2215-2220. doi: 10.1001/jama.287.17.2215.
      15. Downing NS, Shah ND, Aminawung JA, et al. Postmarket Safety Events Among Novel Therapeutics Approved by the US Food and Drug Administration Between 2001 and 2010. JAMA. 2017;317(18):1854–1863. doi:10.1001/jama.2017.5150
      16. Schick, A. (2017). Evaluation of Pre-marketing Factors to Predict Post-marketing Boxed Warnings and Safety Withdrawals. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2Fs40264-017-0526-1
      17. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Drug Therapeutics & Regulation in the U.S. January 31, 2023. Accessed April 9, 2026.
      https://www.fda.gov/about-fda/fda-history-exhibits/drug-therapeutics-regulation-us
      18. Georgi, Andrew T., "The FDA Black Box Warning System: The Utmost in Drug and Patient Safety?" (2010). Yale Medicine Thesis Digital Library. 200. Accessed April 9, 2026. http://elischolar.library.yale.edu/ymtdl/200
      19. Wagner AK, Chan KA, Dashevsky I, Raebel MA, Andrade SE, Lafata JE, Davis RL, Gurwitz JH, Soumerai SB, Platt R. FDA drug prescribing warnings: is the black box half empty or half full? Pharmacoepidemiol Drug Saf. 2006;15(6):369-86. doi: 10.1002/pds.1193.
      20. Barclay L. Inconsistent Adherence to Black Box Warnings: A Newsmaker Interview with Anita Wagner, PharmD, DPH. Medscape. November 18, 2005. Accessed April 9, 2026.
      https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/517424?form=fpf
      21. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. FDA’s Role in Managing Medication Risks. January 26, 2018. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/risk-evaluation-and-mitigation-strategies-rems/fdas-role-managing-medication-risks
      22. Sheikh HZ. FDA Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS): Description and Effect on Generic Drug Development. Congressional Research Service. March 16, 2018. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.congress.gov/crs-product/R44810#fn19
      23. Patient Package Inserts for Oral Contraceptives. 21 CFR 310.501. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-21/chapter-I/subchapter-D/part-310/subpart-E/section-310.501
      24. Udkow GP, Lasagna L, Weintraub M, et al. The Safety and Efficacy of the Estrogen Patient Package Insert. A Questionnaire Study. JAMA. 1979;242;(6):536-539. doi:10.1001/jama.1979.03300060038025
      25. Rowe HM. Patient Package Insert: The Proper Prescription? Food Drug Law J. 1995;50(1):95-124.
      26. Pharmaceutical Mfrs. Ass'n v. FDA, 484 F. Supp. 1179 (D. Del.), aff d, 634 F.2d 106 (3d Cir. 1980). Accessed April 9, 2026. https://law.justia.com/cases/federal/district-courts/FSupp/484/1179/1431455/
      27. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) About REMS. January 26, 2018. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/risk-evaluation-and-mitigation-strategies-rems/frequently-asked-questions-faqs-about-rems
      28. Thaul S. FDA Amendments Act of 2007 (P.L. 110-85). Congressional Research Service. April 27, 2010. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.congress.gov/crs-product/RL34465
      29. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies. Updated May 20,2025. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/drug-safety-and-availability/risk-evaluation-and-mitigation-strategies-rems
      30. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Roles of Different Participants in REMS. May 7, 2024. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/risk-evaluation-and-mitigation-strategies-rems/roles-different-participants-rems
      31. Black L. Accutane and the Evolution of a Warning. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://journalofethics.ama-assn.org/article/accutane-and-evolution-warning/2006-08
      32. iPledge. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://ipledgeprogram.com/#Main
      33. Gupta N, Gupta M. The Controversies Surrounding Acne and Suicide: Essential Knowledge for Clinicians. Cureus. 2023;15(8):e43867. doi: 10.7759/cureus.43867.
      34. Weintraub D, Schoen I. The FDA Has Ended Required Blood Monitoring for Clozapine Use—Wi35.ll This Impact the Management of Parkinson's Disease Psychosis? Movement Disord. 2025; https://doi.org/10.1002/mds.30295Digital Object Identifier (DOI). Accessed April 9, 2026. https://movementdisorders.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/mds.30295
      35. U.S. Food and Drug Information. Information of Clozapine. February 25, 2025. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/postmarket-drug-safety-information-patients-and-providers/information-clozapine
      36. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Questions and Answers on Mifepristone for Medical Termination of Pregnancy Through Ten Weeks Gestation. February 2, 2026. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/postmarket-drug-safety-information-patients-and-providers/questions-and-answers-mifepristone-medical-termination-pregnancy-through-ten-weeks-gestation
      37. Expanding Medication Abortion Access. Mifepristone Related Litigation As of January 28, 2025. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://emaaproject.org/wp-content/uploads/2025/01/EMAA-__-Mifepristone-Court-Cases-Updated-01.28.25.docx.pdf
      38. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Patient Labeling Resources. August 19, 2024. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/fdas-labeling-resources-human-prescription-drugs/patient-labeling-resources
      39. CFR 21:208. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-21/chapter-I/subchapter-C/part-208
      40. Wolf MS, King J, Wilson EA, et al. Usability of FDA-approved medication guides. J Gen Intern Med. 2012;27(12):1714-1720. doi:10.1007/s11606-012-2068-7
      41. Davies NM, Thomas KH. The Food and Drug Administration and varenicline: should risk communication be improved? Addiction. 2017;112(4):555-558. doi: 10.1111/add.13592.
      42. Desai RJ, Good MM, San-Juan-Rodriguez A, Henriksen A, Cunningham F, Hernandez I, Good CB. Varenicline and Nicotine Replacement Use Associated With US Food and Drug Administration Drug Safety Communications. JAMA Netw Open. 2019 Sep 4;2(9):e1910626. doi: 10.1001/jamanetworkopen.2019.10626.
      43. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) . Drug Safety Information for Heathcare Professionals > Information for Healthcare Professionals: Varenicline (marketed as Chantix) and Bupropion (marketed as Zyban, Wellbutrin, and generics). 2009. Accessed April 9, 2026. http://www.fda.gov/Drugs/DrugSafety/PostmarketDrugSafetyInformationforPatientsandProviders/DrugSafetyInformationforHeathcareProfessionals/ucm169986.htm
      44. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. HHS Advances Women’s Health, Removes Misleading FDA Warnings on Hormone Replacement Therapy. November 10, 2025. Accessed April 9, 2026. https://www.fda.gov/news-events/press-announcements/hhs-advances-womens-health-removes-misleading-fda-warnings-hormone-replacement-therapy
      45. Writing Group for the Women's Health Initiative Investigators. Risks and Benefits of Estrogen Plus Progestin in Healthy Postmenopausal Women: Principal Results From the Women's Health Initiative Randomized Controlled Trial. JAMA. 2002;288(3):321–333. doi:10.1001/jama.288.3.321

      Immunization: Our Best Shot – Tips and Tools to Vaccinate Older Adults – RECORDED WEBINAR

      About this Course

      This course is a recorded (home study version) of the 2024 CE Finale Encore Webinars.

       

      Learning Objectives

      Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

      1.     RECOGNIZE appropriate vaccine recommendations for the older adult population
      2.      IDENTIFY potential barriers to vaccinations
      3.     ANALYZE current methods used to improve vaccination rates
      4.     DISCUSS ways to improve vaccine compliance in your patient population

      Release and Expiration Dates

      Released:  December 13, 2024
      Expires:  December 13, 2027

      Course Fee

      $10 Pharmacist

      ACPE UAN

      0009-0000-24-047-H06-P

      Session Code

      24RW47-FXY23

      Accreditation Hours

      1.0 hours of CE

      Additional Information

       

      How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.  Don't forget to use the session code above, or that was sent to you in your confirmation email NOT the one on the presentation!

      Accreditation Statement

      The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

      Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-047-H06-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

      Grant Funding

      There is no grant funding for this activity.

      Faculty

      Jack Vinciguerra, PharmD
      Express Scripts
      St Louis, MO

      Faculty Disclosure

      In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

      • Dr. Vinciguerra has no financial relationships with ineligible companies.

      Disclaimer

      The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

      Content

      Handouts

      Post Test

      Immunization: Our Best Shot - Tips and Tools to Vaccinate Older Adults

      After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

      • Recognize appropriate vaccine recommendations for the older adult population
      • Identify potential barriers to vaccinations
      • Analyze current methods used to improve vaccination rates
      • Discuss ways to improve vaccine compliance in your patient population

      1. How many vaccines does the CDC strongly recommend for older adults?
      a. Just two: influenza and COVID
      b. Three: influenza, COVID, and RSV
      c. Six-ish!!! (It depends)

      2. New patient, ES, age 60, has recently moved to Connecticut from Ontario, Canada. The patient reports receiving Zostavax 1 month ago. Which of the following recommendations regarding the administration of Shingrix is correct?
      a. Shingrix is contraindicated in those who have received Zostavax.
      b. It is recommended to administer the Shingrix vaccine immediately.
      c. It is recommended to wait at least 8 weeks after receiving Zostavax.

      3. Which of the following situations might act as a barrier to vaccine uptake in older adults?
      a. The nearest pharmacy and healthcare facilities are miles away and not on a bus route.
      b. Other people at the senior center have had COVID, the flu, or shingles recently and been quite ill.
      c. Pharmacy staff asks pleasantly and often if they might be ready to be vaccinated.

      4. Which of the following is an example of a contextual influence as defined by the Vaccine Hesitancy Determinants Matrix?
      a. Personal experience with vaccinations
      b. Communication and media environment
      c. Mode of vaccine administration

      5. Which of these programs is a federal program that uses digital outreach, television, print, and radio to decrease vaccine hesitancy among older adults?
      a. Risk Less, Do More
      b. It’s a Sure Shot
      c. No Shot in the Dark

      6. You’re monitoring vaccine uptake in your community and it is alarmingly low. You decide to use the S-H-A-R-E method of encouraging vaccine uptake. What does the R stand for?
      a. Remind patients that getting a vaccine-preventable disease is costly
      b. Remind patients that vaccines protect them and their loved ones
      c. Remind patients that you have the vaccines they need in stock

      Share the tailored reasons why the recommended vaccine is right for the patient
      Highlight positive experiences with vaccines (anecdotal or in practice) to strengthen confidence
      Address patient questions and concerns about the vaccine
      Remind patients that vaccines protect them and their loved ones
      Explain the potential costs of getting the disease

      VIDEO

      Right Fit, Tight Seal: Building Better Cancer Care -RECORDED WEBINAR

      About this Course

      This course is a recorded (home study version) of the Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium on April 17, 2026 . The theme was "Measure Twice, Cut Once: A Carpentry Approach to Pharmacy."

       

      Learning Objectives

      Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

      • Recognize ways that general education and consultation contribute to better care
      • Identify crucial elements of a patient’s non-clinical care for patients with cancer
      • Demonstrate different ways to help patients at each phase of care

      Release and Expiration Dates

      Released:  April 17, 2026
      Expires:  April 17, 2029

      Course Fee

      $17 Pharmacist

      ACPE UAN

      0009-0000-26-012-H01-P

      Session Code

      26RS12-AQU13

      Accreditation Hours

      1 hour of CE (0.1 CEUs)

      Additional Information

       

      How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit posttest answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button. Use the session code from your confirmation email or from the box above, not from the end of the video!

      Accreditation Statement

      The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

      Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-012-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

      Grant Funding

      There is no grant funding for this activity.

      Faculty

      Thomas M. Levay, PharmD, CSP

      Specialty Clinical Pharmacist II

      Yale New Haven Health

      Hamden, CT

      Faculty Disclosure

      In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

      • Thomas Levay has no relationships with ineligible companies

      Disclaimer

      The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

      CONTENT

      Posttest

      Right Fit, Tight Seal: Building Better Cancer Care

      26-012 P Home study

      Posttest Questions

       

      1. Cancer patients are often met with varying degrees of fear and stigma which can negatively impact their outcomes. Which of the following is the best method to mitigate these concerns?
        1. Affirming that cancer is a medical condition rather than the consequence of poor personal choices
        2. Encouraging patients to hold questions and concerns until you complete all aspects of medication counseling
        3. Requesting that family and friends remain out of these counseling discussions as to not violate HIPPA

       

      1. Patients and healthcare professionals alike often encounter overlapping barriers in their pursuit of obtaining and providing quality care. What are some common barriers?
        1. Treatment complexity, adherence and tolerability, cost and accessibility
        2. Workplace burnout, annual salary, insurance approvals
        3. Image and self-worth, fear and misconception, treatment burden

       

      1. The current lifetime probability of developing any cancer in the United States is one in three people. Which age group is most commonly affected?
        1. Children and adults 0 to 30 years of age
        2. Adults 30 to 49 years of age
        3. Those 50 years of age and older

       

      1. Which of the following barriers to care do both patients and providers share as concerns?
        1. Managing adverse events and assessing their impact on quality of life
        2. Alleviating patient fears with education and defining goals of therapy
        3. Navigating drug-drug interactions with complex treatment regimens

       

      1. A large population of the United States remains uninsured or underinsured. What options are available for these populations to help patients afford treatment?
        1. 340b programs, grants, free drug programs
        2. 340b programs, Mark Cuban Cost Plus Drug, free drug programs
        3. Manufacturer copay cards, discount cards, Medicare payment plan (M3P)

       

      1. A Medicare patient has a high copay for his oncology drugs. He calls Medicare and asks if he can use an American Cancer Society grant, a free drug program, or a Manufacturer Copay Card. Which programs does the Medicare representative say are OK to use?
        1. An American Cancer Society grant, a Free Drug Program
        2. A Free Drug Program, a Manufacturer Copay Card
        3. A Manufacturer Copay Card, an American Cancer Society grant

      VIDEO

      Load-Bearing Walls: Getting Cardiovascular Therapy Right the First Time -RECORDED WEBINAR

      About this Course

      This course is a recorded (home study version) of the Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium on April 17, 2026 . The theme was "Measure Twice, Cut Once: A Carpentry Approach to Pharmacy."

       

      Learning Objectives

      Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

      • Identify high-risk cardiovascular medications that are most commonly associated with preventable adverse drug events amid transitions of care
      • Describe evidence-based principles for precise cardiovascular medication dosing, including clinically relevant pharmacokinetic considerations that influence drug and dose selection
      • Explain the benefits and limitations of clinical decision support tools in cardiovascular pharmacotherapy
      • Recognize common system-level and cognitive factors contributing to cardiovascular medication near misses and adverse effects

      Release and Expiration Dates

      Released:  April 17, 2026
      Expires:  April 17, 2029

      Course Fee

      $10 Pharmacist

      ACPE UAN

      0009-0000-26-009-H01-P

      Session Code

      26RS09-RHA98

      Accreditation Hours

      1 hour of CE (0.1 CEUs)

      Additional Information

       

      How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit posttest answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button. Use the session code from your confirmation email or from the box above, not from the end of the video!

      Accreditation Statement

      The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

      Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-009-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

      Grant Funding

      There is no grant funding for this activity.

      Faculty

      Katelyn Galli, PharmD, BCCP

      Assistant Clinical Professor

      University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences

      Storrs, CT

      Faculty Disclosure

      In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

      • Katelyn Galli has no relationships with ineligible companies

      Disclaimer

      The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

      CONTENT

      Posttest

      1. Which of the following medications would be considered high risk for error during the medication reconciliation process? 

      1. Apixaban
      2. Citalopram
      3. Fexofenadine

      2. Upon daily chart review, you identify that Jack has an AKI and review his medications for necessary adjustments. Which of the following is most appropriate regarding his apixaban?

      1. Continue to hold anticoagulation given increased bleeding risk
      2. Stop apixaban and start rivaroxaban 15mg daily instead
      3. Consider transitioning to heparin via aPTT measurement until AKI resolves

      3. The team decides to start Jack on oral amiodarone 400mg TID x 3 days, 200 mg TID x 3 days, then 200 mg daily. Which of the following is most important for the pharmacist to ensure at discharge?

      1. Ensure the prescription is sent to the patient's home pharmacy for easy refills
      2. Confirm that thyroid function tests are ordered and assessed before starting the amiodarone
      3. Suggest starting sotalol instead for better rate control

      4. Which strategy can optimize clinical decision support for high-risk cardiac medications? 

      1. Prevent ordering of any anticoagulant except apixaban to ensure standardization
      2. Integrate most recent SCr values and dosing recommendations into sotalol orders
      3. Block order entry of amiodarone by prescribers if all baseline labs are not checked

      5. The Epic medical record has the advantage of having access from outside health systems. The VAMC has a secure medical record that cannot be accessed. Jack gets most of his care and his medications at the VA. Which of the following factors increases his risk for experiencing medication errors?

      1. Fragmented medical records
      2. Use of a single pharmacy
      3. Poor insurance coverage

      6. Jack's SCr is stable but remains elevated. Following diuresis, he is found to be cachectic and euvolemic with a “dry" weight of 58 kg. You recommend decreasing his apixaban to 2.5 mg BID but receive pushback from the provider as "this was his home dose." What kind of bias does this reflect?

      1. Anchoring bias
      2. Automation bias
      3. Availability bias

         

         

        VIDEO

        Patient Safety: Blueprints Before Builds: Patient Assessment in Clinical Decision-Making -RECORDED WEBINAR

        About this Course

        This course is a recorded (home study version) of the Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium on April 17, 2026 . The theme was "Measure Twice, Cut Once: A Carpentry Approach to Pharmacy."

         

        Learning Objectives

        Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

        • Explain the Pharmacists' Patient Care Process and strategies to optimize the "Collect" and "Assess" steps to improve assessment and clinical decision-making
        • Identify common pitfalls that affect optimal patient assessment across healthcare settings
        • List strategies to incorporate patient-centered approaches into patient assessment and clinical decision-making

        Release and Expiration Dates

        Released:  April 17, 2026
        Expires:  April 17, 2029

        Course Fee

        $17 Pharmacist

        ACPE UAN

        0009-0000-26-013-H05-P

        Session Code

        26RS13-ELD65

        Accreditation Hours

        1 hour of CE (0.1 CEUs)

        Additional Information

         

        How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit posttest answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button. Use the session code from your confirmation email or from the box above, not from the end of the video!

        Accreditation Statement

        The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

        Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-013-H05-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

        Grant Funding

        There is no grant funding for this activity.

        Faculty

        Devra Dang, PharmD, CDCES, FNAP

        Clinical Professor

        University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences

        Storrs, CT

        Faculty Disclosure

        In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

        • Devra Dang, PharmD has no relationships with ineligible companies

        Disclaimer

        The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

        CONTENT

        Posttest

        Blueprint Before Builds: Patient Assessment in Clinical Decision-Making

        Post-Test Questions for Enduring Recorded Webinar

        26-013

         

        1.Which of the following correctly lists the components of the Pharmacists’ Patient Care Process?

        a. Implement, Follow Up, Collect, Determine

        b. Organize, Manage, Follow Up, Plan

        c. Collect, Assess, Plan, Implement, Follow Up: Monitor and Evaluate

         

        2. Is the medication list an objective or subjective data?

        a. Objective

        b. Subjective

        c. Can be both objective and subjective data

         

        3. What is PQRSTAU?

        a. A mnemonic for questions to ask a patient presenting with a chief concern.

        b. A mnemonic for the elements of social determinants of health.

        c. A mnemonic for items to determine medication appropriateness.

