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Antipsychotic Utilization in a Pediatric Population-RECORDED WEBINAR

About this Course

This course is a recorded (home study version) of the CE Finale Encore Webinars.

 

Learning Objectives

Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

1. Describe current practice guidelines regarding the use of antipsychotic medications in a pediatric population.
2.  Outline adverse effects associated with the use of antipsychotic medication in a pediatric population.
3.  Discuss when to initiate an antipsychotic medication in a pediatric patient.

Release and Expiration Dates

Released:  December 15, 2023
Expires:  December 15, 2026

Course Fee

$17 Pharmacist

ACPE UAN

0009-0000-23-043-H01-P

Session Code

23RW43-XYW84

Accreditation Hours

1.0 hours of CE

Additional Information

 

How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

Accreditation Statement

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-043-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

Grant Funding

There is no grant funding for this activity.

Faculty

Megan J. Ehret PharmD, MS, BCPP
Professor, Co-Director of Mental Health Program
University of Maryland School of Pharmacy
Baltimore, MD

Faculty Disclosure

In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

  • Dr. Ehret is a consultant with Saladex Biomedical

Disclaimer

The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

Content

Post Test

Post Test

Antipsychotic Utilization in a Pediatric Population

Megan Ehret, PharmD

 
1. Which medication is a first-line treatment option for a 14-year-old patient with newly diagnosed schizophrenia?
a. Divalproex Sodium
b. Haloperidol
C. Risperidone

2. Which medication is a first-line treatment option for a 16-year-old patient with bipolar disorder, most recent episode depressed?
A. Aripiprazole
B. Divalproex Sodium
C. Lurasidone

3. Which medication can cause the most substantial weight gain?
A. Cariprazine
B. Lumateperone
C. Olanzapine

4. Which rating scale should be used to screen patients for tardive dyskinesia?

A. Extrapyramidal Symptom Rating Scale
B. Barnes Akathisia Rating Scale
C. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale

5. In which disease state would it be appropriate to initiate an antipsychotic medication in a pediatric patient?
A. Autism
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Intellectual Disability

Handouts

VIDEO

Indication Deviation in Women’s Health: Off-Label Drug Use from Conception to Menopause-RECORDED WEBINAR

About this Course

This course is a recorded (home study version) of the CE Finale Encore Webinars.

 

Learning Objectives

Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

Recognize diverse instances of off-label drug use in women's health, spanning preconception to menopause
Discuss risks and advantages associated with off-label drug utilization during

various reproductive stages

Identify the pharmacist's role in advocating for safe and informed off-label drug use for women’s health

Release and Expiration Dates

Released:  December 15, 2023
Expires:  December 15, 2026

Course Fee

$17 Pharmacist

ACPE UAN

0009-0000-23-040-H01-P

Session Code

23RW40-JXT85

Accreditation Hours

1.0 hours of CE

Additional Information

 

How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

Accreditation Statement

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-040-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

Grant Funding

There is no grant funding for this activity.

Faculty

Kelsey Giara, PharmD
Freelance Medical Writer
Pelham, NH

Faculty Disclosure

In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

  • Kelsey Giara has no relationships with ineligible companies

Disclaimer

The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

Content

Post Test

Pharmacist Post-test

Learning Objectives
After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
• RECOGNIZE diverse instances of off-label drug use in women's health, spanning pre-conception to menopause
• DISCUSS risks and advantages associated with off-label drug utilization during various reproductive stages
• IDENTIFY the pharmacist's role in advocating for safe and informed off-label drug use for women’s health

1. Which of the following can be treated through off-label use of metformin?
A. Hirsutism of PCOS
B. PCOS with BMI ≥ 25 kg/m2
C. Endometriosis

2. Which of the following medications is used off-label to induce ovulation in women experiencing infertility and trying to conceive?
A. Letrozole
B. Clomiphene citrate
C. Cetrorelix

3. Which of the following drugs is used off-label to treat menopausal hot flashes?
A. Clonidine
B. Paroxetine
C. Fezolinetant

4. Which of the following is TRUE about off-label medication use during pregnancy?
A. All drugs have sufficient efficacy and safety data to support their use during pregnancy
B. Providers should use the letter-based FDA rating system to aid in shared clinical decision-making
C. About three-quarters of pregnant women use medications for off-label uses during pregnancy

5. A patient comes to your pharmacy experiencing frequent hot flashes. She states that a friend suggested she try taking black cohosh. She takes lisinopril for hypertension and metformin for prediabetes, and she is otherwise healthy. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Black cohosh will interact with your blood pressure medication, so you should not take it. Ask your doctor about clonidine instead.
B. Black cohosh shows some benefit, but clinical trials are inconsistent and available data is insufficient. You can try taking 20 mg daily for a few weeks to see if your symptoms improve.
C. Black cohosh shows no benefit whatsoever for VMS of menopause. Ask your doctor about letrozole instead.

6. Which of the following is TRUE about Pregnancy Exposure Registries?
A. They steal data about women’s babies and sell it on the black market
B. They are FDA-sponsored registries that collect health information
C. Pregnant women volunteer to share their experiences with off-label drug use

Handouts

VIDEO

Long Acting Injectables LIVE Workshop-January 16, 2025

About this Course

Pharmacists possess the training and skills necessary to administer certain long-acting injectable (LAI) medications used in the management of mental illnesses and substance use disorders. Through collaborative practice agreements, pharmacists can administer Long Acting Injectables in almost every state. In some states, including the state of Connecticut, this occurs via collaborative agreements, and necessary injection and disease state training.  Administration of these medications by pharmacists can increase accessibility of care for patients.

UConn has developed web-based and LIVE continuing pharmacy education activities to enhance pharmacists’ skills and help them make sound clinical decisions about long acting injectables administration. This course includes eight hours of CPE (or eight hours of credit), required by the State of Connecticut.  Successful completion of these eight hours (with five activities consisting of three hours online pre-requisite work, two hours of LIVE Law CE and three hours of hands-on LAIA training) will earn the pharmacist a Certificate in Long-Acting Injectables of Psychotropic Medication.

The LIVE Workshop listed below is required to earn the Long-Acting Injectable Psychotropic Medication Pharmacist certificate.  The Workshop consists of 2 hours of Live Law CE-Collaborative Practice Agreement & Documentation Best Practices and 3 hours of Hands-on training-Long Acting Injectables Hands-On LIVE Workshop.

The Long-Acting Injectable Psychotropic Medication Pharmacist Certificate Training Program costs $299 and includes both the 3 online prerequisites and this full day of LIVE training.

TBD
8:30 am - 3:15 pm
Pharmacy Biology Bldg-Room 229
Storrs, CT

A light breakfast and lunch will be served.

Target Audience

Pharmacists who are interested in administering long acting injectable psychotropic medications to their patients.

This activity is NOT accredited for technicians.