         

        4. What is a potential pitfall in the Assessment step of the Pharmacists’ Patient Care Process?

        a. Taking into account the contributions of social determinants of health in the evaluation of the patient’s health status.

        b. Understanding that the patient’s most important health priority (ie, the patient’s problem #1) may not be the same as that of the healthcare professional.

        c. Not asking the “why” question if a patient has declined a treatment recommendation.

         

        5. What is one strategy that healthcare professionals can utilize to prioritize patient-centered care into the patient assessment and decision-making process?

        a. Ask the patient about their goals for their medical condition(s) and overall health and engage in shared decision-making as part of the treatment plan.

        b. Remind the patient that you as a healthcare professional know best and encourage them to comply with the treatment plan.

        c. Collect data from the patient only to minimize biases from others such as the caregiver or visiting nurse.

         

        6. What are the components of the 4M Framework for Age Friendly Health Systems that can be applied to clinical decision-making when caring for older adults?

        a. What Matters, Medications, Mentation, Mobility

        b. Monitoring, Motivation, Money, Mindset

        c. Medication, Management, Monitoring, Measurement

         

         

        VIDEO

        LAW: The Legal Blueprint: Designing Error-Proof Pharmacy Policies -RECORDED WEBINAR

        About this Course

        This course is a recorded (home study version) of the Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium on April 17, 2026 . The theme was "Measure Twice, Cut Once: A Carpentry Approach to Pharmacy."

         

        Learning Objectives

        Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

        • Describe the roles and responsibilities of each pharmacy staff member
        • Articulate when a pharmacist should seek legal clarification
        • Identify common pharmacy mistakes that may leave pharmacists liable
        • Construct policies and procedures that prevent future pharmacy errors

        Release and Expiration Dates

        Released:  April 17, 2026
        Expires:  April 17, 2029

        Course Fee

        $17 Pharmacist

        ACPE UAN

        0009-0000-26-010-H03-P

        Session Code

        26RS10-GBI49

        Accreditation Hours

        1 hour of CE (0.1 CEUs)

        Additional Information

         

        How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit posttest answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button. Use the session code from your confirmation email or from the box above, not from the end of the video!

        Accreditation Statement

        The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

        Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this knowledge-based activity and will receive up to 1 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-010-H03-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

        Grant Funding

        There is no grant funding for this activity.

        Faculty

        Dylan Decandia PharmD

        Freelance Medical Writer

        Franklyn’s Pharmacy

        Ho-Ho-Kus, NJ

        Faculty Disclosure

        In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

        • Dylan Decandia has no relationships with ineligible companies

        Disclaimer

        The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Sciences or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

        CONTENT

        Posttest

        The Legal Blueprint: Designing Error-Proof Pharmacy Policies

        Pharmacist Post-test

         

        After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

        • RECALL the key governing bodies and their roles
        • RECOGNIZE important details, dates, and timelines for a pharmacy manager
        • DESCRIBE the duties of pharmacy technicians and interns
        • DETERMINE the roles and responsibilities of a pharmacy manager
        • IDENTIFY key pharmacy laws that pharmacy managers should implement in practice

         1. Which government agency creates and enforces regulations for all consumer products, including pharmaceuticals?

        a. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

        b. The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

        c. The Joint Commission (TJC)

         

         2. According to federal law, pharmacies looking to receive Medicare reimbursement must retain prescription records for how many years?

        a. Two

        b. Three

        c. Ten        

         

        3. What state requirements led to local controversy and pharmacy closures in Maine and other rural states?

        a. Pharmacy technician ratios

        b. Hours of operation

        c. Electronic prescribing laws

         

        4. How do interns and technicians differ in their responsibilities?

        a. Interns can perform pharmacist tasks including compounding, dispensing medications, and other services with pharmacist supervision

        b. Interns can receive refill authorizations from practitioners, given the prescription is identical to the previous refill and not a controlled substance

        c. Interns can verify prescriptions filled by other interns or technicians for all medications except controlled substances

         

        5. What technician certification is required in some states, but allows pharmacies in other states to have higher technician:pharmacist ratios?

        a. Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT)

        b. Bachelor of Science

        c. Pharmacy Intern License

         

        6. Which of the following BEST describes the pharmacy manager's responsibilities?

        a. Licensing statuses of other pharmacy personnel.

        b. Maintaining the pharmacy in clean, sanitary order.

        c. Managing everything that occurs in their pharmacy.

         

         7. Which of the following are federal compliance training requirements for staff members to complete annually and/or upon hire?

        a. Pseudoephedrine, Fraud, Waste, & Abuse, and HIPAA

        b. Phenylephrine, Fraud, Waste, & Abuse, and HIPAA

        c. Pseudoephedrine, Fraud, Waste, & Abuse, and pharmaceutical calculations

         

         8. Before prescribing contraceptives to a patient, which of the following must pharmacists complete?

        a. Review OBRA 1990 policies and procedures to ensure they are following the United States Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use.

        b. Complete extra courses for training and screening patients upon request for contraceptives as required by the state.

        c. Nothing. After recent law changes pharmacists are eligible to prescribe any contraceptive upon request of the patient.

         

        9. A shopper, not a registered patient, comes to your pharmacy counter and asks your technician to purchase hypodermic needles. How is your technician taught to proceed?

        a. Any patient can receive hypodermic needles with a prescription. Because the patient is presenting without one, they cannot receive any needles.

        b. Many states limit the sale of over-the-counter needle sales; the technician may sell needles over-the-counter up to that limit.

        c. Your technician can sell hypodermic needles over-the-counter, but it can only be to regular patients that you recognize with special diagnoses. Notify the patient they can receive needles if they have their prescriptions transferred from their regular pharmacy.

         

        10. In terms of pharmacy, what was the original goal of OBRA 1990?

        a. Retrospective DURs could help the federal government make more money and cut financial deficits.

        b. Improving the quality of dispensing for medicaid beneficiaries.

        c. Develop a series of record keeping requirements for pharmacy licensing.

         

         

         

        VIDEO

        LAW: Behind the Counter Crimes: Fraud and Diversion in Pharmacy

        Learning Objectives

        After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists and pharmacy technicians will be able to

        • Define fraud, waste, and abuse in healthcare
        • Explain key federal laws and regulations that govern fraud and diversion
        • Identify medications at increased risk for medication diversion and red flags associated with diversion
        • Apply fraud and diversion prevention and reporting strategies

            A pharmacist is sorting different size pill bottles on the counter, holding three of them close to his chest

             Release Date

            Release Date: April 15, 2026

            Expiration Date: April 15, 2029

            Course Fee

            Pharmacists   $7

            Pharmacy Technicians   $4

            There is no funding for this CE.

            ACPE UANs

            Pharmacist: 0009-0000-26-021-H03-P

            Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-26-021-H03-T

            Session Codes

            Pharmacist: 26YC21-VEX87

            Pharmacy Technician: 26YC21-XVE78

            Accreditation Hours

            2.0 hours of CE

            Accreditation Statements

            The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-021-H03-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

             

            Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

            The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

            Faculty

            Monica Holmberg, PharmD, BCPS

            Recent graduate of the UConn Medical Writing Certificate Program

            Phoenix, AZ

            Faculty Disclosure

            In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

            Monica Holmberg has no relationships with ineligible companies.

             

            ABSTRACT

            Healthcare fraud places an enormous strain on the healthcare system, with loss estimates ranging in the hundreds of billions of dollars. Federal laws and regulations exist to prevent and address fraud in healthcare. Pharmacy team members must understand healthcare regulations to maintain accurate, legal, and ethical practice and to identify and address suspected fraud. Medication diversion poses substantial risk to patients, healthcare workers, and healthcare facilities. It can carry significant financial and legal consequences. Although diversion has traditionally been associated with controlled medications, the incidence of non-controlled diversion has been rising. These medications may be desirable due to their potential for resale, physiological effects, or role in opioid use disorder. Identifying red flags, implementing preventive practices, and reporting suspected diversion appropriately can help to minimize diversion and prevent potential harm.

            CONTENT

            Content

            INTRODUCTION

            Meet Charlie. Charlie is a newly licensed pharmacist who is excited to start his new job at a busy community pharmacy. During his training, a more experienced coworker, Hazel, instructs Charlie to override insurance claim rejections. She shows him the prior authorization override code to submit claims. She tells him, “You don’t actually need to contact the prescriber and have them obtain prior authorization for it to work. It’s just a workaround everyone does.”

             

            The next day, the insurance program rejects a prescription for Reimbursitol because it requires prior authorization. Its cash price is more than $1,000, and Charlie dreads informing the patient. Hazel tells Charlie to enter the override code, even though they have not contacted the provider and the insurer has not approved the prior authorization. The claim goes through, and the pharmacy receives payment for Reimbursitol. Charlie is eager to fit in and lacks experience, and this workaround streamlines his workflow, so he follows this process for several prescriptions over the next few weeks.

             

            Healthcare fraud imposes an enormous burden on the healthcare system. Experts estimate that fraud accounts for 3% to 10% of healthcare expenses annually, resulting in billions of dollars lost each year.1 In 2024, the United States (U.S.) spent $5.3 trillion on healthcare, or about $15,474 per person. A large share of this spending was divided among the following2

            • Medicare: $1.118 billion (21%)
            • Medicaid: $932 billion (18%)
            • Private health insurance: $1.645 billion (31%)
            • Out-of-pocket spending: $557 billion (11%)

             

            Based on these figures, fraud could account for losses of $159 billion to $530 billion in just one year.

             

            Not only does fraud affect healthcare on a national level, but it directly impacts pharmacies. For example, in 2019, an independent pharmacy chain allegedly submitted false claims to Medicare and Medicaid for prescription medications by switching from a lower cost to a higher cost product without a medical need or prescription. Investigators allege that pharmacy staff switched patients from an inexpensive to an expensive medication and billed federal healthcare programs for reimbursement of the high-cost item. This change in therapy inflated the complexity of the product dispensed, which was not medically necessary and resulted in larger reimbursement payments, In some cases, the pharmacy dispensed the expensive item and billed federal payors without a valid prescription. The case resolved in 2022 with the pharmacy paying $2.05 million and implementing training programs regarding fraud and compliance.3,4

             

            The water can sometimes seem muddy when it comes to billing practices and legal regulations. Understanding the laws and regulations that govern healthcare can enable pharmacy team members to identify, report, and prevent fraud and abuse, rather than falling victim to unsavory practices.

             

            FRAUD, ABUSE, AND WASTE: WHAT'S THE DIFFERENCE?

            Although fraud, waste, and abuse are often grouped together, each carries a distinct definition, intent standard, and regulatory implication.

             

            Fraud is an intentional deception or misrepresentation that could result in an unauthorized benefit. It is intentionally wrongful and considered criminal.5,6 An example of fraud is billing for services that were not provided.7

             

            Abuse is provider practices that are inconsistent with accepted practices, resulting in an unnecessary cost to the health care system. There is usually not criminal intent, but it still leads to financial loss by the payor.5,6 An example of abuse is billing for medically unnecessary services.7

             

            Waste is misuse or inappropriate use of resources that results in unnecessary costs to the healthcare system. It is not associated with deceptive intentions.6 An example of waste is ordering excessive or unnecessary tests or services.

             

            See the SIDEBAR for a quick overview of additional law terminology.

             

             

            SIDEBAR: A (Very) Brief Law Terminology Refresher8,9

            Law: A broad term for all rules that govern conduct, such as statutes, ordinances, and regulations. For example, the Controlled Substance Act is a federal law regulating agents with potential for abuse.

             

            Act or statute: Both refer to a specific type of law. An act is a formal, written law passed by a legislative body, such as Congress or state legislature. A statute refers to the written law itself, typically as it is codified in the U.S. Code. For example, the False Claims Act began as a bill in January 1863. When President Lincoln signed it in March 1863, it became law. It is currently published in the official U.S. federal code as 31 U.S.C. §§ 3729–3733.

             

            Ordinance: A local law in place to ensure public safety, health, and general welfare. Ordinances often regulate fire and safety regulations, housing standards, parking regulations, snow removal, littering, public streets and sidewalks, and zoning. Examples of ordinances pertaining to pharmacy include zoning, signage, and operating hours.

             

            Regulation: A rule issued by administrative agencies that have legislative authority over a specific area to enforce rules or statutes. For example, the state board of pharmacy may regulate how many CE hours pharmacists and technicians must complete each year, or for how many years documentation must remain on the pharmacy premises.

             

             

            Table 1 offers a brief side-by-side look at civil versus criminal law.

             

            Table 1. Overview of Criminal Law vs. Civil Law10-12

            Criminal Law Civil Law
            Objective Punish wrongdoing and protect society Settle disputes between individuals or entities
            Initiating party State/federal government (prosecutor) Private party (plaintiff)
            Burden of proof* Very high: beyond a reasonable doubt Lower standard: Preponderance of the evidence (must be proven more than 50% likely that plaintiff’s claims are true)
            Potential penalties Jail/prison, fines Financial compensation
            Examples Theft, assault, arson, murder Breach of contract, personal injury, property disputes
            Pop Culture Example (TV) Law & Order Judge Judy

            *Burden of proof is the responsibility to present enough evidence to win the case and meet the applicable legal standard. It usually lies with the party initiating the case. In other words, the prosecutor or plaintiff must find the defendant guilty rather than the defendant proving their innocence.

             

             

            COMPLIANCE IN ACTION: FEDERAL LAWS AND REGULATIONS

            Several federal laws and regulations are in place to prevent and address fraud. The False Claims Act (FCA), Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS), Physician Self-Referral Law (Stark Law), and HIPAA establish important compliance requirements for healthcare.

             

            False Claims Act (FCA)

            The False Claims Act (FCA; 31 U.S.C. §§ 3729–3733) is a civil federal statute dating back to 1863 in response to contractor fraud during the American Civil War.13 Still in effect today, the FCA allows the federal government to recover losses through civil lawsuits for false or fraudulent claims, seek financial penalties, and pursue criminal charges for that conduct.14

             

            Knowingly submitting false claims or conspiring to submit false claims violates the FCA.13 In the healthcare setting, the FCA applies whenever a federal payor is involved, such as Medicare or Medicaid. Examples of healthcare-related FCA violations include submitting false or fraudulent claims for payment, billing for services not rendered, and upcoding (billing for a more expensive service than was actually obtained by the patient).15

             

            Civil liability under the FCA does not require a specific intent to defraud. In its definition, the FCA uses the term “knowingly” to include individuals who knew the claim was false, deliberately ignored that it was false, or ignored signs that it was false. Violations carrying civil liability consist of recklessness or deliberate ignorance and do not require intent. In other words, an individual who “looks the other way” or “should have known” may be violating the FCA.16

             

            Civil penalties under the FCA are up to three times the government’s loss plus inflation-related fines ($11,000 for Medicare or Medicaid fraud) per claim. Because each item or service billed counts as a claim, losses and fines can accumulate quickly.16 The FCA includes a whistleblower provision (“qui tam”), which allows private citizens to submit a claim on the government's behalf for a share of recoveries, usually between 15% to 30%.3 Whistleblowers can be business partners (current or former), hospital or office staff, patients, or competitors.13,16

             

            In addition to seeking civil penalties under the FCA, the government may also bring criminal charges where appropriate. More severe cases—those with intentional fraud—may face criminal prosecution. Criminal penalties include imprisonment and criminal fines.16

             

            Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS)

            The Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS; 42 U.S.C. § 1320a-7b(b)) ensures that healthcare providers make clinical decisions objectively and appropriately based on patient need, not financial incentive. This federal criminal law prohibits knowingly and willfully offering, paying, soliciting, or receiving remuneration to entice or reward referrals. It also prohibits creating federal healthcare business involving items or services that are reimbursable by programs like Medicare, Medicaid, or other federal health programs. Remuneration is considered anything of value, and in this instance, it covers a wide range. Examples include–but are not limited to–free rent, hotel stays, meals, bribes, rebates, and excessive compensation.16

             

            The AKS applies to both the party offering the kickback and the party receiving it. This means that it is illegal to accept payment for referring patients, and it is illegal to pay to have patients referred.16

             

            AKS violations carry both criminal and civil penalties that can be extensive and overlapping. Violations of the AKS are classified as felony crimes under federal law and can result in jail time.16 Criminal penalties can include fines up to $25,000 per violation and/or up to a 5-year prison term. Civil penalties fall under the Civil Monetary Penalties Law and carry penalties of up to $50,000 per kickback plus up to three times the remuneration value.

             

            Furthermore, AKS violations may also create liability under the FCA and incur the penalties associated with FCA violations. In addition to the criminal and civil penalties, AKS violations can result in ineligibility to participate in federal health care programs.14,16

             

            Physician Self-Referral Law (Stark Law)

            The Physician Self-Referral Law (42 U.S.C. § 1395nn), often called the Stark Law, is a civil law that prohibits physicians from referring Medicare or Medicaid patients for designated health services (DHS) to parties with which the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship, unless an exception applies. Simply put, physicians should not profit by referring patients to services in which they have a financial stake.16 See Table 2 for a list of DHS.

             

            Table 2. Stark Law Designated Health Services (DHS)17

            1. Clinical laboratory services
            2. Physical therapy
            3. Occupational therapy
            4. Outpatient speech-language pathology
            5. Radiology and certain other imaging
            6. Radiation therapy
            7. Durable medical equipment and supplies
            8. Parenteral and enteral nutrients, equipment, and supplies
            9. Prosthetics, orthotics, and prosthetic devices and supplies
            10. Home health services
            11. Outpatient prescription drugs
            12. Inpatient and outpatient hospital services

             

            The Stark Law is a strict liability statute, meaning that a violation can exist even without specific intent to break the law. Any violation—even an accidental one—is a violation of the Stark Law.16

             

            Civil penalties include fines and ineligibility to participate in federal healthcare programs.16 Although the Stark Law addresses physician referrals, pharmacists and technicians may be indirectly affected. For example, if a physical refers Medicare or Medicaid patients to a pharmacy which he or she has a financial interest, it may violate the Stark Law, unless an exception applies. A complete list of regulatory exceptions to the Stark Law is beyond the scope of this activity; however, exceptions that may apply to a pharmacy setting include the in-office ancillary services exception, bona fide employment relationships, and fair market value compensation arrangements.18,19 Pharmacy team members can contact their legal or compliance departments if concern exists regarding Stark Law and/or its exceptions.

             

            Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

            While HIPAA is often perceived as primarily protecting patient privacy, it includes fraud provisions. It is a crime to knowingly use, obtain, or disclose protected health information (PHI). Criminal penalties for HIPAA violations, addressed under 42 U.S.C. § 1320d–6, can be substantial and vary depending on the nature and extent of the violation. A basic violation can result in fines up to $50,000 and/or up to 1 year in prison. When committed under false pretenses, the fines increase to no more than $100,000 and/or up to 5 years in prison. The intent to sell, transfer, or use PHI for personal gain increases the fines even further to a maximum of $250,000 and/or 10 years in prison.20,21

             

            Understanding the functions of key regulatory bodies can illustrate the many moving parts involved in governing healthcare. The SIDEBAR summarizes these organizations briefly.

             

            SIDEBAR: Regulatory and Enforcement Agencies 7,22-27

            The U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ) is the federal agency responsible for ensuring justice. It enforces federal laws, prosecutes cases, oversees federal law enforcement agencies such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) and Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA), and manages prisons. The DOJ is headed by the Attorney General.

             

            The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) reports to the DOJ. It enforces federal criminal law and conducts investigations, and can investigate corruption, fraud, and organized crime.

             

            The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) enforces controlled substance laws and regulations, including the manufacture and distribution of controlled prescription drugs.

             

            The Office of the Inspector General (OIG) is a federal agency that aims to counteract fraud, abuse, and waste while maximizing efficiency and accountability in the Department of Health and Human Services programs. The OIG can audit, investigate, and inspect federal programs, especially Medicare and Medicaid programs, which comprise a large portion of the federal budget.

             

            The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. CMS oversees and regulates federal healthcare programs such as Medicare, Medicaid, and State Children’s Health Insurance Program (SCHIP). CMS collaborates with individuals, groups, and law enforcement organizations to prevent and determine fraud and abuse.

             

            State boards regulate healthcare professions by overseeing licensing and renewals, enforcing professional standards, and inspecting facilities. They may also take disciplinary action when standards are not met. There are many state healthcare boards, but only the following disciplines have prescribing authority or direct access to medications: pharmacy, nursing, medical, osteopathic, dentistry, optometry, podiatry, and veterinary.

             

            From Laws to Practice: Examples of Pharmacy Fraud and Abuse 

            Remember Charlie? A month into his new job, he takes this CE program, reviews the earlier claims, and realizes that he entered override codes even though prior approval was never obtained. Charlie becomes worried that he might have followed bad advice.

             

            PAUSE AND PONDER: Did Charlie knowingly commit fraud, or did he make a mistake after receiving misleading guidance? What responsibilities does Charlie have to correct past claims or disclose potential issues?

             

            Fraud in healthcare can be committed by an individual, group, or organization.7 In the pharmacy setting, fraudulent activity often involves improper billing or reimbursement practices.

             

            Pharmacy Billing and Reimbursement Fraud

            Several types of billing fraud can occur in the pharmacy, such as billing for prescriptions that were never dispensed (“phantom claims”), dispensing a different quantity than prescribed without documentation, or refilling prescriptions without authorization. Additional fraudulent billing practices include billing for a brand-name drug while dispensing a generic (or billing for a more expensive generic than what was dispensed), adding medications to prescriptions without dispensing them, and submitting claims without an invoice to document purchase.28

             

            What does this look like in pharmacy practice? Here are two real-life examples involving mismatched quantities coming in versus quantities going out: A pharmacy did not have documentation supporting the medication quantities billed to Medicaid as compared to the quantities purchased from vendors over four years. The case settled for $1,333,660. Another pharmacy had similar documentation gaps; the case settled for $42,521.28

             

            See the SIDEBAR for more real-world examples of fraudulent healthcare schemes and consequences.

             

            SIDEBAR: From the Headlines: Health Care Fraud Cases Involving Pharmacists29-36

            Between 2017 and 2022, a pharmacist submitted fraudulent claims to Medicare for medications that were never dispensed in violation of the FCA. He created fake patient profiles and fraudulent prescription entries, resulting in more than $1 million in Medicare payments to the pharmacy. In 2023, the pharmacist plead guilty to one count of healthcare fraud and was sentenced to 2 years in federal prison (after facing a maximum of 10 years). He was also ordered to pay $1.138 million in fines and restitution, and the state board of pharmacy ordered that he surrender his license.

             

            From June 2014 to June 2020, a pharmacist defrauded Medicare and Kentucky Medicaid by billing for prescriptions that patients never received in violation of the FCA. The pharmacist also submitted inflated reimbursement claims by billing for expensive diabetic test strips while dispensing a less expensive item. The pharmacy collected $627,614 from the healthcare payors for the fraudulent prescriptions and $102,441 for the fraudulent test strip claims. She was sentenced to 20 months in prison with 2 years’ probation after release. She was also ordered to pay $730,056 in restitution, and she surrendered her license.

             

            A pharmacist who owned a pharmacy and served as the pharmacist-in-charge coordinated a healthcare fraud scheme with two co-schemers, resulting in more than $300 million in fraudulent Medi-Cal (California’s version of Medicaid) claims. In early 2022, Medi-Cal suspended its prior authorization requirements while transitioning to a new payment system. From May 2022 to March 2023, the pharmacy billed Medi-Cal $306,521,392 for high-reimbursement, non-contracted generic drugs that normally would have required prior authorization and received approximately $204,032,151 in payments. Investigators allege that these medications were not medically indicated, often weren’t dispensed, and involved kickbacks to the two co-schemers. The co-schemers allegedly received more than $36 million in kickbacks, which the pharmacist referred to as “consulting services.” One co-schemer was a nurse practitioner who received kickbacks for writing the fraudulent prescriptions without evaluating patients, medical records, or medical necessity. The state charged her with two counts of healthcare fraud. The other co-schemer was involved in laundering money from the fraudulent payments and has been charged with one count of healthcare fraud. In August 2024, the pharmacist pleaded guilty to two counts of healthcare fraud. At the time of this writing, he is awaiting sentencing and facing a maximum of 10 years in jail for each count of healthcare fraud. This conduct not only violated the FCA by submitting claims for services not performed but also violated the AKS.

             

            Medical Provider Healthcare Fraud

            Healthcare providers may also commit fraud. Examples can include double billing (submitting multiple claims for the same service), phantom billing (billing for a service, visit, or supplies that was never received), unbundling (billing components of a service separately), or upcoding.22

             

            Patient or Individual Fraud

            Although not the focus of this activity, pharmacy staff should be aware of fraudulent schemes involving patients or individuals. Examples include forged or altered prescriptions, doctor shopping (seeing multiple providers to obtain prescriptions for controlled substances), diversion (selling one’s prescription medication), health care provider impersonation (billing for services or supplies without a license to do so), and benefit card abuse (using someone else’s health care card or allowing someone else to use it).22 Awareness of these patterns may help pharmacy staff recognize fraudulent activities.

             

            Speak Up! Don’t Look Away: Addressing Fraud and Abuse

            Prompt reporting of suspected fraud is critical to maintain compliance with laws and regulations, and to maintain the financial viability of the healthcare system. There are several ways to report suspected fraud or abuse.7

             

            In some cases, self-reporting may result in less severe penalties.28 If one realizes the billing process was questionable, the very first step is to stop submitting problematic claims. Next, individuals should consider obtaining legal counsel specializing in healthcare fraud to evaluate legal practices or risks. Individuals should determine how much money was collected in error and return overpayments. If an investment or suspicious relationship is involved, end it! If appropriate, individuals should consider self-disclosure to CMS or OIG.7

             

            So, what does Charlie do? He reports his concern to the pharmacy manager, who audits the claims and corrects the errors. Charlie and the pharmacy team receive additional training to prevent future mistakes. Hazel’s intent and the extent of her use of override codes—and those she influenced—were evaluated during the internal audit. No legal action is taken because the issue was caught early, reported internally, and corrected. Additionally, there was not intent to defraud—it appears to be negligent error.

             

            The pharmacy manager uses the incident as a choose-your-own misadventure learning example. She discusses the following potential outcomes with Charlie:

            • If Charlie had continued billing incorrectly even though he knew or suspected it was wrong, he could have been subject to consequences including criminal charges, civil charges, or license suspension/revocation.
            • If the manager ignored Charlie’s concerns, the pharmacy and/or manager could have faced a federal investigation and penalties. Charlie could have been protected by whistleblower protection laws if he chose to file a file a qui tam case.
            • If the miscoding practices were discovered during a third-party audit, consequences could have included civil penalties and a criminal investigation (to determine intent) for the individuals involved and the pharmacy.
            • If Charlie had recognized and reported the miscoding right away, it would have triggered an internal investigation with possible disciplinary action for Hazel. It also would have eliminated Charlie’s liability.

             

            Contact Information: How to Report Suspected Fraud or Abuse

            If a beneficiary (patient) wants to report:

            CMS Hotline: 1-800-MEDICARE (1-800-633-4227)

            OIG Hotline: 1-800-HHS-TIPS (1-800-447-8477)

            https://oig.hhs.gov/fraud/report-fraud/index.asp

            U.S. Department of Health and Human Services

            Office of Inspector General

            ATTN: OIG Hotline Operations

            PO Box 23489

            Washington, DC 20026

            Complaints specific to Medicare Part C or Part D: 1-877-7SafeRx (1-877-772-3379)

             

            If a Medicare or Medicaid provider wants to report:

            OIG Hotline: 1-800-HHS-TIPS (1-800-447-8477)

            https://oig.hhs.gov/fraud/report-fraud/index.asp

            U.S. Department of Health and Human Services

            Office of Inspector General

            ATTN: OIG Hotline Operations

            PO Box 23489

            Washington, DC 20026

            Contact MAC (Medicare Administrative Claiming) (https://www.cms.gov/mac-info) or Medicaid State Agency

            MAC can also address billing procedures, errors, or questionable practices

             

            The OIG hotline is anonymous; however, providing contact information is preferred so that follow up can occur.7

             

            DIVERSION AWARENESS FOR PHARMACY STAFF

            Diversion is the unauthorized acquisition, use, or distribution of drugs.38  It can occur with medications that fall under the Controlled Substance Act, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and/or stimulants, and non-controlled medications.39 Diversion can happen at any point in the supply chain and by either healthcare workers or patients.40 This activity will focus on diversion by healthcare workers.

             

            Diversion of Controlled Substances

            Addiction often drives controlled substance diversion in healthcare environments, with opioids identified as the most frequently diverted medications.38 Table 3 lists commonly diverted controlled substances. Diversion of controlled substances can cause significant harm to the patient, healthcare worker, and healthcare facility.

             

            Table 3. Commonly Diverted Controlled Substances38,40

            Drug class Examples
            Opioids codeine, fentanyl, hydromorphone, meperidine, morphine, oxycodone, methadone, hydrocodone combinations
            Benzodiazepines alprazolam, clonazepam, lorazepam
            Stimulants amphetamines, methylphenidate

             

            Diversion of controlled medications by a healthcare worker can result in patient harm in several ways. Consider a hypothetical situation in which a healthcare worker tampers with a vial of an injectable controlled substance. The worker removes half of the contents for her own use and replaces the remainder with another clear liquid, which may or may not be sterile, using a technique that is definitely not sterile. Patient harm can result due to41-43

            • An inadequate control of pain or anxiety from a subtherapeutic dose.
            • Risk of infection if the product administered is contaminated due to the addition of a nonsterile diluent or needle sharing. For example, two outbreaks occurred in 2018 due to contamination:
              • An emergency department nurse in Washington diverted a medication and it resulted in 12 cases of hepatitis C
              • A cancer center nurse diverted medication in New York leading to 6 cases of Sphingomonas paucimobilis bacteremia.
            • Risk of allergy or intolerance if the patient receives a drug other than the one prescribed due to diversion of the prescribed agent.
            • Potential for adverse outcomes, such as errors and complications, if a patient receives direct care from a healthcare worker who is actively and acutely impaired, as this impairment will significantly compromise clinical judgement.

             

            Diversion also poses personal and professional harm to the healthcare worker, including the risk of overdose. Diversion and administration of injectable agents present the potential for infection due to unsterile or unsanitary self-injection techniques or contamination, along with transmission of bloodborne illnesses. Professional risks include felony prosecution, civil charges, and license suspension or revocation. The worker is also liable for fraudulent documentation in the medical record and fraudulent billing if the patient or insurance provider was billed for a medication that the patient did not receive.42

             

            Additionally, the risks associated with the diversion of controlled substances extend to the employer or healthcare organization. Regulatory and legal consequences include the ramifications of fraudulent billing, liability for damages, and diminished community confidence in the healthcare system.41

             

            Behavioral patterns of healthcare workers may be associated with potential medication diversion. Red flags include38,44

            • Unexpected absences or late arrivals
            • Disappearance from the worksite (frequent extended bathroom breaks or excessive time in the medication storeroom)
            • Extra time at work (appearance on scheduled days off, seeking overtime, early arrivals, staying late)
            • Consistently removing controlled substances towards the end of a shift
            • Erratic productivity
            • Errors with insufficient explanation
            • Poor relationships with colleagues, including isolation or avoidance
            • Insistence upon personal administration of injected medications to patients
            • Trends with waste: too much or too little, delaying waste documentation procedures until the end of shift, or documenting waste with a variety of healthcare colleagues
            • Trends with work areas: offering to work in non-assigned areas, preferring patients with controlled medications, or prioritizing work alongside new employees or orientees
            • Creating false orders or “prefill” orders

               

              Diversion of Non-Controlled Substances

              Let’s check in on Charlie. A few weeks go by, and Charlie is settling into his job. He has become more comfortable with the skills and responsibilities required in his position and is adapting to the workplace culture. He notices that Hazel likes to do things her way and on her own. When Charlie tries to unpack the refrigerated delivery one morning, she takes over, telling him “I always do this. It’s too hot to leave the refrigerated items out, and I’m the fastest at putting them away.” He also notices that she’s frequently on the closing shift. When he offers to stay late so she can go home on time, Hazel says “I’ve got it. My roommate borrowed my car and is picking me up late anyway, so I might as well be the one who stays.”

               

              Recently, Charlie has had trouble filling prescriptions for a popular injectable GLP-1 receptor agonist medication. It seems that the pharmacy can’t keep it in stock, even though the ordering system shows several recent deliveries. Hazel often tells patients the medication is on backorder.

               

              When reviewing two GLP-1 receptor agonist prescriptions marked as “returned to stock,” Charlie can’t find the product in the refrigerator. Hazel says they were restocked earlier, adding that she will adjust the inventory herself. Charlie also notices documentation that two additional boxes were “damaged due to temperature excursion,” but he doesn’t remember a recent refrigerator breakdown.

               

              PAUSE AND PONDER: Does Hazel’s behavior demonstrate red flags? Why are discrepancies with non-controlled, high-cost medications concerning?

               

              The incidence of non-controlled diversion has been rising. Because non-controlled medications may not be as tightly regulated as controlled medications, they may be easier to acquire through illegal means. Individuals may divert non-controlled medications, especially high-cost products, for their own use, resale, or to supply friends or family members who can’t afford the cost.39

               

              High-cost medications that are commonly diverted include antiretrovirals and oncology medications. Other agents often diverted are performance-enhancing agents (such as erythropoietin) and psychoactive medications (such as cyclobenzaprine, quetiapine, and trazodone).39 The sedative and anxiolytic effects of atypical antipsychotics have increased their desirability for misuse or diversion. These medications can be used alone for insomnia or anxiety or in combination with other illicit substances for either calming or enhancing effects.45

               

              Another potential area for diversion involves medications used in the management of opioid use disorder, including diphenhydramine (for histamine-induced pruritus), ondansetron (for withdrawal-related nausea and vomiting), and naloxone (for overdose reversal).39

               

              Picking up the Pieces: Prevention and Reporting

              In a perfect world, medications would make their way to patients without illegal interception by an intermediary. But this world—the real world—isn’t a perfect one, and diversion happens. How should the pharmacy team handle it?

               

              At the end of the month, Charlie is reviewing a routine inventory variance report for high-cost medications. When he completes a physical count of the items in stock, Charlie finds that the pharmacy is short four boxes of the GLP-1 receptor agonist medication. The system shows two prescriptions that were billed and later reversed to “never picked up,” and two boxes that were documented as “temperature excursion — product damaged.” However, the refrigerator logs do not show temperature fluctuations for that time.

               

              PAUSE AND PONDER: How should Charlie address this discrepancy?

               

              The strongest defense is a good offense. Some strategies for preventing and detecting diversion include38

              • Establishing a diversion program. This is a big task, and it can be challenging to find the time, energy, and resources when it is simply tacked on as an additional responsibility to an existing job description. Ideally, a position (or positions) would be dedicated solely to this role.
              • Establishing to whom the program reports internally—compliance, risk management, legal, pharmacy, nursing, and so on. This will vary depending on the size and structure of the organization.
              • If appropriate, including members across all disciplines in the organization, such as pharmacy, nursing, anesthesiology, medical directors, security, risk management, compliance, legal, human resources, occupational health, and employee assistance programs. Organizations can consider creating a subset Response Team for initial investigations.
              • Having policies for diversion monitoring, investigation, and events.
              • Conducting audits to identify and investigate discrepancies sooner rather than later. Early action may minimize risk to patients, employees, and the organization.

               

              Monitoring for diversion of non-controlled medications may require a more nuanced strategy. Because these medications aren’t regulated as stringently as their controlled counterparts, they may be more easily diverted. The above recommendations apply for assessing non-controlled diversion, along with a few additional points39

              • Identify non-controlled medications at risk for diversion and consider storing them like controls—locked and routinely inventoried.
              • Monitor inventory, especially noting excessive restocking and unexpected unavailability.
              • If appropriate and/or feasible, utilize diversion analytics software programs to identify access, dispensing, and behavior patterns.
              • For facilities with automated dispensing cabinets, review reports for overrides (who and what), canceled transactions, inventories, and discrepancies. Investigate any outliers.
              • Establish a confidential reporting system for employees.
              • Investigate and respond to all suspicious findings.
              • Educate employees about commonly diverted non-controlled medications and the steps provided by the facility to prevent, identify, and report suspected diversion.
              • Use staff feedback and facility data to evaluate and adjust the process as needed.

               

              Charlie brings the discrepancy to the pharmacy manager, who begins an official internal audit. The audit shows that the claim reversals and inventory adjustments for the missing GLP-1 receptor agonist medications were completed with Hazel’s credentials. Security footage from two closing shifts shows Hazel placing small, boxed items from the refrigerator into her personal bag after other staff had left during times that correspond with the claim reversal.

               

              PAUSE AND PONDER: How does reporting differ for controlled versus non-controlled discrepancies? What consequences could one expect for Hazel’s actions?

               

              Controlled diversion requires reporting at local, state, and federal levels. Local law enforcement should be contacted, and the appropriate state licensing boards should be notified.38,40,46 The state health department should be notified if patient risk occurs, such as tampering or product contamination.43 If the diversion occurred after the prescription was filled and dispensed, it should be reported to the state Medicaid agency–even if it was filled using private insurance or cash. Incidents with diversion are often linked to other acts of fraud, waste, or abuse involving Medicaid, and reporting each occurrence may help to identify other activities.40

               

              Under federal regulations, DEA registrants (such as pharmacies) must notify the appropriate DEA field division office within one business day after discovery of significant loss of a controlled substance, and DEA Form 106 must be filed within 45 days.47 Additionally, the FDA Office of Criminal Investigations (FDA-OCI) holds federal jurisdiction and can assist facilities when drug tampering of a controlled substance is involved.38

               

              Although controlled diversion carries stricter federal regulations, noncontrolled diversion is unethical, unprofessional, and can lead to significant legal and financial consequences, including license suspension. Incidents of non-controlled diversion usually are addressed by an internal investigation and documentation, state board notification, and local law enforcement notification.46 Staff should correct insurance claims if applicable. Notification to the DEA is not required for non-controlled diversion.

               

              How is the loss addressed at Charlie’s pharmacy? The pharmacy manager places Hazel on administrative leave and begins an investigation. Law enforcement is contacted regarding suspected internal theft of prescription medications. The compliance and legal departments are notified, the loss is documented, and the affected insurance claims are reviewed.

               

              CONCLUSION

              Where does this leave Charlie?

               

              The next Saturday night, Charlie closes the pharmacy and meets with his new friend, Harry, who also works at the pharmacy.

               

              “Well, this has been…” Charlie pauses to find the right words.

               

              “Interesting,” volunteers Harry.

               

              The two colleagues reflect on the past several weeks. They agree that they have both learned a lot in a short amount of time. They now understand the importance of accurate billing practices and prompt reporting of miscoding errors, and they appreciate that management implemented training to prevent future errors. They are also aware of medications with potential for diversion, along with behavioral red flags that may suggest suspicious activity. Charlie has even volunteered to spearhead a diversion program that encompasses both controlled and non-controlled products, including inventory assessment and staff education.