Pharmacist Learning Objectives

At the end of this application and practice-based continuing education activity, the learner will be able to:

Describe the impact of stigma within the healthcare system and utilize non-stigmatizing terminology when talking to and about patients with psychiatric and/or substance use disorders
Identify patient barriers to obtaining appropriate treatment for psychiatric and/or substance use disorders
Explain the potential impact of LAI medications on patient health outcomes
Identify the key components of the Collaborative Practice Agreement associated with LAI medications.
Describe the key components of the Notes on Injection Clinical Encounter (NICE) documentation form.
Apply different best practices for documentation, maintenance of files, and communications with

prescribers.

 

Describe the steps in the safe and effective use of different LAI medications for schizophrenia, bipolar

disorder,and substance use disorder.

Compare and contrast how the administration techniques are similar or different for the different LAI

medications.

Demonstrate the use sterile injection techniques and best practices in the administration of different LAI

Release Date

Released:  1/31/2024
Expires:  1/31/2027

Course Fee

$299

ACPE UANs

0009-0000-24-012-L03-P

0009-0000-24-013-L01-P

Accreditation Hours

5.0 hours of CE

Bundle Options

If desired, pharmacists can register for the entire Long-Acting Injectable Psychotropic Medication Pharmacist Certificate Training Program
or for the individual online activities.   The Certificate consists of three activities in our online selection, and 2 activities that comprise the 5 hour LIVE workshop.

You may register for individual online topics at $17/CE Credit Hour, or for the Entire LAIA Certificate (register for ALL 5 of the activities listed under Long Acting Injectables) at $299.00 which includes 2 hours of LIVE Law CE, 3 hours of hands-on training in LAIA and the 3 online pre-requisites listed below.

You must register for ALL 5 activities to receive the bundled pricing of $299.00

Accreditation Statement

ACPE logo

The University of Connecticut, School of Pharmacy, is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit will be issued for 5.0 hours (or 0.5 CEUS). Two hours (0.2 CEUs) of live Law CE-Collaborative Practice Agreement & Documentation Best Practices for activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-012-L03-P, and 3 hours (0.3 CEUs) for Long Acting Injectables Hands-On LIVE Workshop ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-013-L01-P. UConn will be award credits once learner attends the full 5 hours, successfully passes the injection assessment and submits their evaluation.  Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 24 hours of your submitting the evaluation.

Grant Funding

There is no grant funding for this activity.

Requirements for Successful Completion

To receive CE credit for this activity, the leaner must attend the full 5 hours of the LIVE workshop, pass the injection assessment, and submit their evaluation online.

To Receive the Certificate in Long Acting Injectables the learner must complete this live workshop (requirements described above, and the 3 online pre-requisites.

Faculty

Kristin Waters, PharmD, BCPS, BCPP,
Assistant Clinical Professor
UConn School of Pharmacy
Storrs, CT

Nathaniel Rickles, PharmD, PhD, BCPP, FAPhA
Professor of Pharmacy Practice
UConn School of Pharmacy
Storrs, CT

Sindu Sahadevan, PharmD, BCGP
Medical Science Liaison-CNS Psychiatry
Teva Pharmaceuticals
New York, NY

Sharon Spicer, BSRN
Director of Quality Assurance and Customer Success
Connecticut Pharmacy & Long Term Care
Wallingford, CT

Jehan Marino, PharmD, BCPP
Medical Science Liaison Director-Neuroscience Field Medical Affairs
Otsuka Pharmaceutical Development & Commercialization, Inc.
New York, NY

Yasmin Togun, PhD, MPH
Medical Science Liaison
Otsuka Pharmaceutical Development & Commercialization, Inc.
New York, NY

 

 

Faculty Disclosure

In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

Dr. Waters is a consultant with Janssen Pharmaceuticals. She will discuss all drugs without bias. All financial interests with ineligible companies (as noted) have been mitigated.

Dr. Sahadevan is a medical Science liaison with Teva Pharmaceuticals

Drs. Marino and Togen are medical science liaisons with Otsuka Pharmaceuticals

Dr. Rickles and Sharon Spicer have no relationships with ineligible companies.

Disclaimer

This activity may contain discussion of off label/unapproved use of drugs. The content and views presented in this educational program are those of the faculty and do not necessarily represent those of the University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy. Please refer to the official prescribing information for each product for discussion of approved indications, contraindications, and warnings.

Treating Gout without Doubt

Learning Objectives

 

After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

1. Describe gout's pathogenesis, relationship to hyperuricemia, and complications of untreated gout
2. Describe the diagnosis and goals of therapy for gout
3. Recall nonpharmacologic therapy for the management of gout and medications that can increase serum uric acid level
4. Discuss the appropriate approach to gout therapy (acute attack treatment, prevention of future gout attacks, "medication-in-pocket," and "treat-to-target") and its timing

After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:

1. Describe gout's pathogenesis, relationship to hyperuricemia, and complications of untreated gout
2. Recall nonpharmacologic therapy for the management of gout and medications that can increase serum uric acid level
3. Recognize different pharmacological classes and regimens for urate-lowering therapy (ULT) and target serum uric acid level
4. Define the "treat-to-target" and "medication-in-pocket" approaches in gout therapy

     

    Release Date: January 10, 2024

    Expiration Date: January 10, 2027

    Course Fee

    Pharmacists:  $7

    Pharmacy Technicians: $4

    There is no funding for this CE.

    ACPE UANs

    Pharmacist: 0009-0000-24-006-H01-P

    Pharmacy Technician:  0009-0000-24-006-H01-T

    Session Codes

    Pharmacist:  24YC06-JBX39

    Pharmacy Technician: 24YC06-XJB44

    Accreditation Hours

    2.0 hours of CE

    Accreditation Statements

    The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-006-H01-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

     

    Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

    The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

    Faculty

    Samar Nicolas, RPh, PharmD, CPPS
    Assistant Professor of Pharmacy Practice
    MCPHS University
    Worcester/Manchester, MA

    Faculty Disclosure

    In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

    Samar Nicolas has no relationships with ineligible companies.

     

    ABSTRACT

    Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis affecting about 9.2 million adults in the United States (US) and is the result of hyperurice-mia. Gout results from the chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues. Although gout can affect any joint, initial attacks usually in-volve the big toe joint. The most recent guideline for the management of gout recommends colchicine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, or glucocorticoids (oral, intraarticular, intramuscular) as first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares. Patient-specific factors guide the drug choice among the first-line agents. Interleukin-1 inhibitors or adrenocorticotropic hormone are alternative agents. Pharmacists are well-positioned to assess adherence to ULT and educate patients about the importance of urate lowering therapy. Pharmacy technicians can ensure that patients have refills on their medication-in-pocket prescription to facilitate early initiation.

    CONTENT

    Content

    INTRODUCTION

    “I’ve been shot, and I’ve been stabbed; nothing compares to gout pain.”