               

              Together, they can look forward to stronger pharmacy practices related to billing accuracy, diversion prevention, and regulatory compliance.

              Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

              Behind the Counter Crimes: Fraud and Diversion in Pharmacy
              26-021 Pharmacist Post-test

              After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
              • Define fraud, waste, and abuse in healthcare
              • Explain key federal laws and regulations that govern fraud and diversion
              • Identify medications at increased risk for medication diversion and red flags associated with diversion
              • Apply fraud and diversion prevention and reporting strategies

              1. Which of the following is an example of healthcare fraud?
              A. Billing for services not provided
              B. Billing for medically unnecessary services
              C. Ordering excessive or unnecessary services

              *

              2. What is the purpose of the FCA?
              A. To ensure that healthcare providers make clinical decisions objectively based on patient need rather than financial incentive
              B. To prohibit physicians from referring federally insured patients for designated health services with which the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship
              C. To allow the federal government to recover losses and penalize fraud for false claims

              *

              3. To whom does the Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS) apply?
              A. Only the party offering the kickback
              B. Only the party accepting the kickback
              C. The parties offering and accepting the kickback

              *

              4. What is “phantom billing”?
              A. Submitting multiple claims for the same service
              B. Billing for a service, visit, or supplies patients never received
              C. Billing components of a service separately

              *

              5. Which class of controlled medications is most frequently diverted?
              A. Opioids
              B. Benzodiazepines
              C. Stimulants

              *

              6. Which of the following is a behavioral red flag for diversion by a healthcare worker?
              A. Consistent productivity when present (but frequent absences)
              B. Extra, unnecessary time at work (i.e., arriving early or staying late)
              C. Strong team relationships with co-workers

              *

              7. Jordan is initiating a diversion control program for both controlled and non-controlled medications. What are strategies he should include?
              A. Keep the program secret so he can catch potential diverters without warning.
              B. Leave existing storage and inventory procedures unchanged for non-controlled medications.
              C. Develop policies, conduct audits, monitor inventory and investigate any outliers.

              *

              8. To maximize pharmacist productivity while generating extra income, a busy community pharmacy’s management team instructs its staff skip patient counseling but to bill insurance for Medication Therapy Management sessions. Which of the following is TRUE?
              A. The pharmacy is engaging in fraudulent billing because it is submitting claims for services not provided.
              B. The pharmacy is not engaging in fraudulent billing because staff is following the directions issued by the management team.
              C. The pharmacy is not engaging in fraudulent billing because none of the staff are personally benefitting from financial gain from the billing practices.

              *

              9. Continuing from the case in question 8: A staff pharmacist grows concerned that these billing practices may be illegal. What should she do next?
              A. Stop billing suspicious claims, obtain counsel, report to CMS or OIG, consider initiating a whistleblower case
              B. Continue billing suspicious claims, document that she is following instructions from management
              C. Continue billing suspicious claims, ask management for a “raise” since she is generating extra income for the business

              *

              10. Trixie is a pharmacist in a busy community pharmacy. On September 1, she completes a routine inventory the controlled substances and discovers a discrepancy of 30 tablets of oxycodone. This is considered a significant loss. By what day must the pharmacy file DEA Form 106?
              A. September 2
              B. September 8
              C. October 15

              Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

              Behind the Counter Crimes: Fraud and Diversion in Pharmacy
              26-021 Pharmacy Technician Post-test

              After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to
              • Define fraud, waste, and abuse in healthcare
              • Explain key federal laws and regulations that govern fraud and diversion
              • Identify medications at increased risk for medication diversion and red flags associated with diversion
              • Apply fraud and diversion prevention and reporting strategies

              1. Which of the following is an example of healthcare waste?
              A. Billing for services not provided
              B. Billing for medically unnecessary services
              C. Ordering excessive or unnecessary services

              *

              2. In which document would you find the whistleblower provision (“qui tam”), which allows private citizens to bring a claim on the government's behalf for a share of recoveries?
              A. The Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS)
              B. The False Claims Act (FCA)
              C. Stark Law

              *

              3. What does the Anti-Kickback Statute do?
              A. Ensures that healthcare providers make clinical decisions objectively based on patient need, rather than financial incentive
              B. Prohibits physicians from referring federally insured patients for designated health services which the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship
              C. Allows the federal government to recover losses and penalize fraud for false claims

              *

              4. What is “double billing”?
              A. Submitting multiple claims for the same service
              B. Billing for a service, visit, or supplies that was never received
              C. Billing components of a service separately

              *

              5. Which of the following is a controlled medication that is frequently diverted?
              A. Oxycodone
              B. Naproxen
              C. Quetiapine

              *

              6. Which of the following is a behavioral red flag for medication diversion by a healthcare worker?
              A. Reliable attendance at work
              B. Errors with insufficient explanation
              C. Consistent productivity

              *

              7. Tina is a pharmacy technician at a busy community pharmacy. Lately the pharmacy has been dispensing expensive brand-name prescriptions, even when inexpensive generic equivalents are available. There is no documented medical need requiring the brand item. The pharmacy bills Medicare for the more expensive brand medication and receives a significantly higher reimbursement than it would for the generic. Which of the following best describes this billing practice?
              A. The pharmacy is engaging in fraudulent billing practices because the pharmacy is intentionally billing for a more expensive product that is not medically necessary.
              B. The pharmacy is not engaging in fraudulent billing practices because none of the staff are receiving kickbacks for this practice.
              C. The pharmacy is not engaging in fraudulent billing practices because the brand and generic are interchangeable products.

              *

              8. Continuing from question 7: When Tina asks her supervisor about this, she is told that Medicare reimburses more for brand items, so the pharmacy profits more by this billing practice. Tina suspects this isn’t legal. What should she do?
              A. Nothing. This is a management decision; she is just following directions.
              B. Quietly ask other coworkers if they think this practice is legal.
              C. Report the suspicious activity to her supervisor’s supervisor, CMS or OIG.

              *

              9. Tootsie is a pharmacy technician whose primary responsibility is inventory management. She cannot account for more than $37,000 in stock over the last four months. She lists the product for which more than 10% of inventory has disappeared and notifies her supervisor that several high-cost medications may be being diverted. Which of the following is the BEST strategy for this pharmacy team to use to prevent medication diversion?
              A. Perform quarterly inventory when an employee reports suspicious activity
              B. Continue to store medications at high risk for diversion in an unsecured location
              C. Monitor the inventory of medications at high risk for diversion at least weekly

              *

              10. Faith is the pharmacy technician who has been designated the “controlled substances custodian.” She inventories all controlled substances weekly and prepares the orders to replenish stock. On September 1, she returns from a week off. She determines that the wholesaler delivered three bottles of oxycodone on August 25 but they are not in the safe. She realizes this meets the definition of a significant loss. She notifies her supervisor, who says they must file DEA Form 106. On which of the following days would it be TOO LATE file a DEA Form 106?
              A. It’s already too late! The form must be filed by September 1.
              B. They can file Form 106 on December 31; it is due by year’s end.
              C. They need to file the form before October 15.

              References

              Full List of References

              1. National Healthcare Anti-Fraud Association. The Challenge of Health Care Fraud. Accessed January 21, 2026. https://www.nhcaa.org/tools-insights/about-health-care-fraud/the-challenge-of-health-care-fraud/
              2. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. National Health and Expenditure Data. Accessed January 21, 2026. https://www.cms.gov/data-research/statistics-trends-and-reports/national-health-expenditure-data/nhe-fact-sheet
              3. U.S. Department of Justice, Office of Public Affairs. False Claims Act Settlements and Judgments Exceed $2 Billion in Fiscal Year 2022. Published February 7, 2023. Accessed January 19, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/archives/opa/pr/false-claims-act-settlements-and-judgments-exceed-2-billion-fiscal-year-2022
              4. U.S. Department of Justice, United States Attorney’s Office, Eastern District of Wisconsin. Milwaukee Pharmacy Chain to Pay Over $2 Million to Resolve Allegations It Violated the False Claims Act. January 28, 2022. Accessed March 6, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/usao-edwi/pr/milwaukee-pharmacy-chain-pay-over-2-million-resolve-allegations-it-violated-false
              5. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. Common types of healthcare fraud. Accessed January 20, 2026. https://www.cms.gov/files/document/overviewfwacommonfraudtypesfactsheet072616pdf
              6. Office of Inspector General. What is considered fraud, waste, or abuse? Accessed January 21, 2026. https://oig.usaid.gov/node/221
              7. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. Medicare Fraud and Abuse: Prevent, Detect, Report. Accessed January 19, 2026. https://www.cms.gov/Outreach-and-Education/Medicare-Learning-Network-MLN/MLNProducts/Downloads/Fraud-Abuse-MLN4649244.pdf
              8. News from New Hampshire and NPR. Ask Civics 101: What Are The Differences Between Laws, Regulations, Ordinances, And Statutes. Published August 6, 2021. Accessed February 10, 2026. https://www.nhpr.org/nh-news/2021-08-06/ask-civics-101-what-are-the-differences-between-laws-regulations-ordinances-and-statutes
              9. Abogados Gold. Difference Between Statute and Act: Key Distinctions Explained. Accessed March 16, 2026. https://abogadosgold.com/statute/statute-vs-act/#google_vignette
              10. United States Courts. Glossary of Legal Terms. Accessed February 12, 2026. https://www.uscourts.gov/glossary
              11. American Bar Association. Glossary. Accessed February 12, 2026. https://www.americanbar.org/groups/legal_services/flh-home/flh-glossary/
              12. Grand Canyon University. Understanding the Differences Between Civil and Criminal Law. Published on Jan 5, 2026. Accessed February 12, 2026. https://www.gcu.edu/blog/criminal-justice-government-and-public-administration/civil-criminal-law
              13. U.S. Department of Justice, Civil Division. The False Claims Act. Updated January 15, 2025. Accessed January 19, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/civil/false-claims-act
              14. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Inspector General. Federal Anti-kickback Statute. Published December 12, 2011. Accessed January 22, 2026. https://oig.hhs.gov/newsroom/oig-podcasts/federal-anti-kickback-statute/
              15. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Inspector General. False Claims Act. Published December 19, 2011. Accessed January 20, 2026. https://oig.hhs.gov/newsroom/oig-podcasts/false-claims-act/
              16. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Inspector General. Fraud & Abuse Laws. Accessed January 20, 2026. https://oig.hhs.gov/compliance/physician-education/fraud-abuse-laws/#:~:text=As%20you%20begin%20your%20career,fines%20can%20add%20up%20quickly.
              17. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. Physician Self-Referral. Accessed January 25, 2026. https://www.cms.gov/medicare/regulations-guidance/physician-self-referral?redirect=/physicianselfreferral/
              18. Cornell Law School Legal Information Institute. 42 CFR § 411.357 - Exceptions to the referral prohibition related to compensation arrangements. Accessed March 14, 2026. https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/42/411.357#:~:text=There%20are%20several%20exceptions%20to%20the%20referral,in%20writing%20and%20signed%20by%20both%20parties
              19. Cornell Law School Legal Information Institute. 42 CFR § 411.355 - General exceptions to the referral prohibition related to both ownership/investment and compensation. Accessed March 14, 2026. https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/42/411.355
              20. Cornell Law School Legal Information Institute. 42 U.S. Code § 1320d-6 - Wrongful disclosure of individually identifiable health information. Accessed January 26, 2026. https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/42/1320d-6
              21. U.S. Department of Justice. Scope of Criminal Enforcement Under 42 U.S.C. § 1320d-6. Published June 1, 2005. Accessed March 7, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/sites/default/files/olc/opinions/attachments/2014/11/17/hipaa_final.htm#:~:text=(3)%20discloses%20individually%20identifiable%20health,6(b)(3).
              22. Federal Bureau of Investigation. Health Care Fraud. Accessed January 20, 2026. https://www.fbi.gov/investigate/white-collar-crime/health-care-fraud
              23. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Inspector General. About OIG. Accessed February 2, 2026. https://oig.hhs.gov/about-oig/
              24. United States Drug Enforcement Administration. What we do. Accessed February 2, 2026. https://www.dea.gov/what-we-do
              25. U.S. Department of Justice. Organization, Mission and Functions Manual. Accessed March 3, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/doj/organization-mission-and-functions-manual#:~:text=The%20Department%20of%20Justice%20(DOJ)%20has%20a,Treating%20everyone%20with%20fairness%2C%20dignity%2C%20and%20compassion
              26. FBI. Federal Bureau of Investigation. Mission and Priorities. Accessed March 5, 2026. https://www.fbi.gov/about/mission
              27. Arizona State Board of Pharmacy. About Our Mission. Accessed March 8, 2026. https://pharmacy.az.gov/about
              28. Office of the Inspector General. Texas Health and Human Services. OIG identifies common pharmacy violations. March 7, 2023. Accessed February 4, 2026. https://oig.hhs.texas.gov/about-us/news/oig-identifies-common-pharmacy-violations#:~:text=The%20OIG%20often%20sees%20similar%20errors%20repeated,documentation%20of%20an%20invoice%20supporting%20the%20purchase
              29. U. S. Department of Justice. Pharmacy Owner Sentenced for $1M Health Care Fraud Scheme. Published June 12, 2024. Accessed March 10, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/archives/opa/pr/pharmacy-owner-sentenced-1m-health-care-fraud-scheme
              30. U. S. Department of Justice. Pharmacist Pleads Guilty to Medicare Fraud Scheme.
              Published April 5,2023. Accessed March 10, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/archives/opa/pr/pharmacy-owner-sentenced-1m-health-care-fraud-scheme
              31. California State Board of Pharmacy. Before the Board of Pharmacy. Accessed March 10, 2026. https://www.pharmacy.ca.gov/enforcement/fy2223/ac227573#:~:text=same%20as%20revocation.-,2.,of%20the%20Decision%20and%20Order.
              32. My News LA. Former LA Pharmacist Sentenced to Prison for Medicare Fraud. Published June 12, 2024. Accessed March 11, 2026. https://mynewsla.com/crime/2024/06/12/former-la-county-pharmacist-sentenced-to-prison-for-medicare-fraud-2/
              33. U.S. Department of Justice. Former Eastern Kentucky Pharmacist Sentenced for Healthcare Fraud. Published Wednesday, October 23, 2024. Accessed March 10, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/usao-edky/pr/former-eastern-kentucky-pharamacist-sentenced-healthcare-fraud
              34. AOL. Former Kentucky pharmacist gets prison time in Medicare fraud, must repay $730,055. Published October 23, 2024. Accessed March 10, 2026. https://www.aol.com/news/former-kentucky-pharmacist-gets-prison-155735871.html
              35. U.S. Department of Justice. Montclair Pharmacist Charged with Submitting Over $300 Million in Fraudulent Claims to Medi-Cal in Medication Reimbursement Scam. Published June 27, 2024. Accessed March 10, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/usao-cdca/pr/montclair-pharmacist-charged-submitting-over-300-million-fraudulent-claims-medi-cal
              36. U.S. Department of Justice. Orange County Man Charged in Federal Complaint Alleging He Helped $270 Million Medi-Cal Scam Involving Medication Reimbursement. Published June 30, 2025. Accessed March 11, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/usao-cdca/pr/orange-county-man-charged-federal-complaint-alleging-he-helped-270-million-medi-cal
              37. U.S. Department of Justice. Case Summaries. 2025 National Health Care Fraud Takedown. Patricia Anderson. Accessed March 11, 2026. https://www.justice.gov/criminal/criminal-fraud/health-care-fraud-unit/2025-national-hcf-case-summaries
              38. Colorado Department of Public Health and Environment. Drug diversion in health care settings. Accessed February 26, 2026. https://cdphe.colorado.gov/healthcare-associated-infections-hais/drug-diversion-in-health-care-settings
              39. Institute for Safe Medication Practices. Drug diversion prevention beyond controlled substance medications. ISMP Medication Safety Alert. 2024;29(5):1-4. Published March 7, 2024. Accessed February 17, 2026. https://www.ismp.org/sites/default/files/newsletter-issues/20240307.pdf
              40. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. Prescription Drug Diversion Resource Guide. Published June 2014. Accessed February 27, 2026. https://www.cms.gov/files/document/wprescripdrugdiversionresguide062614fpdf
              41. American Society of Health-System Pharmacists. Diversion Prevention. Accessed February 26, 2026. https://www.ashp.org/pharmacy-practice/resource-centers/pain-management-and-moud-resource-center/diversion-prevention
              42. Berge KH, Dillon KR, Sikkink KM, Taylor TK, Lanier WL. Diversion of drugs within health care facilities, a multiple-victim crime: patterns of diversion, scope, consequences, detection, and prevention. Mayo Clin Proc. 2012;87(7):674-682. doi:10.1016/j.mayocp.2012.03.013
              43. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Clinician Brief: Drug Diversion. Published March 18, 2024. Accessed February 28, 2026. https://www.cdc.gov/injection-safety/hcp/clinical-overview/
              44. Institute for Safe Medication Practices. Drug diversion—A direct and indirect threat to patient safety. ISMP Medication Safety Alert! Community/Ambulatory Care Edition. 2022;21(10). Accessed March 7, 2026. https://www.ismp.org/sites/default/files/newsletter-issues/community202210.pdf
              45. Vanderbilt University Medical Center. Why do antipsychotic medications have street value? Published Feb 17, 2016. Accessed March 2, 2026. https://www.vumc.org/poison-control/toxicology-question-week/feb-17-2016-why-do-antipsychotic-medications-have-street-value
              46. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy. Drug distributor accreditation criteria. Accessed March 7, 2026. https://nabp.pharmacy/programs/accreditations/drug-distributor/criteria/#policies-and-procedures
              47. U.S. Department of Justice Drug Enforcement Administration. Theft/Loss Reporting. Accessed February 27, 2026. https://www.deadiversion.usdoj.gov/21cfr_reports/theft/theft-loss.html

              Pet Allergies

              Learning Objectives

               

              After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

              ·       Outline the causes of pet allergies in dogs, cats, and other less common species
              ·       Differentiate between allergic sensitization, allergy, and cross sensitivity
              ·       Paraphrase facts that prove that currently, hypoallergenic dogs and cats are a myth
              ·       Compare nonpharmacologic, over the counter, and prescription treatments in terms of dosing, effectiveness, and cost

              After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to

              ·       Outline the causes of pet allergies in dogs, cats, and other less common species
              ·       Differentiate between allergic sensitization, allergy, and cross sensitivity
              ·       Paraphrase facts that prove that currently, hypoallergenic dogs and cats are a myth
              ·       Identify patients whose complaints indicate they may need referral to a pharmacist

              watercolor of a boy holding a tissue up to his nose mid-sneeze while an orange cat looks on nearby

               

              Release Date: March 25, 2026

              Expiration Date: March 25, 2029

              Course Fee

              FREE

              There is no grant funding for this CE activity

              ACPE UANs

              Pharmacist: 0009-0000-26-020-H01-P

              Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-26-020-H01-T

              Session Codes

              Pharmacist:   23YC08-JKT44

              Pharmacist Technician:  23YC08-TKX48

              Accreditation Hours

              2.0 hours of CE

              Accreditation Statements

              The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-020-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

               

              Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

              The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

              Faculty

              Yangzhou (Marina) Li, MS, PharmD
              Medical Writing Scientist
              Janssen of Pharmaceutical Companies of Johnson and Johnson,
              Boston, MA

              Dylan DeCandia, PharmD
              Freelance Medical Writer
              Franklyn's Pharmacy
              Ho-Ho-Kus, NJ

               

              Faculty Disclosure

              In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

              Dr. Li is a full time employee of Janssen Pharmaceutical of Johnson and Johnson and previously worked for Nest Bio and LegendBiotech. Dylan DeCandia does not have any relationships with ineligible companies and therefore has nothing to disclose.