    This is how Jim, a 77 year old man, describes his pain as he hobbles into the pharmacy to refill his prescription for colchicine. Jim complains that colchicine is not controlling his gout. He is wearing slippers that show his red swollen joint around his right big toe that is warm and painful to touch. Jim says his physician explained that these symptoms are due to podagra, uric acid crystallization and settling in the joint between his foot and big toe.1 As Jim speaks, his breath projects a strong alcohol smell.

    Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis affecting about 9.2 million adults in the United States (US) and is the result of hyperuricemia.2,3 Men are at higher risk of developing gout than women.4 Other risk factors include post-menopause, genetics, end-stage renal disease, and major organ transplant.

    Uric acid overproduction, under-excretion, or both, elevate serum uric acid levels.5 Underexcretion of uric acid accounts for about 90% of gout cases.6 Human bodies produce uric acid as they break down dying tissues.4 Other sources of uric acid are foods high in purines, such as meats, seafood, and alcoholic beverages.7, 8 Ancient Greek history states that only rich people, who could afford these expensive foods, experience gout.9 Therefore, in the 5th century before Christmas (B.C.), people referred to gout as “the disease of kings.”10

    PATHOGENESIS

    Uric acid circulates in the blood as monosodium urate.11 In the kidneys, uric acid and urate undergo filtration and secretion into the filtrate followed by about 90% reabsorption into the blood.12 The American College of Rheumatology (ACR) guideline defines hyperuricemia as serum uric acid of 6.8 mg/dL or greater, the level above which urate becomes insoluble in the blood.4

    Gout results from the chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues.4,13 Insoluble monosodium urate crystals form stone-like deposits, known as tophi, in soft tissues, synovial tissues, or bones.14,15 Tophi trigger an inflammatory response, which presents as an acute gout attack.15,16 However, hyperuricemia does not always result in gout.4

    Although gout can affect any joint, initial attacks usually involve the big toe joint. Gout attacks are sudden and very painful.17 Acute gout attacks reach maximum pain level in 12 to 24 hours and may last 3 to 14 days if patients do not seek therapy.18 For this reason, all healthcare providers including those on pharmacy teams need to educate patients to seek medical care. Effective gout management reduces the risk of long-term complications like degenerative arthritis, urate nephropathy, infections, renal stones, joint fractures, and nerve or spinal cord impingement.19

     

    DIAGNOSIS OF GOUT

    Clinicians diagnose gout by collecting patient history, examining the patient, laboratory workup, and imaging.19 Uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid or tophi in tissues and/or bones confirm gout diagnosis regardless of the uric acid level.4

    TREATMENT OF GOUT

    The ACR guideline describes 3 treatment goals for patients with gout20:

    1. Terminating the acute gout attack
    2. Preventing future attacks
    3. Lowering the serum uric acid level

    Terminating the Acute Gout Attack

    The ACR published the most recent guideline for the management of gout in 2020. The ACR guideline recommends colchicine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or glucocorticoids (oral, intraarticular, intramuscular) as first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares.20  Patient-specific factors guide the drug choice among the first-line agents. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) inhibitors or adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) are alternative agents.20  If a first-line agent is ineffective, intolerable, or contraindicated, the ACR guideline recommends switching to another first-line agent before trying alternative agents. Topical ice is an adjunct to pharmacologic therapy. The severity of the gout flare guides the treatment duration.

     

    Colchicine

    Colchicine exerts its anti-inflammatory effects by binding to free tubulin dimers leading to microtubule polymerization inhibition, which affects cellular function.21, 22 Colchine has had an interesting history, as the SIDEBAR explains. Common side effects of colchicine are dose-dependent and include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.  Because of its mechanism of action, toxic levels of colchicine inhibit cellular division leading to failure of multiple organs .22 Colchicine doses of 0.8 mg/kg are lethal.23 Colchicine undergoes extensive tissue distribution and therefore, a lower dose can be toxic in patients with liver or renal failure. Some unchanged colchicine undergoes renal excretion through glomerular filtration and therefore, requires dosage adjustment for renal dysfunction.21, 24  Cytochrome P450 3A4 hepatic enzymes metabolize colchicine.21, 25 P-glycoprotein facilitates colchicine removal from the body.26 Co-administration of medications that inhibit CYP3A4 enzyme activity (example: grapefruit juice, azole antifungals, erythromycin, verapamil) increase the risk of colchicine toxicity.21, 25 In addition, co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors (example: digoxin) increases the risk of colchicine toxicity.26 Toxic symptoms are dose-dependent with increasing severity.27 Patients with toxicity may present with gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), hypotension, lactic acidosis, or acute kidney injury.22, 27 To decrease the risk of toxicity, colchicine’s prescribing information recommends avoiding its co-administration with P-glycoprotein inhibitors or CYP3A4 inhibitors in patients with renal or hepatic impairment.28 For other patients, the prescribing information recommends weighing risks versus benefits before co-administering colchicine with medications that pose a significant drug interaction.

     

    SIDEBAR: HISTORY OF COLCHICINE

    Colchicine is derived from a plant, Colchicum automnale.29 Other names for this plant include Autumn Crocus, meadow saffron, naked lady, and colchicum.30 Ebers Papyrus, an Egyptian medical document on herbs dating back to 1500 BC, indicates the use of C. automnale for joint pain.31 In 1833, a German pharmacist analyzed the substance and gave it the name colchicine.29 In France, in 1819, a chemist and a pharmacist isolated colchicine from the plant. In 1884, a French pharmacist produced and sold colchicine as 1 mg granules, which is still available in some countries.29,32 Colchicine accounts for about 0.1-0.6% of the plant content.33 Non-surprisingly, the C. automnale plant is poisonous. Humans should not ingest the plant. Symptoms of C. automnale toxicity resemble the side effects or toxicity of colchicine.34 These symptoms range from diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting to organ failure and death.

    Colchicine was available for decades in the US without a U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved labeling.35 Despite the Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requiring the FDA to approve medications based on efficacy and safety data, colchicine was grandfathered in. Grandfathered drugs were medications available on market before the Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act of 1938 or its amendments in 1962.

    In 2006, the FDA initiated the unapproved drug initiative (UDI).36 The goal of the UDI program was to decrease the number of medications in the United States that do not carry FDA approval. Under the UDI program, the FDA allowed exclusive marketing to manufacturers who obtain FDA approval. Some pharmacists and pharmacy technicians may recall colchicine shortage as manufacturers of colchicine received warning letters from the FDA to stop selling colchicine.37 Mutual Pharmaceutical Company submitted a new drug application (NDA) for colchicine in November 2008.38 The UDI did not require manufacturers to conduct new clinical trials to obtain FDA approval. Mutual Pharmaceutical Company’s NDA included data from randomized controlled trials in 1974 and 2004 that proved the safety and efficacy of colchicine. As a result, in July 2009 the FDA approved colchicine for the treatment of gout and familial Mediterranean fever. Colchicine came back to the US market under brand name Colcrys.39

     

    Colchicine is light sensitive. Pharmacies should protect colchicine from light and dispense it in a light-resistant container.28 The FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide to patients when dispensing colchicine.40 Medication guides inform patients of potential serious adverse reactions and harm mitigation strategies. The Institute for Safe Medical Practices (ISMP) lists colchicine on the look-alike sound-alike (LASA) list due to potential for confusion with Cortrosyn, which is the brand name for cosyntropin.41  Of note, cosyntropin is a synthetic adrenocorticotropin hormone that has anti-inflammatory properties and is an alternative agent for gout attacks.42 In patients with a history of gout, the ACR guideline recommends a “medication-in-pocket” (discussed below) approach to allow early initiation of an anti-inflammatory drug at the onset of a gout flare.20 Since colchicine has anti-inflammatory properties, it is an option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach.

    The pharmacist takes a close look at Jim’s prescription refill history to figure out why colchicine is not working for Jim. The pharmacist explores several possibilities:

    • Is Jim adhering to his urate-lowering therapy (ULT)?
    • Is Jim refilling his colchicine as part of a gout flare prophylactic therapy upon initiating ULT?
    • Is Jim asking for colchicine as a “medication-in-pocket” approach?
    • Is Jim consuming excessive alcohol?
    • Is Jim eating foods rich in purines?
    • Is Jim taking any prescription or over-the-counter medications that may increase his uric acid level?

    NSAIDs

    The FDA has approved indomethacin, naproxen, and sulindac for the treatment of acute gout flare.43,44, 45 However, the guideline does not recommend a specific NSAID.20 Choice of agent depends on patient-specific factors including cardiovascular (CV) risk, gastrointestinal (GI) risk, cost, and availability without a prescription.46 Celecoxib is a selective cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor and therefore carries a low GI risk but is associated with a dose-dependent increase in CV risk.47, 48 Ibuprofen carries a low GI risk. Indomethacin, naproxen, diclofenac, and sulindac carry a moderate GI risk.49, 50 Among the nonselective NSAIDs, CV risk is highest with diclofenac and lowest with naproxen.51 Despite differences in CV risk among nonselective NSAIDs, the FDA mandates a boxed warning for all NSAIDs about increased  risk of thrombosis, myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke.52, 53 In addition, the FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide to patients when dispensing a prescription for NSAIDs.54 Any NSAID is an option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach.20

    Glucocorticoids

    The ACR guideline does not recommend a specific oral glucocorticoid.20 Parenteral glucocorticoids (intramuscular, intravenous, or intraarticular) are alternative options for patients who cannot tolerate oral therapy. Glucocorticoids (example: prednisone, methylprednisolone) are an attractive option for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) or those who cannot tolerate colchicine or NSAIDs.1,55 Short-term glucocorticoids do not cause significant side effects.56, 57 Glucocorticoids are an additional option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach, including injectable formulations for patients who cannot take oral medications.20 Methylprednisolone is available in different dosage forms such as oral, intramuscular (as acetate or succinate), intravenous (as acetate), and intraarticular (as acetate).58

    Anakinra

    Anakinra is an IL-1 receptor antagonist.59 It blocks the activity of the inflammatory mediatory IL-1. Anakinra has an off-label indication for gout attacks at a dose of 100 mg subcutaneously daily for 3 to 5 days.60, 61 The ACR guideline classifies anakinra as an alternative agent, particularly due to cost.20 The manufacturer recommends storing anakinra in the refrigerator and protecting from light until ready for administration.62 Patients can self-administer anakinra after demonstrating proper administration technique.59

    ACTH

    Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) binds to melanocortin receptors, which triggers the release of endogenous steroids, thus decreasing inflammation.63 The ACR guideline recommends ACTH as an alternative agent.20,63 ACTH is available as an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.64 The purified cortrophin formulation carries an indication for acute gouty arthritis.65 The manufacturer does not provide a dosing recommendation specific for gout and recommends caution in patients with renal insufficiency.64-66 The manufacturer recommends storing ACTH in the refrigerator until ready for administration and warming to room temperature before injecting.67

    Table 1 summarizes the first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares.

    Table 1. First-line Agents for the Treatment of Gout Flares20, 24, 44-46, 56, 68-71 
    Therapy Dose Comment Monitoring parameters
    Colchicine ·        Day 1 of therapy: Use treatment dose of 1.2 mg by mouth (PO) as soon as possible then 0.6 mg after one hour. Maximum dose 1.8 mg/day.

    ·        Day 2 and until flare resolves, use prophylactic dose of 0.6 mg PO once or twice daily.

    If creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 30 mL/min:

     

    ·        Use 1.2 mg PO as soon as possible then single dose of 0.6 mg after one hour. Avoid repeating therapy within a 14-day period.

    ·        Alternatively, use 0.3 mg PO as soon as possible as a single dose. Avoid repeating therapy within 3-7 days.

     

    If patient is on dialysis:

    ·        Use 0.6 mg PO as a single dose. Avoid repeating therapy within a 14-day period.

    Monitor patients with CrCl ≤ 80 mL/min closely for adverse effects.
    NSAIDs

     

    ·        Indomethacin: 50 mg three time daily until pain is tolerable (usually, 3 to 5 days).

    ·        Sulindac: 200 mg twice daily until attack resolves (usually, 7 days).

    ·        Naproxen: 750 mg x 1 dose then 250 mg every 8 hours until attack resolves (usually, 2 days).

    ·        The manufacturer does not provide recommendations for renal dosage adjustment.

    ·        The Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines recommends avoiding use of NSAIDs If CrCl < 30 mL/minute.

    Monitor GI, renal, and CV toxicity in elderly patients.

    Prescribe lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible.

    Glucocorticoids ·        Follow specific glucocorticoid dosing recommendation. Safest option in patients with CKD. Monitor serum glucose, blood pressure, electrolytes, mood changes, and recurrent infections.

     

    Interestingly, a panel consisting of eight patients with gout participated in the development of the 2020 ACR guidelines.20 The patient panel provided valuable input from a patient perspective regarding therapy preference for patients with an established gout diagnosis. The patient panel strongly favored a medication-in-pocket approach for the treatment of acute gout flares. With this approach, the clinician prescribes an anti-inflammatory medication that the patient keeps on hand for use as needed.72 Moreover, the patient panel favored an injectable dosage form for the medication-in-pocket to control the pain faster in patients who can take nothing by mouth. The medication-in-pocket approach ensures that patients have quick access to an anti-inflammatory medication at the first onset of gout attack symptoms.20

    Jim’s colchicine regimen is consistent with the “medication-in-pocket” to treat an acute gout flare.

    MANAGEMENT OF CHRONIC GOUT

    The goal of chronic gout management is to lower the serum uric acid level with ULT, if indicated, and to prevent future attacks.20 ULT includes medications that decrease uric acid production or promote uric acid excretion.73 The ACR 2020 guideline recommends a “treat-to-target” approach that guides ULT dose titration and maintenance to achieve serum uric acid of less than 6 mg/dL.20 Lower ULT initial dosing with subsequent titration decreases the risk of gout flare associated with ULT initiation.20

    Pause and Ponder: What patient factors determine eligibility for urate lowering therapy (ULT)?