               

              ABSTRACT

              Many American households have pets, and many others would like to have pets but family members have pet allergies. Allergies to cats and dogs are common (an estimated 15% to 30% of people are allergic to companion pets), and allergies to unusual or exotic pets have increased over the last decade. Pet allergy is an allergic reaction to proteins (allergens) found in animals’ skin cells (dander), saliva, urine, or sweat on their fur. Most animal allergens belong to one of three primary protein families. Pet allergies are currently incurable. The treatment goal is to control symptoms and improve patients’ functional status and well-being. Options include nonpharmacologic interventions like cleaning and bathing the pet and pharmacologic management with antihistamines, corticosteroids, anticholinergic nasal sprays, mast cell stabilizers, or leukotriene modifiers. Allergists will consider allergy-specific immunotherapy when medications and/or avoidance measures fail.

              CONTENT

              Content

               

              INTRODUCTION AND EPIDEMIOLOGY

              The American Pet Products Association (APPA) estimates that approximately 70% of Americans keep pets in their household, equating to 90.5 million homes. Dogs and cats are the most popular and live in around 69.0 and 45.3 million United States (U.S.) households, respectively, followed by 11.8 million households for freshwater fish, 9.9 million households for birds, and 3.5 million households for horses.1 Public, residential, leisure, and specific occupational environments (e.g., farms, laboratories, pet shops) have high concentrations of pet allergens because of the high prevalence of community pet-keeping and Americans’ tendency to live indoors. Allergic reactions to pets have been recognized for at least 100 years.2 Risk factors for developing asthma and rhinitis include allergies to furry animals, especially cats and dogs.3 Direct or second-hand pet exposure increases the likelihood of exacerbating disease in pet-sensitive people. However, evidence also shows that early childhood exposure to dogs or cats before one year of age may have protective effects in preventing allergic sensitization.4

               

              Notably, allergies to unusual or exotic pets have increased over the last decade.5 In many urban areas, apartment complexes prevent owning large pets or charge a fee for owning cats and dogs, leading to the choice of smaller, more unusual animals. Some examples of uncommon pets are rodents (mice, rats [which allegedly make very good pets], guinea pigs, and other mammals like ferrets, pigs), amphibians (axolotl [a Mexican salamander], dart frogs, and fire belly newts), and reptiles (snakes).6 The allergic signs and symptoms or diseases associated with uncommon pets are like those manifested in cat and dog allergies. In addition, patients may present with respiratory symptoms induced by bird allergens and gastrointestinal symptoms after consuming bird eggs; this is called a bird-egg syndrome.7

               

              Overall, the incidence of specific allergy to exotic or uncommon pets is unknown because literature only includes isolated cases or small series. In the U.S., an estimated 15% to 30% of people are allergic to their pets.8 Among people with pet allergies, a fraction is sensitized to more than one animal. Moreover, according to the Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America, cat allergies are reported twice as often as dog allergies. Animals are also recognized as the third leading cause of allergic asthma, after mites and pollens.8 Many people adopt ferrets or rabbits, believing they are hypoallergenic. They are not, and pharmacy staff should be aware of that fact.9,10 The most frequent allergic reactions result from inhalation, contact, or bites.

               

              This continuing education activity summarizes knowledge of pet allergens, including those from uncommon pets; the allergy reaction mechanism and its signs and symptoms; current advances in diagnosis and treatment methods such as immunotherapy; and recommendations for patient education and counseling.

               

              PAUSE AND PONDER: When patients ask about medication for pet allergies, what kinds of questions should you ask?

               

              PET ALLERGENS

              Allergy Mechanisms

              Compared with other conditions’ mechanisms, allergy mechanisms are simple and encompass three specific paths: allergic sensitization, allergy, and cross-reactivity.11

              • Allergic sensitization is the presence of immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies to an allergen.
              • Allergy is the occurrence of reproducible symptoms or signs initiated by exposure to a defined stimulus at a dose tolerated by nonallergic persons and mediated by specific immunologic mechanisms. If no symptoms develop, a person could be sensitizing to a particular allergen but not be allergic.
              • Cross-reactivity is the process of IgE antibodies (originally developed against a given allergen) binding to homologous molecules originating from a different allergen source.

               

              Characterizing Pet Allergens

              Allergies to pets are common. Pet allergy is an allergic reaction to proteins (allergens) found in animals’ skin cells (dander), saliva, urine, or sweat on their fur.5 Allergens within the same protein family can cause cross-reactivity. Most allergens are spread via airborne particles. Dander contains allergens formed in sebaceous gland secretions and saliva. Secretions containing allergens adhere to the hair and stratum corneum of the skin. When an animal sheds, tiny particles disperse into the air and remain buoyant for an extended period of time. After the particles slowly settle onto the floor, furniture, or other items, they can be easily re-dispersed into the air. As a result, pet-sensitive people could experience allergy symptoms in the nose, eyes, and respiratory tract even if the pet is not present.5 Additionally, people can carry pet allergens that settled onto their clothing or hair.

               

              For cats and dogs, the primary allergen sources are dander and saliva. Similarly, the primary allergen source in rabbits is saliva. In contrast, the primary allergen source is urine in rodents (mice and rats) and Mustelidae (ferrets and minks).

               

              Rodents are an interesting case study. Most research laboratories experience a very high rate of staff turnover because lab workers develop allergies to rodents. Children who are exposed to rodent urine can develop this allergy, too. Male rodents produce a larger quantity of and more condensed urine than female rodents. This explains why people who commonly come in contact with male rodents are more likely to develop allergic symptoms. Allergy to rodents acts as an occupational hazard for researchers. Mouse urine is the most concentrated of all urines—far more concentrated than any other species.12 One study showed that 30% of people exposed to mice and 13.7% of people exposed to rats suffered from allergy symptoms.12 Symptoms range from conjunctivitis to asthma to skin reactions, which makes working with these animals difficult.

               

              Most animal allergens belong to one of three primary protein families. Within the three families, lipocalin-like proteins and the serum albumin family are the two most widely studied. Other identified allergens are considered minor, including gelatins, immunoglobulins, and transferrins presented in secretions and dandruff. Knowledge of these allergens’ allergenicity and cross-activity is essential to improve treatment and prevent allergic reactions. Table 1 summarizes partially characterized pet allergens, including those generated by exotic pets, because not all allergens are fully characterized.5

               

              Table 1. Summary of Characterized Pet Allergens13-22

              Common Name of Animal Source Allergen Family
              Dog Dander, saliva, hair Can f 1 (major allergen)

              Can f 2

              Can f 4

              Can f 6

              Can f 3

              Can f 5

              Can f 7

              Can f 8

              Lipocalin

              Lipocalin

              Lipocalin

              Lipocalin

              Albumin

              Arginine esterase (kallikrein)

              Epididymal secretory protein E1 or Niemann Pick type C2 protein

              Cystatin

              Cat Sebaceous, anal, and salivary gland Fel d 1 (major allergen)

              Fel d 2

              Fel d 4

              Fel d 7

              Fel d 3

              Fel d 5w

              Fel d 8

              Fed d 6w

              Uteroglobin

              Albumin

              Lipocalin

              Von Ebner gland protein

              Cystatin

              Cat IgA

              Latherin-like

              IgM

              Horse Dander, sublingual, submaxillary salivary glands, and urine Equ c 1 (major allergen)

              Equ c 2

              Equ c 4

              Equ c 3

              Equ c 6

              Lipocalin

              Lipocalin

              Latherin

              Albumin

              Lysozyme

              Chinchilla Epithelia, saliva, urine Chi La

              Chi Lb

              Protein kinase inhibitor

              Lipocalin

              Guinea pig 

               

              Cav p 1 (major allergen)

              Cap p 2 (major allergen)

              Cap p 3

              Cap p 4

              Cap p 6

              Lipocalin

              Lipocalin

              Lipocalin

              Serum albumin

              Lipocalin

              Gerbil Epithelial, salvia, urine, sleep bed Mer un 23kDa

              Mer un 4

              Lipocalin

              Serum albumin

              Siberian hamster Epithelial, saliva, urine Phod s 1 Lipocalin
              Rat Rat n 1 (major allergen)

              Rat n 4

              Rat n 7

              Lipocalin; alpha-2u-glubulin

              Serum albumin

              Immunoglobulin

              Mouse Mus m 1 (major allergen)

              Mus m 2

              Mus m 4

              Mus m 7

              Lipocalin; urinary prealbumin

              Unknown

              Serum albumin

              Immunoglobulin

              Rabbit Ory c 1

              Ory c 2

              Ory c 3

              Ory c 4

              Lipocalin

              Lipocalin

              Secretoglobin

              Lipocalin

              Ferret Mus p 17

              Mus p 66

              Unknown

              Serum albumin

              Pig Meat Sus s 1

              Sus s 5

              Sus s 6

              Serum albumin

              Lipocalin

              Serum albumin

               

              Lipocalin Superfamily

              More than 50% of allergens identified from furry animals belong to the lipocalin superfamily and are found in animal dander, saliva, and urine.23 Lipocalins are large proteins and can induce IgE production in a large proportion of atopic individuals (people who have enhanced immune response to common allergens) who are exposed to the allergen source.24

               

              Serum Albumin Family

              Serum albumin is a globular protein prone to participation in IgE-mediated cross-reactions.24 Serum albumin is commonly found in pet dander and saliva and causes an allergic reaction by inhalation and ingestion.

               

              Secretoglobin Superfamily

              Secretoglobins are the most potent allergens in cats (e.g., Fel d 1) and other pets (e.g., rabbit; Ory c 3). Produced by the skin, salivary and lacrimal glands, these proteins have an unknown function. Dried saliva and dandruff are spread as airborne particles and cause sensitization in susceptible people.25

               

              SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF PET ALLERGIES

              The most frequently observed pet allergies result from inhalation, contact, and bites. The main allergic symptoms are similar across both common and uncommon pet types. They present as rhinitis, conjunctivitis, urticaria (red, itchy welts that result from a skin reaction), and lower and upper respiratory symptoms, which can be mild to severe and rarely cause anaphylactic shock.5

               

              Hypoallergenic Pets

              “Hypoallergenic” is defined as possessing decreased risk of causing an allergy in people, which means that hypoallergenic animals could still elicit allergies in humans.9 To make hypoallergenic animals, breeders or researchers combine breeds that produce less allergen (in dogs, breeders use breeds that shed less than other breeds, or have hair rather than fur). However, animals often have different mechanisms of allergenicity, so infrequent shedding does not solve all allergy problems.

               

              In a dog allergen study, homes that included hypoallergenic dogs had no statistically significant difference in dog allergen levels compared to homes that included non-hypoallergenic dogs. The common allergen in dogs, Can f 1, was reported at similar levels in all groups.25 The frequency of shedding varies in different dog breeds, but all dogs can elicit allergies in humans.

               

              The main allergen in cats, Fel d 1 protein, comes from their saliva and sweat glands. Because of its small size and adhesiveness, Fel d 1 floats around and sticks to everything, making it almost impossible to remove physically. In fact, Fel d 1 measures in at less than one-tenth the size of ribosome; it’s so small, it easily navigates its way deep into the lungs and can precipitate asthma.26 For this reason, making a completely hypoallergenic cat has proven impossible, however vaccines to decrease the production of Fel d 1 protein have been studied; one vaccine is a combination of recombinant Fel d 1, tetanus toxoid protein, and a snippet of the coat of a plant virus.27 Researchers are unsure as to the purpose of Fel d 1 in cats or why levels of Fel d 1 vary.

               

              Ferrets—which are related to otters, minks, and weasels—are considered hypoallergenic because they are less likely to cause an allergic reaction compared to other animals. However, they can still provoke allergies in people. Allergies to ferrets come from their hair, saliva, and urine. Ferret hair and saliva is usually easy to control because they shed infrequently and do not lick people like dogs and cats often do. However, urine is harder to control and can cause allergies when owners clean crates.9

               

              Rabbits produce allergens through dander, hair from shedding, and saliva. They tend to shed more often than ferrets, around every three months, so keeping up with cleaning may be difficult. Rabbit hair isn’t naturally allergenic, but when rabbits lick their fur, they transfer a saliva protein that is contaminated with the protein allergen.10

               

              DIAGNOSIS

              Skin Prick Test

              Allergists (allergy specialists) use skin prick tests together with medical history and physical examinations to rule out or confirm a suspected IgE-mediated animal allergy.28 Manufacturers prepare skin prick tests by extracting natural allergens from animal hair, dander, and urine. The doctor or nurse will prick the patient’s skin on the forearm or upper back and determine if an allergic reaction occurs within 15 minutes. If a patient develops a red, itchy bump where the pet allergen extract is pricked into the skin, the patient is allergic to that pet allergen. Diagnosticians should first use a skin prick test as it is inexpensive, easy to use, and quick to perform. However, allergen concentrations and components are inconsistent, varying among similar commercial tests from different manufacturers. Healthcare providers should be aware that patients’ test results may be inconsistent if they use different skin prick tests at different times.28

               

              Serum-specific IgE Test

              Allergists can use a serum-specific IgE (blood) test when patients’ symptoms and skin test results are contradictory or when patients’ skin conditions prevent a skin test. Serum-specific IgE tests can only determine if a patient is sensitized to a specific pet allergen, but it cannot determine if a patient is allergic to that allergen. Serum-specific IgE tests are highly sensitive, but prone to false-positive results. From this perspective, serum-specific IgE tests may be less accurate than skin prick tests.29

               

              Molecular Diagnosis

              Recent scientific advances have allowed molecular diagnosis to differentiate patients who are allergic to a single species or sensitized due to cross-reactivity. This method can aid targeted recommendations for avoidance and assess the choice and composition of immunotherapy.28

               

              PET ALLERGY MANAGEMENT

              Pet allergies cannot currently be cured. The treatment goal is to control symptoms and improve patients’ functional status and well-being.

               

              Nonpharmacologic Treatment – Avoid & Minimize Allergen Exposure

              Current recommendations for managing pet allergy symptoms start with exposure avoidance. Starting when animals are young, bathing them at least once weekly can reduce allergens and eliminate reactions in humans who are exposed to them (see SIDEBAR).30 Immediate removal of animals from the household will not alleviate symptoms if the owner has carpeting and other pieces of furniture/items that the pet slept or sat on. Mammalian allergens are stable and can persist in house dust for up to six months.32 Additionally, using high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters and mattress encasement, vacuuming, and chemically treating carpet are alternative methods for reducing exposure to contaminated materials, but may not reduce disease severity.33

               

              PAUSE AND PONDER: When patients have pet allergies, which symptoms are best treated with antihistamines?

               

              SIDEBAR: To Bathe or Not to Bathe…26,31

              Bathing a cat or dog regularly appears to reduce the quantity of allergen harbored by the pet. To effectively lower Can f 1 concentrations, owners need to bathe the animal at least twice every week because Can f 1 concentrations rise rapidly, approaching baseline concentrations within three days after washing. Twice-weekly bathing can reduce the amount of recoverable Can f 1 on dogs by more than 80%, but researchers note that ideally, one would bathe the dog two to three times every week. Airborne Can f levels can fall by ruff-ly 40% but will quickly escalate.

              However, the beneficial effects of reducing allergen levels by regular bathing are more likely associated with dogs, because their allergen burden returns faster than that of cats. So, bathing animals reduces the amount of allergen far better than vacuuming.

              But should companion animals be bathed so often?

              Most cats are notoriously averse to bathing, although some breeds like water (i.e., the Bengal). Dogs vary in the response to bathing—some like it, others do not. People who plan to bathe their cats or dogs regularly should do three things:

              1. Check with a veterinarian or a breed advocacy group. The American Kennel Club indicates that how often an owner should bathe a dog depends on the dog’s coat type and presence or absence of an undercoat (in the latter case, frequent bathing can affect a dog’s temperature regulation). Bathing an animal is not just about a human’s allergies, the animal’s health and welfare should be a primary concern.
              2. Consider the labor and time involved in bathing a pet often, safely, and well.
              3. Start when the animal is young.

               

              An allergen reducing cat food (Pro Plan LiveClear) is now available, and its manufacturer indicates it reduces the number of allergens in cat hair and dander by 47% after three weeks of feeding.34 It is produced using eggs that contain an anti-Fel d1 antibody. When cats consume the food, the egg powder binds to and neutralizes Fel d1 in the cat’s saliva.34

               

              Pharmacologic Treatment

              When avoidance and reducing allergens are not enough, depending on the severity of signs, over the counter (OTC) medications like antihistamines or local/topical steroids may provide temporary relief of allergy symptoms.35 Those symptoms include runny/itchy nose or throat, sneezing, and itchy, red or watery eyes. Combination products that contain both an antihistamine and a decongestant or an analgesic are available but should be used with caution due to the increased risk of adverse effects. Other allergy medications, besides the ones mentioned, are used less often, including mast cell stabilizers and leukotriene antagonists. Table 2 summarizes common medications (both OTC and prescription) for treating mild to moderate allergy symptoms.35

               

              Table 2. Medications to Treat Allergy Symptoms36

              Medication Mechanism of Action Adverse Effects Notes
              Antihistamines
              1st generation (nonselective, more sedating):*

              diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, clemastine

              2nd generation (less sedating, less drowsiness):

              cetirizine,* desloratadine,* fexofenadine,* levocetirizine,* and loratadine*

              Azelastine has nasal spray* and eye drop formulations. Epinastine and olopatadine* are formulated as eye drops.

              Blocks histamine and its binding to receptors, prevents histamine-caused redness, swelling, itching, and changes in secretions during an allergic response ·       Drowsiness

              ·       Fatigue

              ·       Headache

              The 2nd generation antihistamines are preferred over 1st generation based on safety and efficacy data.

               

              Corticosteroids
              Available as tablets, liquids, nasal sprays, topical creams for skin allergies, topical eye drops for conjunctivitis.

               

              Some steroids include:

              beclomethasone, ciclesonide, fluticasone furoate,* mometasone, budesonide,* triamcinolone,* dexamethasone ophthalmic, prednisone, etc.

              Anti-inflammatory effect Short-term use:

              Weight gain, fluid retention, high blood pressure

               

              Long-term use:

              Growth suppression, diabetes, cataracts of the eye, osteoporosis, muscle weakness

               

              Side effects of inhaled steroids:

              Cough, hoarseness, fungal infection of the mouth

               

              Highly effective for allergies but must be taken regularly. It may take 1 to 2 weeks before the full effect.
              Decongestants
              Available as nasal sprays, eye drops, liquids, and tablets

               

              Some decongestants include:

              pseudoephedrine,* phenylephrine,* and oxymetazoline* nasal sprays

               

              Shrinks swollen nasal tissues and blood vessels to relieve the symptoms of nasal swelling, congestion, mucus secretion, and redness ·       Increased blood pressure

              ·       Insomnia

              ·       Anxiety, feeling nervous, restlessness

              Relieve congestion and are often prescribed with antihistamines for allergies.

               

              Contraindicated in patients with severe coronary artery disease, severe hypertension, and who concomitantly use monoamine oxidase inhibitors

               

              Short-term use only (~5 days). Long-term use can make symptoms worse.

              Combination Allergy Drugs
              Some combination drugs include:

              cetirizine/pseudoephedrine,* fexofenadine/ pseudoephedrine,* diphenhydramine/ pseudoephedrine,* loratadine/pseudoephedrine,* pseudoephedrine/triprolidine* for nasal allergies, and naphazoline/pheniramine* for allergic conjunctivitis

               

              Effects from each component Side effects from each component Use with caution due to increased risk of adverse effects
              Anticholinergic Nasal Spray
              Ipratropium bromide nasal spray to control nasal discharge Antisecretory properties in the nasal mucosa ·       Bitterness of the mouth

              ·       Dry nose, nosebleeds, or irritation

              ·       Dizziness

              ·       Headache

              ·       Sore throat

              ·       Respiratory tract infection

              Some patients may feel better right away. For others, it may take 1 to 2 weeks before the medicine helps. It is important for patients to continue use of this medication as instructed.
              Mast Cell Stabilizers
              Available as eye drops for allergic conjunctivitis and nasal sprays for nasal allergy symptoms

               

              Some mast cell stabilizers include cromolyn sodium,* iodoxamide-tromethamine, nedocromil, pemirolast, etc.

              Prevents histamine release from mast cells ·       Throat irritation, coughing, skin rashes

              ·       Eye drops may cause blurred vision, stinging, and burning

              For mild to moderate symptoms

              Not as effective as steroids

              Leukotriene Modifiers
              Montelukast:

              Indicated for adults and pediatric patients six months or older with perennial allergic rhinitis.

              May be less effective than loratadine or cetirizine for reducing daytime nasal symptoms

              Montelukast binds to leukotriene receptors in the human airway (smooth muscle cells and macrophages), preventing airway edema, smooth muscle contraction, and other respiratory inflammation ·       Stomach pain or upset

              ·       Headache

              ·       Stuffy nose

              ·       Cough

              ·       Fever

              ·       Rash

              ·       Irritability

              Warn patients to report behavior changes, including suicidal ideation or suicidal behavior

              Avoid concomitant use of aspirin or NSAIDs in aspirin-sensitive patients

              *Indicates over-the-counter (OTC) medication

               

              In general, for conditions eligible for self-care (e.g., allergic rhinitis) patients should start taking OTC allergy medications one week before they expect symptoms from a predictable exposure or as soon as possible before allergen exposure (for episodic exposure).35 Prescribers should tailor the pharmacologic therapy and length of treatment based on symptoms and severity. Usually, complete relief takes two to four weeks. Intranasal steroids control nasal symptoms more effectively than antihistamines, as they inhibit multiple cell types and mediators, and should be recommended for moderate or persistent allergic rhinitis. Decongestants are effective in nasal congestion but have little effect on other symptoms. Intranasal and ocular preparations are available for nasal and eye symptoms. Intranasal cromolyn is the preferred initial choice for pregnant or lactating patients, as the body does not absorb it based on the route of administration. As mentioned in the table, fluticasone and triamcinolone nasal sprays are available OTC.35

               

              If a patient has persistent allergies, allergy medication is more effective when taken regularly.35 For example, if a patient with moderate or severe persistent allergic rhinitis has completed two to four weeks of treatment with intranasal corticosteroids or oral antihistamines and achieved symptomatic control, healthcare providers can optimize the treatment’s effect by reducing the dose and continuing treatment for one additional month. If a patient’s symptoms are uncontrolled after two to four weeks of OTC treatment, pharmacists should assess the patient’s adherence and refer for prescription therapy if necessary.35

               

              PAUSE AND PONDER: Which providers in your area provide allergen-specific immunotherapy? What should patients expect if they take this route?

               

              Allergy Immunotherapy

              Allergen-specific immunotherapy has been used in pet allergies for years and has proven efficacy to help control symptoms and prevent disease progression. Allergists will consider allergy-specific immunotherapy when symptoms are uncontrolled by medications and/or avoidance measures, when adverse drug effects are intolerable, or when patients want to reduce long-term use of allergy medications.37

               

              The basis for allergen-specific immunotherapy is gradual reprogramming of the immune system to build a tolerance to allergens. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) characterizes allergen-specific immunotherapies as biologics because they are produced from living cells, not synthesized by chemists, and regulated under the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER).38 This class comes in three forms:

              • Sublingual allergy immunotherapy (SLIT) tablets
              • SLIT drops, and
              • subcutaneous allergy immunotherapy (SCIT)

               

              As of 2022, the FDA has approved four SLIT tablets to treat allergic rhinitis with or without allergic conjunctivitis caused by ragweed, northern pasture grasses, and dust mites in susceptible individuals; the FDA has not approved SLIT tablets for pet allergies.22

               

              SLIT drops are made from FDA-approved allergy extracts used to make SCIT shots. However, these extracts are only FDA-approved for injection use under the skin, and they are not approved for use under the tongue. Therefore, SLIT drops are not FDA-approved and are off-label in the U.S., and Medicare or Medicaid does not cover these treatments in most cases. Despite not having FDA approval, patients can still receive SLIT drops from some prescribers who prepare a custom-mixed formulation but must pay out of pocket. Research indicates SLIT is safe and effective.39

               

              The FDA has approved SCIT for cat allergies, but not for other pet allergies. Patients who receive SCIT usually call it “allergy shots.” One systemic review evaluated 88 trials that enrolled 3,459 asthmatic patients and exposed them to SCIT. One case of deterioration in asthma symptoms was avoided for every three patients treated with SCIT (95% CI, 3-5), and one patient would avoid increasing symptomatic medication use for every four patients treated (95% CI, 3-6).40 Another study found that SCIT can reduce the need for systemic steroids in allergic rhinitis patients.41 Usually, the patient receives a solution for injection with 10,000 bioequivalent allergy units (BAUs) per milliliter (standardized extract) of lyophilized cat hair and dander added to glycerol and human serum albumin (0.03%). A clinician administers one to two subcutaneous injections every week starting at low doses (1:10,000 dilution) and titrating up to a seemingly effective maintenance dose. Then, the prescriber extends the injection interval gradually to every 2 weeks to 4 weeks. For cat allergens, the effective maintenance dose usually falls within the 1,000 to 4,000 BAU range.42

               

              S'CIT sometimes can cause treatment-related systemic allergic reactions; however, near-fatal or severe reactions are rare, and most reactions are local and mild (swelling, pruritis, and redness at injection site).43 SCIT should not be recommended to patients who have severe uncontrolled heart problems or asthma if they take beta-blockers, which are associated with more frequent reactions, more severe reactions, and reactions that are refractory to epinephrine. Additionally, allergy shots should not be recommended for pregnant women unless discussed with their obstetricians.43

               

              Both SCIT and SLIT require gradual up-titration of dosages with ongoing and multiple treatments and may take three to five years to reach desensitization. Also, for SCIT, based on its route of administration (subcutaneous injections are invasive), patients will need to visit the doctor's office more frequently and may experience the treatment-associated side effects.

               

              SLIT has been increasingly recommended because of its ability to modify the immune system for the long term while reducing allergy symptoms. SLIT also showed a safer profile, only associated with mild mouth symptoms, and improved adherence compared to SCIT.44 When compared to traditional allergy treatments, SLIT tablets showed similar clinical efficacy to nasal corticosteroids and greater clinical efficacy than second-generation antihistamines and montelukast.45

               

              What About Cost?

              In adherent patients, SCIT and SLIT have proven to be an economically viable option. The annual cost of using SCIT depends on patients’ insurance: Medicare ($1021.70), Medicaid ($758.16), and the commercial average ($1722.24). Yearly treatment costs for SLIT are self-pay because treatment is not FDA approved and costs around $679.25.46 Because SLIT drops are administered at home by patients, they tend to be more affordable than the cost of SCIT. Patient preference might be for a once monthly administration, rather than taking oral antihistamines daily.

               

              OTC medications are less expensive than immunotherapy, but costs vary. In a comparison of second-generation antihistamines versus montelukast, levocetirizine (Xyzal) had the best efficacy per cost value. Generic fexofenadine (Allegra), although similar in efficacy, was more expensive than levocetirizine.44

               

              CONCLUSION

              Healthcare providers should counsel patients about reducing allergen exposure and help patients to choose OTC medications for self-care based on individual patient needs and conditions to optimize treatment effects. Pharmacy staff should refer patients to allergists when necessary to identify the cause of their allergy symptoms. If a patient's allergy does not allow him or her to have pets at home and the patient owns a pet, suggest that the patient ask family members or friends about placement before contacting the local animal shelters.

              Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

              Pet Allergies
              Pharmacist Post-test
              After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
              1. Outline the causes of pet allergies in dogs, cats, and other less common species
              2. Differentiate between allergic sensitization, allergy, and cross sensitivity
              3. Paraphrase facts that prove that currently, hypoallergenic dogs and cats are a myth
              4. Compare nonpharmacologic, over the counter, and prescription treatments in terms of dosing, effectiveness, and cost

              1. What is the major allergen in dogs?
              A. Can f 3
              B. Can f 1
              C. Fel d 1

              2. When comparing allergy immunotherapies (SCIT, SLIT) and traditional allergy treatments, how do they differ?
              A. Traditional allergy treatments are more clinically efficacious, SCIT and SLIT therapies should not be considered in treatment
              B. Traditional allergy treatments are more effective, but with the recent FDA approval of SLIT, it should be considered more often
              C. Although not FDA approved, SLIT showed similar clinical efficacy to nasal corticosteroids and more clinical efficacy to second-generation antihistamines in trials

              3. What is the best way to define hypoallergenic animals?
              A. Animals that are less likely to cause allergies in humans.
              B. Animals that cannot cause allergies in humans
              C. Animals that do not cause conjunctivitis, but other common symptoms may still occur

              4. A mother brings her young son to the pharmacy and says that the allergist indicates he has an allergy to their cat. She asks what this means. What is the BEST answer?
              A. Her son has immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies to an allergen.
              B. Her son will experience reproducible symptoms when exposed to the cat.
              C. Her son will have symptoms when exposed to any furry animal.

              5. Lance, a college student who lives in a group house, comes in and says that he has tried several medications for allergic symptoms linked to his roommate’s three cats. The medications relieved the symptoms but caused so much drowsiness, he couldn’t study. His allergist is now recommending he start immunotherapy. What is the MOST LIKELY reason the allergist is making this recommendation?
              A. Lances’ symptoms are uncontrolled by medications
              B. Lance is experiencing intolerable adverse effects
              C. Lance want to reduce his use of allergy medications.

              6. Lance returns to the pharmacy to pick up his atenolol for hypertension and he said the allergist has asked him to decide if he wants to take SCIT or SLIT. He asks you which factors he should consider. What is the BEST answer?
              A. Advise him to consider cost, dosing frequency, and route of administration
              B. Advise him to consider cost and convenience alone as they are both effective
              C. Advise him to tell his allergist he is taking a beta blocker, so SLIT is preferred

              7. Emily and her mom come to the pharmacy and they are very excited. They are considering adopting a dog! Emily has asthma and multiple allergies, and the pediatrician has told them she is probably allergic to or will become allergic to dogs. As Mom chatters, she tells you that the 9-year-old dog, Raven, is an Alaskan Malamute (a breed that has a heavy undercoat) that weighs 95 pounds. She said that a friend told her that if she washes the dog two or three times a month, allergies will not be a problem. She says, “I think I can find time to wash a dog twice a month.” What is the MOST IMPORTANT FACT you should bring to her attention?
              A. Before adopting Raven, check with a veterinarian or a breed advocacy group to determine if bathing is a good idea.
              B. Bathing a pet two to three times a month is not frequent enough to reduce the allergen load—you have to bathe them two to three times a week.
              C. Look for a younger Alaskan Malamute—maybe a puppy—so the dog will get used to being bathed so often.

              8. Adele, who is 7 months pregnant, is experiencing an allergic reaction to a visiting ferret. She asks you to recommend an OTC product to reduce her nasal stuffiness and itchy eyes. Which is the BEST product to recommend?
              A. Intranasal cromolyn
              B. Oral levocetirizine
              C. Oral diphenhydramine

              9. Which of the following have similar effectiveness for pet allergies, but different cost effectiveness?
              A. Fluticasone and fexofenadine
              B. Montelukast and loratadine
              C. Levocetirizine and fexofenadine

              10. Which medication class should be used for no longer than five days at a time?
              A. Decongestants
              B. First generation antihistamines
              C. Nasal corticosteroids

              Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

              Pet Allergies

              Pharmacy Technician Post-test

              After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to
              • Outline the causes of pet allergies in dogs, cats, and other less common species
              • Differentiate between allergic sensitization, allergy, and cross sensitivity
              • Paraphrase facts that prove that currently, hypoallergenic dogs and cats are a myth
              • Identify patients whose complaints indicate they may need referral to a pharmacist

              1. What is the major allergen in dogs?
              A. Can f 3
              B. Can f 1
              C. Fel d 1

              2. When comparing allergy immunotherapies (SCIT, SLIT) and traditional allergy treatments, how do they differ?
              A. Traditional allergy treatments are more clinically efficacious, SCIT and SLIT therapies should not be considered in treatment
              B. Traditional allergy treatments are more effective, but with the recent FDA approval of SLIT, it should be considered more OFTEN?
              C. Although not FDA approved for pet allergies, SLIT showed similar efficacy to nasal corticosteroids and more clinical efficacy to second-generation antihistamines in trials

              3. What is the best way to define hypoallergenic animals?
              A. Animals that are less likely to cause allergies in humans.
              B. Animals that cannot cause allergies in humans
              C. Animals that do not cause conjunctivitis, but other common symptoms may still occur

              4. A mother brings her young son to the pharmacy and says that the allergist indicates he has an allergy to their cat. She asks what this means. What is the BEST answer?
              A. Her son has immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies to an allergen.
              B. Her son will experience reproducible symptoms when exposed to the cat.
              C. Her son will have symptoms when exposed to any furry animal.

              5. Lance, a college student who lives in a group house, comes in and says that he has tried several medications for allergic symptoms linked to his roommate’s three cats. The medications relieved the symptoms but caused so much drowsiness, he couldn’t study. His allergist is now recommending he start immunotherapy. What is the MOST LIKELY reason the allergist is making this recommendation?
              A. Lances’ symptoms are uncontrolled by medications
              B. Lance is experiencing intolerable adverse effects
              C. Lance want to reduce his use of allergy medications.
              Links to LO #4 Answer found on page 10

              6. Lance returns to the pharmacy to pick up his atenolol for hypertension and he said the allergist has asked him to decide if he wants to take SCIT or SLIT. He asks you which factors he should consider. What is the BEST answer?
              A. Advise him to consider cost, dosing frequency, and route of administration
              B. Advise him to consider cost and convenience alone as they are both effective
              C. Advise him to tell his allergist he is taking a beta blocker, so SLIT is preferred

              7. Emily and her mom come to the pharmacy, and they are very excited. They are considering adopting a dog! Emily has asthma and multiple allergies, and the pediatrician has told them she is probably allergic to or will become allergic to dogs. As Mom chatters, she tells you that the 9-year-old dog, Raven, is an Alaskan Malamute (a breed that has a heavy undercoat) that weighs 95 pounds. She said that a friend told her that if she washes the dog two or three times a month, allergies will not be a problem. She says, “I think I can find time to wash a dog twice a month.” What is the MOST IMPORTANT FACT should you bring to her attention?
              A. Before adopting Raven, check with a veterinarian or a breed advocacy group to determine if bathing is a good idea.
              B. Bathing a pet two to three times a month is not frequent enough to reduce the allergen load—you have to bathe them two to three times a week.
              C. Look for a younger Alaskan Malamute—maybe a puppy—so the dog will get used to being bathed all the time.

              8. Adele., who is 7 months pregnant, is experiencing an allergic reaction to a visiting ferret. She asks you to recommend an OTC product to reduce her nasal stuffiness and itchy eyes. Which is the BEST product to recommend?
              A. Intranasal cromolyn
              B. Oral levocetirizine
              C. Oral diphenhydramine

              9. Which of the following have similar effectiveness for pet allergies, but different cost effectiveness?
              A. Fluticasone and fexofenadine
              B. Montelukast and loratadine
              C. Levocetirizine and fexofenadine

              10. Which medication class should be used for no longer than five days at a time?
              A. Decongestants
              B. First generation antihistamines
              C. Nasal corticosteroids