    Table 2 provides recommendation on initiation of ULT based on patient-specific factors.

    Table 2 - Indication for ULT 20
    Patient factors 2020 ACR guideline recommendation Comment
    ≥1 subcutaneous tophi ACR guideline strongly recommends initiating ULT Moderate or high certainty of evidence that benefits of ULT consistently outweigh the risks
    Gout-attributable radiographic damage
    ≥2 gout flares per year
    > 1 flare but < 2 flares per year ACR guideline conditionally recommends initiating ULT Low certainty of evidence or no data available and/or benefits and risks closely balanced
    First flare and any of the following:

    ·        Chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage ≥ 3

    ·        Serum uric acid > 9 mg/dL

    ·        Urolithiasis

    First gout flare ACR guideline conditionally recommends against initiating ULT
    Asymptomatic hyperuricemia*

    *Serum uric acid > 6.8 mg/dL

    Pause and Ponder: Which urate-lowering agent is first-line therapy?

    Table 3 summarizes urate-lowering medications.

    Table 3 - Urate Lowering Medications 20,74-76
    Pharmacological class Mechanism of action Medication Comments
    Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors Inhibition of xanthine oxidase resulting in decreased conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol

    Febuxostat

    ·        Allopurinol is first-line agent.

    ·        Start allopurinol at ≤ 100 mg/day in normal kidney function and ≤ 50 mg/day in CKD stage ≥ 3 then titrate.

    ·        Start febuxostat at ≤ 40 mg/day then titrate.

     

    Uricosuric Agents Inhibition of urate reabsorption in the renal tubules resulting in increased excretion of uric acid in the urine. Probenecid ·        ACR guideline strongly recommends XOI over probenecid for patients with CKD stage ≥ 3

    ·        Start probenecid at 500 mg PO once or twice daily then titrate.

    Urate Oxidase Enzyme Catalysis of uric acid oxidation to water-soluble allantoin resulting in increased excretion of the allantoin in the urine. Pegloticase ·        ACR guideline strongly recommends against use of pegloticase as a first-line agent

    ·        Administer pegloticase 8 mg IV infusion every 2 weeks along with methotrexate 15 mg PO once a week with a folic acid supplement.

    ·        Start weekly methotrexate and folic acid supplementation 4 weeks before initiating pegloticase and continue while on pegloticase.

     

    Clinicians usually determine eligibility for ULT when patients present with an acute gout attack.20 Some experts favor initiating ULT two to four weeks after the resolution of a gout attack.77 One reason for this practice stems from the fear of gout attack worsening with ULT initiation. The other reason is the perception that during a gout attack, patients are in too much pain to process information regarding chronic therapy. However, the ACR guideline favors initiating ULT during a gout flare as patients may not return for a follow-up visit to initiate ULT after the flare resolves.20

    XANTHINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS (XOIs)

    XOI include allopurinol and febuxostat.20 XOI are first-line among urate-lowering agents, and the guideline recommends allopurinol as a first-line agent for all patients with gout, unless contraindicated.

    Allopurinol

    Allopurinol is associated with an increased risk of allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome (AHS), a rare but severe, and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction.78 AHS presents as fever, severe rash, eosinophilia, hepatitis, and acute kidney injury.79 AHS is more common in patients who are African Americans or of Southeast Asian descent.78 Pharmacogenetic studies show that these patients have a gene on their human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system that increases the risk of developing AHS. This gene is the HLA-B*5801 allele.80 The interaction of allopurinol with the HLA-B*5801 allele triggers an immune reaction characterized by T-cell activation.81 Not all patients who are positive for HLA-B*5801 allele develop AHS.82 Risk of AHS increases in HLA-B*5801 allele positive patients who have elevated allopurinol serum level due to dose increase or renal dysfunction.81

    In the US, testing for HLA-B*5801 in Caucasians or Hispanics is not cost-effective.83 The 2020 ACR guideline recommends genetic testing for the HLA-B*5801 allele before starting allopurinol for patients who are African Americans or of Southeast Asian descent.20 The guideline recommends starting allopurinol at a low dose of 100 mg daily for normal renal function and a lower dose in case of renal dysfunction.

    The prescribing information recommends protecting allopurinol from light.74 ISMP lists the brand name of allopurinol, Zyloprim, on the look-alike sound-alike (LASA) list due to potential for confusion with zolpidem.42

     

    SIDEBAR: DID YOU KNOW THAT THE DISCOVERY OF ALLOPURINOL LED TO A NOBEL PRIZE AWARD?

    Gertrude Elion, who earned a master’s degree in chemistry from New York University in 1941, worked as a lab assistant for George Hitchings. Up until the 1950s, scientists produced medications by screening and modifying naturally existing substances.84 However, Elion and Hitchings’ contribution to medicine was groundbreaking to drug development as they introduced drug therapy that was targeted to specific cells. In 1963, Elion and Hutchings discovered that allopurinol blocked the synthesis of uric acid. In 1988, the Nobel Prize Committee awarded Gertrude Elion and George Hitchings the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for the discovery of allopurinol and other medications.85

     

    Febuxostat

    Febuxostat carries a boxed warning for increased risk of CV death in patients with cardiovascular disease (CVD), when compared to allopurinol.86 Therefore, the 2020 ACR guideline recommends selecting another ULT medication in patients with established CVD.20 For patients who experience a CV event while on febuxostat, the ACR guideline recommends switching to a different ULT medication.20 The FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide when dispensing febuxostat to patients.86

    URICOSURICS

    Probenecid

    Probenecid is the only uricosuric drug approved in the United States.87,88 Probenecid may cause nephrolithiasis (uric acid stones in the kidneys).89 These uric acid stones form as the uric acid crystallizes in an acidic urine. The prescribing information for probenecid recommends adequate hydration and adjunct urine alkalinizing agents (example: sodium bicarbonate or potassium citrate).89 However, the 2020 ACR guideline determined insufficient evidence to recommend the routine use of alkalinizing agents with probenecid.20 Probenecid is usually an add-on therapy in patients with partial response to an XOI. Remember to counsel patients on adequate hydration to decrease the risk of nephrolithiasis.

    ISMP lists probenecid on the LASA list due to potential for confusion with Procanbid, the brand name for procainamide, an antiarrhythmic drug.42 Probenecid also has some interesting abuse potential (see the SIDEBAR).

     

    SIDEBAR: CAN PROBENECID HELP ATHLETES IMPROVE PERFORMANCE?