              References

              Full List of References

              1. 2021-2022 APPA National Pet Owners Survey. Accessed January 17, 2022. https://www.americanpetproducts.org/press_industrytrends.asp
              2. Ownby D, Johnson C. Recent Understandings of Pet Allergies [version 1; peer review: 2 approved]. F1000Research. 2016;5(108)doi:10.12688/f1000research.7044.1
              3. Perzanowski MS, Rönmark E, Platts-Mills TA, Lundbäck B. Effect of cat and dog ownership on sensitization and development of asthma among preteenage children. Am J Respir Crit Care Med. 2002;166(5):696-702. doi:10.1164/rccm.2201035
              4. Ownby DR, Johnson CC, Peterson EL. Exposure to dogs and cats in the first year of life and risk of allergic sensitization at 6 to 7 years of age. JAMA. 2002;288(8):963-72. doi:10.1001/jama.288.8.963
              5. Díaz-Perales A, González-de-Olano D, Pérez-Gordo M, Pastor-Vargas C. Allergy to uncommon pets: new allergies but the same allergens. Front Immunol. 2013;4:492-492. doi:10.3389/fimmu.2013.00492
              6. Curin M, Hilger C. Allergy to pets and new allergies to uncommon pets. Allergol Select. 2017;1(2):214-221. Published 2017 Aug 4. doi:10.5414/ALX01842E
              7. Villas F, Compes E, Fernández-Nieto M, Muñoz MP, Bartolome B, de las Heras M. Bird-egg syndrome caused by Agapornis species (lovebird). J Investig Allergol Clin Immunol. 2009;19(1):71-2.
              8. Quirce S. Asthma in Alergológica-2005. J Investig Allergol Clin Immunol. 2009;19 Suppl 2:14-20.
              9. Ferret allergies: Are ferrets hypoallergenic animals? Accessed July 12, 2022. https://friendlyferret.com/ferret-hypoallergenic-allergies/
              10. Are rabbits hypoallergenic? All your questions answered. Hypoallergenic Home. Accessed July 12, 2022. https://hypoallergenichomes.com/hypoallergenic-pets/rabbits/
              11. Konradsen JR, Fujisawa T, van Hage M, et al. Allergy to furry animals: New insights, diagnostic approaches, and challenges. J Allergy Clin Immunol. Mar 2015;135(3):616-25. doi:10.1016/j.jaci.2014.08.026
              12. Kang SY, Won HK, Park SY, Lee SM, Lee SP. Prevalence and diagnostic values of laboratory animal allergy among research personnel [published online ahead of print, 2021 Jul 11]. Asian Pac J Allergy Immunol. 2021;10.12932/AP-220321-1094. doi:10.12932/AP-220321-1094
              13. Grönlund H, Saarne T, Gafvelin G, van Hage M. The major cat allergen, Fel d 1, in diagnosis and therapy. Int Arch Allergy Immunol. 2010;151(4):265-74. doi:10.1159/000250435
              14. Fernández-Parra B, Bisson C, Vatini S, Conti A, Cisteró Bahima A. Allergy to chinchilla. J Investig Allergol Clin Immunol. 2009;19(4):332-3.
              15. De las Heras M, Cuesta-Herranz J, Cases B, et al. Occupational asthma caused by gerbil: purification and partial characterization of a new gerbil allergen. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol. 2010;104(6):540-542.
              16. De las Heras M, Cuesta J, De Miguel J, et al. Occupational rhinitis and asthma caused by gerbil. J Allergy Clin Immunol. 2002;109(1):S326.
              17. Hunskaar S, Fosse RT. Allergy to laboratory mice and rats: a review of the pathophysiology, epidemiology and clinical aspects. Lab Anim. 1990;24(4):358-379.
              18. Sathish JG, Sethu S, Bielsky M-C, et al. Challenges and approaches for the development of safer immunomodulatory biologics. Nat Rev Drug Discov. 2013;12(4):306-324.
              19. Phipatanakul W. Rodent allergens. Curr Allergy Asthma Rep. 2002;2(5):412-416.
              20. Gonzáles de Olano D, Pastor Vargas C, Cases Ortega B, et al. Identification of a novel 17-kDa protein as a ferret allergen. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol.. 2009;103(2):177-178.
              21. Posthumus J, James HR, Lane CJ, et al. Initial description of pork-cat syndrome in the United States. J Allergy Clin Immunol.. 2013;131(3):923-925.
              22. FDA Allergen Extract Sublingual Tablet. Cited 21 February 2022 Accessed https://www.fda.gov/vaccines-blood-biologics/allergenics/allergen-extract-sublingual-tablets.
              23. Jesner S. (2022, June 28). Sublingual immunotherapy faqs. Sublingual Immunotherapy FAQs. Accessed July 8, 2022. https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/otolaryngology/specialty_areas/sinus_center/sublingual_immunotherapy.html#:~:text=Immunotherapy%20treats%20the%20cause%20of,as%20drops%20under%20the%20tongue.
              24. Malandain H. IgE antibody in the serum--the main problem is cross-reactivity. Allergy. 2004;59(2):229-230. doi:10.1046/j.1398-9995.2003.00395.x
              25. Nicholas CE, Wegienka GR, Havstad SL, et al. Dog allergen levels in homes with hypoallergenic compared with nonhypoallergenic dogs. Am J Rhinol Allergy. 2011;25(4):252-6. doi: 10.2500/ajra.2011.25.3606
              26. Dance A. The race to deliver the hypoallergenic cat. Nature. 2020;588(7836):S7-S9. doi:10.1038/d41586-020-02779-3
              27. Hypoallergenic cats. Blue Cross. (n.d.). Accessed July 8, 2022. https://www.bluecross.org.uk/advice/cat/hypoallergenic cats#:~:text=Despite%20popular%20belief%2C%20hypoallergenic%20cats,how%20much%20protein%20they%20produce
              28. Skin prick tests. FoodAllergy.org. Accessed August 1, 2022. Skin Prick Tests - FoodAllergy.org
              29. de Vos G. Skin testing versus serum-specific IgE testing: which is better for diagnosing aeroallergen sensitization and predicting clinical allergy?. Curr Allergy Asthma Rep. 2014;14(5):430. doi:10.1007/s11882-014-0430-z
              30. Hodson T, Custovic A, Simpson A, Chapman M, Woodcock A, Green R. Washing the dog reduces dog allergen levels, but the dog needs to be washed twice a week. J Allergy Clin Immunol. Apr 1999;103(4):581-5. doi:10.1016/s0091-6749(99)70227-7
              31. Latz K. How Often Should You Bathe Your Dog? Accessed July 13, 2022. https://www.akc.org/expert-advice/health/how-often-should-you-wash-your-dog/
              32. Aalberse RC. Mammalian airborne allergens. Chem Immunol Allergy. 2014;100:243-247. doi:10.1159/000358862
              33. Wood RA, Johnson EF, Van Natta ML, Chen PH, Eggleston PA. A placebo-controlled trial of a HEPA air cleaner in the treatment of cat allergy. Am J Respir Crit Care Med. 1998;158(1):115-120. doi:10.1164/ajrccm.158.1.9712110
              34. Discover ProPlan LiveClear Allergen Reducing Cat Food. Purina. Accessed July 12, 2022. https://www.purina.com/pro-plan/cats/liveclear-cat-allergen-reducing-food
              35. Scolaro KL. Chapter 11: Colds and Allergy. Handbook of Nonprescription Drugs: An Interactive Approach to Self-Care, 20th Edition.
              36. Product Information: SINGULAIR(R) oral tablets, oral chewable tablets, oral granules, montelukast sodium oral tablets, oral chewable tablets, oral granules. Merck & Co (Per FDA); 2012.
              37. Clark J, White ND. Immunotherapy for Cat Allergies: A Potential Strategy to Scratch Back. Am J Lifestyle Med. 2017;11(4):310-313. doi:10.1177/1559827617701389
              38. Allergenics. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Accessed July 29, 2022. https://www.fda.gov/vaccines-blood-biologics/allergenics
              39. Sublingual Immunotherapy. Johns Hopkins Medicine. Accessed July 13, 2022. https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/otolaryngology/specialty_areas/sinus_center/sublingual_immunotherapy.html#:~:text=Immunotherapy%20treats%20the%20cause%20of,as%20drops%20under%20the%20tongue.
              40. Abramson MJ, Puy RM, Weiner JM. Injection allergen immunotherapy for asthma. Cochrane Database Syst Rev. 2010;(8):Cd001186. doi:10.1002/14651858.CD001186.pub2
              41. Aasbjerg K, Torp-Pedersen C, Backer V. Specific immunotherapy can greatly reduce the need for systemic steroids in allergic rhinitis. Allergy. 2012;67(11):1423-9. doi:10.1111/all.12023
              42. Ling M, Long AA. Pet dander and difficult-to-control asthma: therapeutic options. Allergy Asthma Proc. 2010;31:385-391.
              43. Cox L, Nelson H, Lockey R, et al. Allergen immunotherapy: a practice parameter third update. J Allergy Clin Immunol. 2011;127(1 Suppl):S1-55. doi:10.1016/j.jaci.2010.09.034
              44. Goodman MJ, Jhaveri M, Saverno K, Meyer K, Nightengale B. Cost-effectiveness of second-generation antihistamines and montelukast in relieving allergic rhinitis nasal symptoms. Am Health Drug Benefits. 2008;1(8):26-34.
              45. Aboshady OA, Elghanam KM. Sublingual immunotherapy in allergic rhinitis: efficacy, safety, adherence and guidelines. Clin Exp Otorhinolaryngol. 2014 Dec;7(4):241-9. doi: 10.3342/ceo.2014.7.4.241.
              46. Hardin FM, Eskander PN, Franzese C. Cost-effective Analysis of Subcutaneous vs Sublingual Immunotherapy From the Payor's Perspective. OTO Open. 2021 Oct 25;5(4):2473974X211052955. doi: 10.1177/2473974X211052955.

              Delving Beyond the Shelving Podcast: Decongesting Phenylephrine Rumors

              Learning Objectives

              After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists and pharmacy technicians will be able to:

              • RECALL the history of phenylephrine’s approval and the FDA’s over-the-counter (OTC) approval process
              • DESCRIBE the rise and fall of phenylephrine’s popularity
              • DIFFERENTIATE oral phenylephrine from other routes of administration and their importance in practice
              • DISTINGUISH alternative OTC congestion products to patients

                  Cute cartoon pill bottles on shelves with the words Delving Beyond The Shelving

                   Release Date

                  Release Date: March 20, 2026

                  Expiration Date: March 20, 2029

                  Course Fee

                  FREE

                  There is no funding for this CE.

                  ACPE UANs

                  Pharmacist: 0009-0000-26-019-H99-P

                  Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-26-019-H99-T

                  Session Codes

                  Pharmacist: 26POD19-YQX98

                  Pharmacy Technician: 26POD19-XYQ89

                  Accreditation Hours

                  0.5 hours of CE

                  Accreditation Statements

                  The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-019-H99-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                   

                  Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                  The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                  Faculty

                  Dylan Decandia PharmD

                  Freelance Medical Writer, Franklyn’s Pharmacy

                  Ho-Ho-Kus, NJ

                   

                  Faculty Disclosure

                  In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                  Dylan Decandia PharmD has no relationships with ineligible companies.

                   

                  Dylan Decandia, PharmD discusses topics in the pharmacy world with a new guest each episode. Catch the next episode on Spotify or Apple Podcasts.

                  DELVING BEYOND THE SHELVING PODCAST EPISODE 1

                  Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                  POST TEST QUESTIONS
                  Pharm Fresh podcast Episode 1: Decongesting Phenylephrine Rumors
                  26-019 P

                  1. What is the formal name of the FDA’s “recipe book” for approved over-the-counter products?
                  a. OTC Monograph
                  b. FDA Approved OTCs
                  c. Monograph of Federal Approvals

                  *

                  2. When was Hatton and Hendeles’ first Citizens Petition for phenylephrine?
                  a. 2007
                  b. 2009
                  c. 2015
                  *

                  3. What was Hatton and Hendeles goal in the first Citizens Petition?
                  a. The FDA should remove oral phenylephrine from the market due to safety issues
                  b. The FDA should increase the recommended daily dose of oral phenylephrine
                  c. The FDA should move oral phenylephrine behind the counter with pseudoephedrine

                  *

                  4. Which law enacted in the 2000s was believed to cause increases in phenylephrine sales?
                  a. Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act of 2009
                  b. Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007
                  c. Combat Methamphetamine Act of 2005

                  *

                  5. All phenylephrine routes of administration are effective in current therapies EXCEPT:
                  a. Ophthalmic
                  b. Intranasal
                  c. Oral

                  *

                  6. Which disease state indicates an intranasal phenylephrine product over an oral decongestant such as pseudoephedrine?
                  a. Uncontrolled Hypertension
                  b. Nasal Polyps
                  c. Rhinitis Medicamentosa

                  *

                  7. Which condition limits some congestion self-treatments to 3 days or less?
                  a. Uncontrolled Hypertension
                  b. Nasal Polyps
                  c. Rhinitis Medicamentosa

                  *

                  8. A mother presents to the pharmacy with her 9-year-old child. She states the child is congested, despite using Flonase for the last 2 months for allergies. As the pharmacist, what do you recommend to this patient?
                  a. Flonase Sensimist. She has exhausted the regular Flonase product and continued use might irritate the child’s nasal passages
                  b. Neti Pot. The patient has exhausted all Flonase products and non-pharmacological treatment may benefit this patient.
                  c. Recommend the patient to see their pediatrician. Over-the-counter treatment is no longer indicated in this patient.

                  Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                  POST TEST QUESTIONS
                  Pharm Fresh podcast Episode 1: Decongesting Phenylephrine Rumors
                  26-019 T

                  1. What is the formal name of the FDA’s “recipe book” for approved over-the-counter products?
                  a. OTC Monograph
                  b. FDA Approved OTCs
                  c. Monograph of Federal Approvals

                  *

                  2. When was Hatton and Hendeles’ first Citizens Petition for phenylephrine?
                  a. 2007
                  b. 2009
                  c. 2015
                  *

                  3. What was Hatton and Hendeles goal in the first Citizens Petition?
                  a. The FDA should remove oral phenylephrine from the market due to safety issues
                  b. The FDA should increase the recommended daily dose of oral phenylephrine
                  c. The FDA should move oral phenylephrine behind the counter with pseudoephedrine

                  *

                  4. Which law enacted in the 2000s was believed to cause increases in phenylephrine sales?
                  a. Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act of 2009
                  b. Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007
                  c. Combat Methamphetamine Act of 2005

                  *

                  5. All phenylephrine routes of administration are effective in current therapies EXCEPT:
                  a. Ophthalmic
                  b. Intranasal
                  c. Oral

                  *

                  6. Which disease state indicates an intranasal phenylephrine product over an oral decongestant such as pseudoephedrine?
                  a. Uncontrolled Hypertension
                  b. Nasal Polyps
                  c. Rhinitis Medicamentosa

                  *

                  7. Which condition limits some congestion self-treatments to 3 days or less?
                  a. Uncontrolled Hypertension
                  b. Nasal Polyps
                  c. Rhinitis Medicamentosa

                  *

                  8. A mother presents to the pharmacy with her 9-year-old child. She states the child is congested, despite using Flonase for the last 2 months for allergies. As the pharmacist, what do you recommend to this patient?
                  a. Flonase Sensimist. She has exhausted the regular Flonase product and continued use might irritate the child’s nasal passages
                  b. Neti Pot. The patient has exhausted all Flonase products and non-pharmacological treatment may benefit this patient.
                  c. Recommend the patient to see their pediatrician. Over-the-counter treatment is no longer indicated in this patient.

                  References

                  Full List of References

                  P5#. FDA Proposes Ending Use of Oral Phenylephrine as OTC Monograph Nasal Decongestant Active Ingredient After Extensive Review. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. November 07, 2024. Accessed January 14, 2025. https://www.fda.gov/news-events/press-announcements/fda-proposes-ending-use-oral-phenylephrine-otc-monograph-nasal-decongestant-active-ingredient-after

                  P8#. Amending Over-the-Counter Monograph M012: Cold, Cough, Allergy, Bronchodilator, and Antiasthmatic Drug Products for Over-the-Counter Human Use. Federal Register. November 11, 2024. Accessed January 15, 2025. https://www.federalregister.gov/d/2024-25910

                  P35#. OTC Drug Review Process | OTC Drug Monographs. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. October 10, 2023. Accessed January 29, 2025. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/otc-drug-review-process-otc-drug-monographs

                  P36#. FAQs About the OTC Review. Consumer Healthcare Products Association. Accessed February 10, 2025. https://www.chpa.org/about-consumer-healthcare/faqs/faqs-about-otc-review#:~:text=Each%20panel%20was%20charged%20with,of%20Federal%20Regulations%20(CFR)

                  P9#. Cold, Cough, Allergy, Bronchodilator, and Antiasthmatic Drug Products for Over-the-Counter Human Use; Amendment of Monograph for OTC Nasal Decongestant Drug Products. Federal Register. August 1, 2006. Accessed January 15, 2025. https://www.federalregister.gov/d/E6-12265

                  P4#. Code of Federal Regulations Title 21. National Archives. Last amended June 3, 2025. Accessed May 5, 2025. https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-21/chapter-I/subchapter-A/part-10/subpart-B/section-10.30

                  P7#. Hendeles L, Hatton R. Supplement to Oral Phenylephrine Citizen's Petition (FDA 2015-P-4131). May 2022. Accessed January 15, 2025. https://downloads.regulations.gov/FDA-2015-P-4131-0007/attachment_1.pdf

                  P3#. Legal Requirements for the Sale and Purchase of Drug Products Containing Pseudoephedrine, Ephedrine, and Phenylpropanolamine. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. July 14, 2025. Accessed January 12, 2025. https://www.fda.gov/drugs/information-drug-class/legal-requirements-sale-and-purchase-drug-products-containing-pseudoephedrine-ephedrine-and

                  P20#. Oral Phenylephrine as a Nasal Decongestant in the Cold, Cough, Allergy, Bronchodilator, and Antiasthmatic (CCABA) OTC Monograph. 2023 Nonprescription Drugs Advisory Committee Meeting. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. September 11-12, 2024. Accessed January 18, 2025. https://www.fda.gov/advisory-committees/advisory-committee-calendar/updated-september-11-12-2023-meeting-nonprescription-drugs-advisory-committee-meeting-announcement#event-materials.

                  P19#. Hendeles L, Hatton R. Citizen’s petition 2015-P-4131-0001 requesting a final rule removing oral phenylephrine from the final monograph for OTC nasal decongestant products. November 4, 2015. https://downloads.regulations.gov/FDA-2015-P-4131-0001/attachment_1.pdf. Accessed May 6, 2025.

                  P17#. FDA Response to 2015 Citizens Petition. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. November 8, 2024. Accessed January 22, 2025.

                  P33#. Interim Response FDA-2015-P-4131. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. May 6, 2016. Accessed January 20, 2025. https://downloads.regulations.gov/FDA-2015-P-4131-0004/attachment_1.pdf

                  P1#. Phenylephrine, a Common Decongestant, Is Ineffective, Say FDA Advisors. It’s Not Alone. October 05, 2023. Accessed January 10, 2025. https://medicine.yale.edu/news-article/phenylephrine-a-common-decongestant-is-ineffective-say-fda-advisors-its-not-alone/

                  P6#. Food and Drug Administration Center for Drug Evaluation and Research Final Summary Minutes of the Nonprescription Drugs Advisory Committee Meeting. October 2, 2023. Accessed January 14, 2025. https://www.fda.gov/media/172701/download

                  P32#. Anderson T, Suda K, Gellad W. Trends in Phenylephrine and Pseudoephedrine Sales in the US. March 5, 2024. DOI: 10.1001/jama.2023.27932.

                  P10#. CVS Health to no longer sell decongestants with phenylephrine as the only active ingredient. NBC News. October 19, 2023. Accessed January 15, 2025.
                  https://www.nbcnews.com/business/consumer/cvs-health-pull-decongestants-phenylephrine-shelves-rcna121310

                  P37#. FDA Requests Removal of All Ranitidine Products (Zantac) from the Market. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. April 1, 2020. Accessed February 8, 2025. https://www.fda.gov/news-events/press-announcements/fda-requests-removal-all-ranitidine-products-zantac-market

                  P11#. Phenylephrine Nasal Spray. MedlinePlus. November 15, 2016. Accessed January 16, 2025. https://medlineplus.gov/druginfo/meds/a616049.html#:~:text=Phenylephrine%20comes%20as%20a%200.125,to%2012%20years%20of%20age.

                  P16#. Phenylephrine (Topical). Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center. December 12, 2022. Access January 17, 2025. https://www.mskcc.org/cancer-care/patient-education/medications/adult/phenylephrine-topical

                  P12#. Phenylephrine (ophthalmic route). Mayo Clinic. Accessed January 16, 2025.
                  https://www.mayoclinic.org/drugs-supplements/phenylephrine-ophthalmic-route/description/drg-20067902

                  P13#. Phenylephrine (intravenous route). Mayo Clinic. Accessed January 16, 2025.
                  https://www.mayoclinic.org/drugs-supplements/phenylephrine-intravenous-route/description/drg-20110237

                  P14#. Morelli A, Ertmer C, Rehberg S, Lange M. Phenylephrine versus norepinephrine for initial hemodynamic support of patients with septic shock: a randomized, controlled trial. November 18, 2008. Accessed January 16. 2025. https://ccforum.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/cc7121.

                  P15#. Cooper B. Review and update on inotropes and vasopressors. January 2008. Accessed January 17, 2025. DOI: 10.1097/01.AACN.0000310743.32298.1d

                  P24#. Johnson D, Hricik J. The pharmacology of Alpha-Adrenergic Decongestants. Pharmacotherapy. November-December 1993. Accessed January 20, 2025. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/7507588/

                  P25#. Guideline for the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Management of High Blood Pressure in Adults: A Report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Clinical Practice Guidelines. American Heart Association. November 13, 2017. Accessed January 20, 2025. https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/hyp.0000000000000065

                  P26#. Label: SUDAFED SINUS CONGESTION 24 HOUR- pseudoephedrine hydrochloride tablet, film coated, extended release. DailyMed. Last updated March 20, 2023. Accessed January 20, 2025. https://dailymed.nlm.nih.gov/dailymed/drugInfo.cfm?setid=d389347d-eaa3-4571-9b84-21e662db622d

                  P27#. Is Rinsing Your Sinuses With Neti Pots Safe? U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Last updated April 28, 2025. Accessed March 5, 2025.
                  https://www.fda.gov/consumers/consumer-updates/rinsing-your-sinuses-neti-pots-safe#:~:text=Some%20children%20are%20diagnosed%20with,might%20not%20tolerate%20the%20procedure

                  P28#. Rhinocort (budesonide) Nasal Spray Label. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. December 28, 2010. Accessed March 5, 2025. https://www.accessdata.fda.gov/drugsatfda_docs/label/2010/020746s026lbl.pdf

                  P23#. Pseudoephedrine Capsules and Tablets. Cleveland Clinic. Last reviewed February 2024. Accessed January 20, 2025.
                  https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/drugs/20768-pseudoephedrine-capsules-and-tablets

                  P29#. Label: NASACORT ALLERGY 24HR- triamcinolone acetonide spray, metered. DailyMed. Last updated July 1, 2024. Accessed March 5, 2025. https://dailymed.nlm.nih.gov/dailymed/drugInfo.cfm?setid=4bff57a5-cce0-401c-a0fe-23c65c1b7ddc

                  P30#. FLONASE (fluticasone propionate) nasal spray label. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. December 28, 2010. Accessed March 5, 2025.
                  https://www.accessdata.fda.gov/drugsatfda_docs/label/2019/020121s045lbl.pdf

                  P31#. Label: FLONASE SENSIMIST ALLERGY RELIEF- fluticasone furoate spray, metered. Updated December 19, 2024. Accessed March 5, 2025. https://dailymed.nlm.nih.gov/dailymed/drugInfo.cfm?setid=107100af-7ca2-44e8-b067-c0ab0a19a6dc

                  P21#. Hermelingmeier K, Weber R, Hellmich M. Nasal irrigation as an adjunctive treatment in allergic rhinitis: A systematic review and meta-analysis. September-October 2012. Accessed May 5, 2025. https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC3904042/

                  P22#. Reinikainen L, Jaakkola J. Significance of humidity and temperature on skin and upper airway symptoms. December 13, 2003. DOI: 10.1111/j.1600-0668.2003.00155.x.

                  P34#. Hatton R, Hendeles L. What we have learned from trying to remove oral phenylephrine from the market. January 29, 2025. Accessed March 5, 2025. https://doi.org/10.1002/jac5.2080
                  P35# Amending Over-the-Counter Monograph M012: Cold, Cough, Allergy, Bronchodilator, and Antiasthmatic Drug Products for Overthe-Counter Human Use. November 7, 2024. Accessed August 3, 2025. https://www.regulations.gov/document/FDA-2024-N-4734-0001.

                  Stop the Bite: Uncover the Answers to Malaria and Dengue Fever

                  Learning Objectives

                   

                  After completing this knowledge-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

                  • RECALL symptoms associated with dengue fever and malaria
                  • DESCRIBE emerging information about dengue and malaria vaccines
                  • ASSOCIATE dengue fever and malaria vaccines for specific patients

                  After completing this knowledge-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to

                  • RECALL symptoms associated with dengue fever and malaria
                  • DESCRIBE emerging information about dengue and malaria vaccines
                  • MATCH  dengue fever and malaria vaccines by storage requirements

                  Cartoon representation of a mosquito.

                   

                  Release Date: February 28, 2026

                  Expiration Date: February 28, 2029

                  Course Fee

                  Pharmacists: $4

                  Pharmacy Technicians: $2

                  There is no grant funding for this CE activity

                  ACPE UANs

                  Pharmacist: 0009-0000-26-007-H06-P

                  Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-26-007-H06-T

                  Session Codes

                  Pharmacist:  23YC02-MTX44

                  Pharmacy Technician:  23YC02-XTM62

                  Accreditation Hours

                  0.5 hours of CE

                  Accreditation Statements

                  The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-26-007-H06-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                   

                  Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                  The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                  Faculty

                  Jessica Bylyku, BS
                  PharmD Candidate 2024
                  UConn School of Pharmacy
                  Storrs, CT

                                                            

                  Kelsey Giara, PharmD
                  Freelance Medical Writer
                  Pelham, NH

                   

                  Melody White
                  PharmD Candidate 2025
                  UConn School of Pharmacy
                  Storrs, CT

                  Faculty Disclosure

                  In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                  Dr. Giara, Jessica Bykylu and Melody White do not have any relationships with ineligible companies and therefore have nothing to disclose.

                   

                  ABSTRACT

                  Malaria and dengue (pronounced deng-ee) fever are not new diseases, but given the emergence of new vaccines, it is critical that pharmacists and pharmacy technicians increase their familiarity with them. These illnesses are both transmitted by mosquitos, but malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites while dengue fever is a viral disease caused by dengue virus. The United States is not a malaria- or dengue-endemic country, but travel to other countries puts people at risk of these conditions. Pharmacy teams should be prepared to identify potential cases and refer patients for appropriate vaccination or treatment when appropriate.

                  CONTENT

                  Content

                  INTRODUCTION

                  Malaria cases in 2020 totaled an estimated 241 million, leading to more than 600,000 deaths, mostly in Africa.1 Direct costs of malaria prevention and treatment in the United States (U.S.) total about $12 billion annually, excluding the toll it takes on affected individuals and their families.1 The World Health Organization (WHO) reports that between 100 to 400 million people are infected with dengue fever each year.2 About 80% of cases are mild and asymptomatic, but dengue fever can progress to “severe dengue,” which is classified as a medical emergency requiring immediate medical care.2,3

                   

                  Mosquitos, Malaria, and Dengue – Oh My!

                  Plasmodium parasites—common to tropical areas (e.g., Africa, South America, the Caribbean Islands, South Asia)—cause malaria.1 Most commonly, malaria is transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes, specifically the Anopheles species, during local outbreaks. There is also a term coined “airport malaria,” describing disease that is transported from an infected country to a non-infected country.4 Congenital malaria occurs when mothers infected with the disease transmit parasites to the child during pregnancy or birth.4 Although rare, prompt diagnosis is crucial to ensure infected neonates and infants survive. Transfusion-transmitted malaria is also possible where blood recipients can be infected with malaria accidently. There are no approved tests to screen blood donations for malaria, only questioning of prospective donors.4 Although rare in the U.S., complications are severe and organizations should take action to prevent potentially-infected individuals from donating.

                   

                  Patients with malaria generally present with fever, chills/sweating, headache, and weakness within 10 to 15 days of infection.5 Diarrhea, abdominal pain, and cough are also possible. As malaria progresses, patients develop a classic paroxysm (i.e., symptoms that come and go) comprising three stages6:

                  1. 15-to-60-minute cold stage (shivering and feeling cold)
                  2. 2-to-6-hour hot stage (fevers up to nearly 106°F; flushed, dry skin; and often headache, nausea, and vomiting)
                  3. 2-to-4-hour sweating stage (rapid drop in fever and sweating)

                   

                  Missed or delayed malaria diagnosis can lead to potentially fatal complicated disease manifesting as severe anemia, renal failure, altered consciousness, and multisystem organ failure.6 Clinicians diagnose malaria via a blood smear test. Although rapid and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) tests are available, medical professionals confirm diagnosis through microscopic blood smear examination.7

                   

                  Dengue fever is a viral disease caused by mosquitos—mainly females from the Aedes aegypti and Ae. albopictus species—carrying dengue virus (also known as DENV).2 Four DENV serotypes exist, so it is possible to contract the disease four times. The virus can be transmitted through mosquito bite, from pregnant mother to child, and via infected blood products/organ donations and infusions. Transovarial transmission within mosquitoes (from parent to offspring) has also been noted.2

                   

                  Most dengue cases are asymptomatic or mild and fatalities are rare, but increasing severity can be life-threatening.2,3 Providers should suspect dengue when a high fever (104°F or greater) is accompanied by any two of the following symptoms2,3:

                  • severe headache
                  • pain behind the eyes
                  • muscle/joint/bone pain
                  • nausea/vomiting
                  • swollen glands
                  • rash

                   

                  This febrile phase lasts about 2 to 7 days, and most people recover after about a week.2,3 Severe dengue is a potentially fatal complication due to plasma leakage, fluid accumulation, respiratory distress, severe bleeding, or organ impairment.2 Patients are at risk of severe dengue symptoms about 3 to 7 days after initial symptoms appear.2 As fever drops to below 100°F, patients enter a “critical phase” for 24 to 48 hours. Warning signs to watch for during the critical phase include2

                  • severe abdominal pain
                  • rapid breathing
                  • blood in vomit, stool, gums, or nose
                  • persistent vomiting
                  • restlessness/fatigue

                   

                  Clinicians use commercially available PCR or rapid diagnostic tests to confirm dengue diagnosis.2 Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays are also available to confirm active or previous infections.

                   

                  Global Implications  

                  Beyond clinical symptoms, malaria and dengue fever inflict social and financial loss for diagnosed individuals and the countries tasked with treating affected populations. Some examples of the indirect burden of these mosquito-borne diseases include1

                  • expenses for traveling and receiving treatment
                  • absences from work/school
                  • burial expenses in cases of death
                  • purchases of medication and supplies
                  • public health interventions (e.g., insecticide spraying, bed nets)
                  • opportunity loss for tourism

                   

                  Populations at increased risk of contracting malaria include infants, children younger than 5 years, pregnant women, immunosuppressed patients, and migrant workers or traveling populations.5 There is also concern that certain mosquitoes are resistant to insecticide, and by migrating throughout the world they can spread malaria to urban populations.8 Researchers have identified Anopheles gambiae mosquitoes, originally found in India and Iran, as insecticide-resistant. These are projected to put nearly 126 million people in African cities at risk for contracting malaria.8

                   

                  Populations most vulnerable to contracting dengue fever include pregnant women and children.3 Many asymptomatic or mild dengue cases go unreported. WHO reports most of the dengue burden occurs in Asia, and the number of cases has steadily increased to just over 5 million in 2019.2

                   

                  PREVENTION AND TREATMENT

                  Following prevention and treatment guidelines are crucial to lower transmission rates of dengue fever and malaria.

                   

                  Dengue Fever

                  WHO states that countries should be aware of community mosquito presence and develop active mosquito and virus surveillance to prevent further disease spread.2 They should also remain knowledgeable about the number of infected individuals.

                   

                  The dengue vaccine (Dengvaxia) has been licensed in other countries since 2015, but the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved the vaccine in 2019.2 WHO recommends people aged 9 to 45 years be vaccinated, but Dengvaxia is only FDA approved for patients 9 to 16 years old with a history of previous infection who live in high-risk areas. As a live-attenuated vaccine, it is contraindicated in individuals with severe immunodeficiency.2 Children receiving Dengvaxia need a 3-dose series administered subcutaneously with doses separated by 6 months.9 Providers should store the vaccine in the refrigerator.10 After reconstitution, it should be administered immediately or stored in the refrigerator and used within thirty minutes.

                   

                  WHO and the FDA only recommend Dengvaxia for patients with a history of dengue virus infection.10,11 This is based on clinical trial evidence that the vaccine is efficacious and safe in patients with a history of previous DENV infection because a subsequent infection is more serious and life-threatening than the first.11 They also advise countries using the vaccine to control viral spread to implement pre-vaccination screening to confirm previous infection.

                   

                  As no dengue-specific treatment is available, providers should treat infected patients symptomatically with acetaminophen, rest, and fluids.2 Patients with dengue fever should avoid non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (e.g., ibuprofen, aspirin) because they thin the blood. Given the risk of hemorrhage in this disease, blood thinners may exacerbate the problem.2

                   

                  Malaria

                  WHO recommends that countries engage in vector control and surveillance for the spread of malarial disease.5 Malaria vaccines have been in development for decades, but no malaria vaccine is available in the U.S.12 In 2021, however, WHO recommended a new malaria vaccine (Mosquirix) for children aged older than 5 months who live in areas with moderate to high transmission of P. falciparum.13 The vaccine is only recommended for children as malaria is one of the main killers of children younger than 5 years in countries with moderate or high rates of malaria.14 WHO also recommends giving the vaccine seasonally in countries where malaria transmission is high during certain seasons.13

                   

                  Initial Mosquirix pilot studies are ongoing, and more widespread vaccine rollout is expected in 2023. For now, people in the U.S. traveling to malaria-endemic countries continue to use oral medications as chemoprophylaxis (i.e., to prevent the disease), including atovaquone/proguanil, chloroquine, doxycycline, mefloquine, primaquine, and tafenoquine.15

                   

                  Clinicians administer Mosquirix as a 4-dose schedule.16 The vaccine’s adverse effects are pain and swelling at the injection site and fever.17 Providers should store the vaccine in the refrigerator. After reconstitution it should be administered immediately or stored in the refrigerator and used within 6 hours.16

                   

                  Malaria treatment involves the use of antimalarial drugs based on four main factors15:

                  • Infection severity: Malaria infection is either considered uncomplicated (effectively treated with oral antimalarials) or severe (requiring aggressive intravenous antimalarial therapy).
                  • Infecting Plasmodium species: P. falciparum and P. knowlesi infections can cause rapidly progressive severe illness or death, necessitating urgent therapy initiation, while other species are less likely to cause severe disease. P. vivax and P. ovale infections also require treatment for hypnozoites (parasites that lay dormant in the liver and then re-awaken to become active infectants).
                  • Drug susceptibility: In addition to disease severity differences, Plasmodium species also have different drug susceptibilities, so providers select an antimalarial therapy based on the species of the infecting parasite. If the species cannot be determined, patients must initiate antimalarial treatment against chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum as soon as possible.
                  • Previous antimalarial use: Patients using antimalarial medication as chemoprophylaxis, should not receive that same drug or drug combination to treat malaria infection unless no other options are available.

                   

                  CONCLUSION

                  Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians should be familiar with the signs and symptoms of malaria and dengue fever to inform patients when these conditions are suspected and about their appropriate treatment. Pharmacy teams who suspect a case of malaria or dengue fever should refer patients for medical attention and contact their local or state health department.

                   

                   

                   

                   

                  Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                  PHARMACIST POSTTEST

                  Learning Objectives
                  ● RECALL symptoms associated with dengue fever and malaria
                  ● DESCRIBE emerging information about dengue and malaria vaccines
                  ● OPTIMIZE dengue fever and malaria vaccines for specific patients

                  1. Which of the following is TRUE?
                  A. Dengue fever symptoms are always severe and most patients die
                  B. Malaria presents as a cold stage, hot stage, and sweating stage
                  C. Pain behind the eyes is a warning sign for malaria

                  2. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the malaria vaccine?
                  A. WHO recommends it for children 5 months and older who live in endemic areas
                  B. It is FDA approved for patients 9 to 16 years old with a history of previous infection
                  C. Clinicians administer it as a 3-dose series with each dose separated by 6 months

                  3. A patient comes to the pharmacy indicating she and her family are being transferred to a country where dengue is common. She wants to have her three children who are ages 3, 5, and 7 vaccinated for dengue before they move. What is the BEST thing to tell her?
                  A. We should schedule your children to be vaccinated about six weeks before you plan to move so they develop antibodies before you actually relocate.
                  B. We only vaccinate children who have already had dengue because a second infections is more serious and life-threatening than the first.
                  C. Wait until you arrive in the country because they will want to do pre-vaccination screening to confirm your children have not been infected previously.

                  Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                  PHARMACY TECHNICIAN POSTTEST

                  Learning Objectives
                  ● RECALL symptoms associated with dengue fever and malaria
                  ● DESCRIBE emerging information about dengue and malaria vaccines
                  ● CLASSIFY dengue fever and malaria vaccines by storage requirements

                  1. Which of the following is TRUE?
                  A. Dengue fever symptoms are always severe and most patients die
                  B. Malaria presents as a cold stage, hot stage, and sweating stage
                  C. Pain behind the eyes is a warning sign for malaria

                  2. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the malaria vaccine?
                  A. WHO recommends it for children 5 months and older who live in endemic areas
                  B. It is FDA approved for patients 9 to 16 years old with a history of previous infection
                  C. Clinicians administer it as a 3-dose series with each dose separated by 6 months

                  3. A patient at your pharmacy is receiving the dengue fever vaccine. The patient’s mother asks you if they can use the restroom before the pharmacist administers the vaccine. You look over to see that the pharmacist has just finished reconstituting Dengvaxia for this patient. Which of the following is the BEST response?
                  A. Advise the mother not to leave the pharmacy waiting area, as the pharmacist needs to administer this vaccine immediately or it will expire
                  B. Advise the mother to take her daughter to the restroom, and the pharmacist can administer this vaccine within 6 hours as long as it’s refrigerated
                  C. Advise the mother to take her daughter to the restroom but return within 30 minutes, and ensure the pharmacist refrigerates the reconstituted vaccine

                  References

                  Full List of References

                  REFERENCES

                  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Malaria’s Impact Worldwide. Updated December 16, 2021. Accessed November 30, 2022. https://www.cdc.gov/malaria/malaria_worldwide/impact.html
                  2. World Health Organization. Dengue and severe dengue. Updated January 10, 2022. Accessed November 1, 2022. https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/dengue-and-severe-dengue
                  3. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Dengue. Updated August 3, 2022. Accessed November 1, 2022. https://www.cdc.gov/dengue/index.html
                  4. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Parasites – Malaria. Updated August 19, 2022. Accessed November 1, 2022. https://www.cdc.gov/parasites/malaria/index.html
                  5. World Health Organization. Malaria. Updated July 26, 2022. Accessed November 1, 2022. https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/malaria
                  6. Crutcher JM, Hoffman SL. Chapter 83: Malaria. In: Baron S, ed. Medical Microbiology. 4th ed. University of Texas Medical Branch at Galveston; 1996. Accessed November 1, 2022. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK8584/
                  7. Stanford Health Care. Malaria diagnosis. Accessed November 1, 2022. https://stanfordhealthcare.org/medical-conditions/primary-care/malaria/diagnosis.html
                  8. American Society of Tropical Medicine and Hygiene. Invasive mosquitos – Anopheles stephensi in Ethiopia. November 1, 2022. Accessed November 30, 2022. https://astmhpressroom.wordpress.com/annual-meeting-2022/anopheles-stephensi-in-ethiopia/
                  9. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Dengue Vaccine VIS. Updated December 17, 2021. Accessed November 29, 2022. https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/vis/vis-statements/dengue.html
                  10. Dengvaxia [prescribing information]. Sanofi Pasteur; 2019.
                  11. Ask the Experts: Dengue. Immunize.org. Updated February 16, 2022. Accessed November 21, 2022. https://www.immunize.org/askexperts/experts_dengue.asp
                  12. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Malaria: Vaccines. Updated October 7, 2021. Accessed December 2, 2022. https://www.cdc.gov/malaria/malaria_worldwide/reduction/vaccine.html
                  13. Q&A on RTS,S malaria vaccine. World Health Organization. Updated April 21, 2022. Accessed November 30, 2022. https://www.who.int/news-room/questions-and-answers/item/q-a-on-rts-s-malaria-vaccine
                  14. UNICEF. Millions more children to benefit from malaria vaccine as UNICEF secures supply. August 16, 2022. Accessed November 22, 2022. https://www.unicef.org/press-releases/millions-more-children-benefit-malaria-vaccine-unicef-secures-supply
                  15. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Treatment of Malaria: Guidelines for Clinicians (United States). Updated September 30, 2022. Accessed November 30, 2022 https://www.cdc.gov/malaria/diagnosis_treatment/clinicians1.html
                  16. Mosquirix (Product Information). European Medicines Agency. Updated January 8, 2022. Accessed November 30, 2022. https://www.ema.europa.eu/en/documents/outside-eu-product-information/mosquirix-product-information_en.pdf
                  17. World Health Organization. Malaria: The malaria vaccine implementation programme (MVIP). March 2, 2020. Accessed November 30, 2022. https://www.who.int/news-room/questions-and-answers/item/malaria-vaccine-implementation-programme