    Random drug testing in sports led athletes to misuse probenecid to mask the unlawful use of performance-enhancing drugs such as anabolic-androgenic steroids.90 Probenecid inhibits the tubular secretion of anabolic-androgenic steroids in the kidneys, thus inhibiting their excretion in the urine. As a result, urine drug testing will not detect the use of these illegal substance, and athletes can pass the random drug testing successfully. In 1986, a doping control officer traveled from Norway and collected 6 urine samples from 6 Norwegian athletes who were training in the US. The athletes showed up at least 1.5 hours late probably to allow time for onset of action of the masking agent. Five of the samples showed an unusually dilute urine with low specific gravity. In addition, the concentration of endogenous androgenic-anabolic steroids in the urine samples was at least 100 times below normal.90 These unusual findings along with suspicious behaviors projected by the athletes during the testing process, triggered further analysis of the urine samples. The lab identified a “new masking agent”, probenecid and its metabolite, in these urine samples. Today, probenecid appears on the World Anti Doping Agency (WADA) prohibited list.91 The WADA list serves as a standard for identifying substances that athletes may illegally use to enhance performance in sports.91

     

    URATE OXIDASE ENZYME

    Pegloticase

    The FDA approved pegloticase for adults with chronic gout refractory to conventional therapy.92 The 2020 ACR guidelines recommends switching to pegloticase when XOIs, probenecid, and other interventions fail.20 In clinical trials, administering methotrexate with pegloticase increased the chance of tophi resolution by 22.8% compared to pegloticase monotherapy.76 Therefore, pegloticase’s prescribing information recommends co-administration with methotrexate, unless contraindicated. Folic acid supplementation decreases the risk of hepatotoxicity and GI side effects associated with methotrexate.93 Pharmacists should counsel patients about the importance of adherence to folic acid while on methotrexate.

    The manufacturer recommends storing pegloticase in the refrigerator and protecting it from light before dispensing.76 After diluting pegloticase for IV infusion in an institutional setting, healthcare workers should protect the solution from light.

     

    Pause and Ponder: When does the guideline recommend switching urate-lowering agents?

    The 2020 ACR guideline recommends using the maximum tolerated or recommended dose of a ULT.20  Figure 1 outlines the management of patients taking a XOI requiring adjustment to therapy:

    Figure 1. Switching ULT

    Jim’s medication profile reveals that he has been taking allopurinol for little over a year now.

     

    DURATION OF THERAPY

    For patients tolerating ULT, the 2020 ACR guideline recommends indefinite therapy to avoid worsening gout and its associated complications.20 Patients may not adhere to therapy due to cost, pill burden, and low health literacy.94 Remember to counsel patient on adherence and goals of ULT as patients may think they do not need to take ULT if they have no symptoms.

    PREVENTING GOUT FLARE UPON INITIATION OF ULT

    Initiation of ULT may trigger a gout flare due to activation of crystals precipitated in joints.95, 96 The risk of gout flare increases with higher reduction in serum uric acid levels. Studies suggest that gout attacks associated with ULT may decrease patient adherence to ULT.97 Prophylaxis with anti-inflammatory medications decreases the risk of gout flare upon ULT initiation. The 2020 ACR guideline recommends prophylactic therapy upon initiating ULT and for at least three to six months. Patients who continue to experience flares may require a longer duration of prophylactic therapy.20 Experts recommend colchicine or NSAIDs as first-line prophylactic therapy.98 Table 4 summarizes prophylactic medications and recommendations.

    Table 4 – Medications that Prevent Gout Attack with ULT Initiation
    Medication Recommendation
    Low-dose colchicine Use 0.6 mg once or twice daily
    Low-dose NSAIDs Use naproxen 250 mg or equivalent dose of different NSAID

    Add proton pump inhibitor if indicated

    Low-dose prednisone or prednisolone Use less than or equal to 10 mg per day

    Reserve corticosteroids for patients who cannot tolerate colchicine and NSAIDs

     

    NONPHARMACOLOGIC THERAPY AND LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS

    Serum uric acid levels decrease only slightly with dietary modifications.20 In addition, certain diets may trigger a gout flare. To decrease the risk of flares, the 2020 ACR guideline conditionally recommends the following approaches:

    • Limiting alcohol intake
    • Limiting purine intake. Some examples of high-purine foods include seafood like sardines, tuna, haddock, and meats like bacon, turkey, veal, and liver.99, 100
    • Limiting high-fructose corn syrup intake
    • Following a weight loss program if the patient is overweight or obese

    Jim projected an alcohol breath when speaking. Jim may be consuming excessive amounts of alcohol. He may be consuming a non-gout friendly diet.

    DIGITAL HEALTH AND GOUT MANAGEMENT

    Digitalization of health care is rapidly evolving and involves the use of technology to manage health conditions, ameliorate modifiable risk factors, and promote health and wellness.101 Wearable devices such as fitness trackers, patient portals, and mobile apps are only few examples of digital health tools. Investigators suggest that gout mobile health apps may improve patient perception of the disease, clarify beliefs, and benefit self-care.102 However, further studies are essential to prove these mobile applications beneficial. As of this writing, several gout-related mobile health applications are available. Target users for these applications can be clinicians or patients. For example, a physician developed a mobile application called Gout Diagnosis. The application includes an evidence-based algorithm to facilitate an accurate diagnosis of gout.103 On the other hand, patients can download from a variety of existing gout mobile applications at little or no cost.104 The National Kidney Foundation developed a mobile application called Gout Central. This application comes from a reputable foundation and provides patient education on symptoms and risk factors for gout, nonpharmacologic recommendations such as diet and lifestyle modifications, and medications to treat gout and prevent flares.104 The FDA does not regulate mobile medical applications.105 Therefore, the choice of mobile health application depends on patient preference such as cost, ease of use, compatibility, security, and type of content.106

    A mobile application may help Jim learn about foods and drinks that may trigger gout attacks.

    PHARMACY TEAM IMPACT ON GOUT MANAGEMENT

    Pharmacists are the most accessible healthcare professionals. Patients with a gout flare may seek pharmacists for recommendations on pain management. When patients without a previous gout diagnosis present to the pharmacy, pharmacists may recognize signs of gout and refer them to their primary care clinician. Pharmacists can educate patients who have a diagnosis for gout about the phases and goals of gout therapy, including the likelihood that ULT will be a lifelong therapy.

    Pharmacists are well-positioned to assess adherence to ULT and educate patients about the importance of ULT.107 Pharmacists can assess patient understanding of various therapies and remind them that anti-inflammatory medications treat acute gout attack or prevent gout flare upon initiating ULT. Pharmacists should empower patients to request from their clinician a medication-in-pocket prescription. Pharmacists should counsel patients on the proper use of medication-in-pocket by reminding them to take the anti-inflammatory medication as soon as possible, ideally within 12 hours of onset of a gout attack.108 In addition, patients may need a reminder about continuing their ULT while taking the medication-in-pocket for acute flares.109

    Pharmacy technicians can ensure that patients have refills on their medication-in-pocket prescription to facilitate early initiation. Updating the patient’s records in the pharmacy software with the gout diagnosis can facilitate this continuity of care. The pharmacy team should encourage patients to fill all their prescriptions at the same pharmacy. Through access to all the patient’s medications, pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can play a crucial role in optimizing gout management by identifying medications that increase serum uric acid levels.110

    In addition, the pharmacy team can identify potential drug-drug interactions. This is particularly important with colchicine as it is a substrate for CYP3A4 and P-gp and has a narrow therapeutic window.111 In addition, some medications are known to increase serum uric acid levels.20 Advising patients to check with the pharmacy team before purchasing an over-the-counter (OTC) medication can decrease the use of inappropriate medications. When completing transactions at the register, pharmacy technicians are well positioned to identify OTC products that can worsen gout, such as vitamin A or niacin.112 On the other hand, frequent purchase of OTC anti-inflammatory medications like naproxen or ibuprofen may imply uncontrolled gout.

    Patients can find educational videos on YouTube to learn more about gout therapy and appropriate diet.113 Additional resources are available to patients on goutalliance.org. These include videos, podcasts, guides, and awareness events.114 Some patients may like to learn about their condition using gout-related mobile applications.

    Pharmacy interns may benefit in hearing from patients about their experience with gout, especially the debilitating pain. This may help future pharmacists empathize and develop better relationships with patients, which can improve patient outcomes.115

    The entire pharmacy team could engage in alleviating misconceptions about gout. Some patients with gout have reported stigma regarding their condition from friends, family members, and healthcare workers.116 Some patients with gout have even reported an internalized stigma. Stigmatization may be due to the misbelief that gout is benign, preventable, or self-inflicted.

    Did you know that May 22 is National Gout Awareness Day?

    Jim states that he feels embarrassed about wearing slippers that expose his swollen toe. The pain is so intense that he is unable to tolerate a close-toe shoe.

    Table 5 summarizes some medications that may increase serum uric acid level.

    Table 5 – Managing Medications that Increase Serum Uric Acid Level and Risk of Gout Attack20,110,117-119
    Medication Mechanism Recommendation
    Loop and thiazide diuretics

    Use: hypertension, edema

     

    Decrease urate excretion The guideline recommends switching to a different antihypertensive and suggests losartan when feasible.

     

    Aspirin (low-dose, 81 mg)

    Use: prevention of CVD

    Increases uric acid renal reabsorption and decreases secretion The guideline conditionally recommends against discontinuing low-dose aspirin with appropriate indication.
    Niacin

    Use: dietary supplement

    Inhibits the enzyme uricase, thus inhibiting the oxidation of uric acid, or decreases uric acid excretion The guideline does not provide a specific recommendation for niacin-induced hyperuricemia. Experts recommend adequate hydration.

     

    After looking into Jim’s medication profile and inquiring about his OTC products, the pharmacist does not identify any medication that may be increasing his serum uric acid level.

    CONCLUSION

    Gout is the most common type of inflammatory arthritis. Untreated gout can lead to complications such as degenerative arthritis, urate nephropathy, infections, renal stones, joint fractures, and nerve or spinal cord impingement. ULT is indicated for chronic gout management. Allopurinol is the first-line urate-lowering agent. Colchicine, NSAIDs, and corticosteroids are indicated for acute flares, and, in lower doses, for gout flare prophylaxis upon initiating ULT. Diet and lifestyle modifications complement the pharmacologic therapy. The pharmacy team plays a crucial role in identifying drug-induced hyperuricemia and educating patients about the importance of adherence to ULT. Gout flares are painful and debilitating. Pharmacists can recommend initiation of anti-inflammatory therapy for acute gout flares. Pharmacy technicians can ensure patients have refills for their anti-inflammatory medication to facilitate the medication-in-pocket approach.

    Jim’s uncontrolled gout may be due to various reasons that pharmacy team can investigate. Inquiring about Jim’s drinking habits and educating him about the negative impact of alcohol on gout management is a necessary first step in his therapy. If an adequate trial of dietary changes does not control his symptoms, then switching to a different XOI or adding probenecid, depending on what he has tried so far, would be appropriate.

     

     

    Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

    Treating Gout without Doubt

    Pharmacist POST-TEST
    1. Which of the following patient factors accounts for about 90% of gout cases?
    a) Overproduction of uric acid
    b) Underexcretion of uric acid
    c) Liver dysfunction

    2. Why does the American College of Rheumatology (ACR) define hyperuricemia as serum uric acid level greater than or equal to 6.8 mg/dL?

    a) All patients with serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL experience gout
    b) Serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL is insoluble in the blood
    c) Patients with serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL experience urate kidney stones

    3. Which of the following is involved in the pathogenesis of gout?

    a) Chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues
    b) Chronic deposition and crystallization of calcium in the joints and tissues
    c) Increased glomerular filtration rate of uric acid due to caffeine intake

    4. Which of the following is a complication of untreated gout?

    a) Renal stones
    b) Congestive heart failure
    c) Visual changes

    5. Which of the following findings confirms a diagnosis of gout?
    a) Elevated uric acid
    b) Tophi in tissues and/or bones
    c) Burning upon urination

    6. According to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR) guideline, which one of the following is a goal of chronic gout therapy?
    a) Limiting gout attacks to a maximum of 2 attacks per year
    b) Preventing future gout attacks
    c) Decreasing the renal excretion of uric acid

    7. A 55 year-old-man presents with his first acute gout attack. In the absence of contraindications, which of the following medications is an appropriate first-line therapy for this patient?

    a) Colchicine
    b) Intramuscular methylprednisolone
    c) Anakinra

    8. Which one of the following statements is accurate about colchicine drug interactions?
    a) Co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors increases the risk of colchicine toxicity
    b) Co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors decreases colchicine efficacy
    c) Co-administration of colchicine with CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors decreases colchicine efficacy

    9. In the absence of contraindications, which one of the following medications is the first-line urate-lowering therapy?
    a) Allopurinol
    b) Febuxostat
    c) Probenecid

    10. A patient presents to fill his first prescription for allopurinol. Which one of the following is an appropriate counseling point for this patient?
    a) Start taking allopurinol today and continue indefinitely
    b) Discontinue allopurinol once you achieve uric acid level of < 6 mg/dL c) Keep allopurinol on hand and start taking at the first sign of a gout attack 11. A patient experiences an acute attack of gout. You review his medication profile. Which of the following medications may be aggravating his gout? a. atorvastatin b. niacin c. losartan 12. Which of the following is an appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention for gout? a. Increasing intake of purine-containing foods b. Switching from beer or wine to hard alcohol c. Applying ice to sore joints if tolerable

    Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

    Treating Gout without Doubt
    Technician POST TEST question

    1. According to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR), what is the definition of hyperuricemia?

    a) uric acid level > 6 mg/dL
    b) uric acid level ≥ 6.5 mg/dL
    c) uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL

    2. Which of the following statements is accurate about gout attacks?

    a) Gout attacks happen only in the big toe joint
    b) Gout attacks happen only in the morning
    c) Gout attacks happen in any joint

    3. When should patients with a first gout attack seek medical care?
    a) Only if the pain is unbearable
    b) Only if the pain lasts more than 10 days
    c) Anytime patients experience their first gout attack

    4. A patient calls the pharmacy saying that he is starting to experience a gout attack. The patient asks the pharmacy technician to refill his medication-in-pocket prescription. Which one of the following medications can the patient use for medication-in pocket approach?
    a) Allopurinol
    b) Naproxen
    c) Probenecid

    5. A pharmacy technician is refilling a patient’s medication-in pocket prescription for colchicine. The technician notices that after this fill, the prescription has no more refills. The patient’s next appointment is in eight months. What is the best next step?

    a) Send a refill request to the clinician’s office
    b) Inactivate the prescription
    c) Tell the patient to request a prescription during their next visit

    6. What is the goal of therapy for a patient taking allopurinol as part of a gout regimen?
    a) Achieving a serum uric acid level < 6 mg/dL b) Terminating an acute gout attack c) Decreasing the intensity of pain during an acute gout attack 7. Which one of the following nonpharmacologic therapy is beneficial for patients with gout? a) Decreasing the intake of foods high in purines b) Increasing alcoholic beverages consumption c) Decreasing the intake of caffeine 8. A patient visits the pharmacy counter frequently to check-out some OTC products. In the past three months, the patient has purchased the same product four times. Which one of the following OTC products may imply uncontrolled gout? a) Vitamin C b) Ibuprofen c) Dextromethorphan 9. A medication guide should accompany which of the following medications? a) NSAIDs b) Allopurinol c) Probenecid 10. Which one of the following medications Is a urate oxidase enzyme? a) Pegloticase b) Colchicine c) Probenecid 11. A patient experiences an acute attack of gout. You review his medication profile. Which of the following medications may be aggravating his gout? a. atorvastatin b. niacin c. losartan 12. Which of the following is an appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention for gout? a. Increasing intake of purine-containing foods b. Switching from beer or wine to hard alcohol c. Applying ice to sore joints if tolerable

    References

    Full List of References

    References

       

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      26. Colchicine: Beware of toxicity and interactions. medsafe.govt.nz. https://medsafe.govt.nz/profs/puarticles/colchicine.htm
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      Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

      Learning Objectives

       

      After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

      • Recognize key elements of a drug information request
      • Describe a typical process for researching drug information requests
      • Prioritize information in the final written response
      • Identify the best language to use based on the inquiring party’s needs

      After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to

      • Identify questions that are within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice
      • Recognize tools and resources to use when attempting to answer a drug information question
      • Complete the steps to completing a drug information request that is within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice

        Cartoon person standing in front of gigantic question mark

         

        Release Date: September 15, 2023

        Expiration Date: September 15, 2026

        Course Fee

        Pharmacists: $7

        Pharmacy Technicians: $4

        There is no funding for this CE.

        ACPE UANs

        Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-035-H01-P

        Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-035-H01-T

        Session Codes

        Pharmacist:  23YC35-PXK63

        Pharmacy Technician:  23YC35-KPX44

        Accreditation Hours

        2.0 hours of CE

        Accreditation Statements

        The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-035-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

         

        Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

        The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

        Faculty

        Sumoda Achar
        PharmD and MBA Candidate 2024
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Shelly Evia
        PharmD Candidate 2024
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Stefanie Nigro, PharmD, BCACP, CDCES
        Associate Clinical Professor
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Jeannette Y. Wick, RPh, MBA
        Director Office of Pharmacy Professional Development
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Faculty Disclosure

        In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

        Samoda Achar, Shelly Evia, Jeannette Wick, and Stefanie Nigro do not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

         

        ABSTRACT

        Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians often field questions from patients or other healthcare providers. Pharmacists may be more accustomed to answering questions than pharmacy technicians are, but that doesn't mean that pharmacy technicians can't answer appropriate questions. Pharmacy staff members should know their scope of practice and be willing and able to answer questions that fall within the scope of practice. Using an organized approach can help pharmacy staff members answer questions efficiently and effectively. Documentation is also an important aspect of drug information questions, as is saving the information in case it is needed later.

        CONTENT

        Content

        INTRODUCTION

        A drug information (DI) request is a medication-related question posed by any interested party, but usually a healthcare professional or a patient. As the healthcare team’s drug expert, one of a pharmacist’s main duties is answering these queries effectively and providing an answer that is appropriate for the inquirer’s level of expertise. Pharmacy technicians and pharmacy interns also answer some drug information questions (see TECH TALK SIDEBAR). This continuing education activity outlines various drug information questions that pharmacy staff field most often and describes a methodical approach to ensure pharmacy staff answer requests effectively and accurately.1

         

         

        TECH TALK SIDEBAR: Questions within the Pharmacy Technician’s Scope of Practice?2,3

        Pharmacy technicians and interns can answer general questions that are within the bounds of their education and training. That vague statement requires some interpretation. If the answer is common knowledge (not specialized pharmaceutical knowledge), technicians can answer. In addition to working with supervising pharmacists to interpret the statement, pharmacy technicians and interns need to know state law governing their scope of practice.

         

        Pharmacy technicians and interns are often the first point of contact for customers who want over-the-counter (OTC) medications. Technicians can answer general questions about ingredients if the information is on the label. Some examples include

        • Does this product contain acetaminophen? What brands of acetaminophen do you stock?
        • Where are the medicines for pain?
        • Is there a less expensive generic or store brand for this product?
        • Do you have any [insert name of prescription medication] in stock?
        • Do I need to refrigerate this liquid antibiotic?
        • What does “analgesic” mean?
        • What does “sustained release” mean?
        • Is this prescription for a controlled substance?
        • Why can’t I refill this prescription today?

         

        Pharmacy technicians and interns can also convey information from the pharmacist but should be careful. A PRO TIP is that if technicians or interns don’t understand what the pharmacist says, they should ask the pharmacist to make the information clearer. And if the answer is long or complicated, they should write it down and recite it back to the pharmacist before transmitting it to the person with the question.

         

        Helping customers find specific medications or classes of medications is within the technician’s scope of practice. When patients have questions about their medications, doses, and how best to administer them, technicians may hesitate to answer. If the information is clearly printed on the prescription label, on the auxiliary labels, or contained in an FDA-approved Medication Guide, the technician or intern can answer.

         

        Technicians and interns need to work with the supervising pharmacist to determine if they can answer other questions. When in doubt, technicians should consult with or refer the question to the pharmacist. Technicians and interns must refer questions about potential adverse effects, administration problems, possible alternative medications, and clinical issues to the pharmacist. Before referring the patient, they can collect some baseline information. They cannot counsel or give advice, even if the medication is OTC.

         

         

        Depending on the practice setting, the nature and complexity of DI requests can vary. Being able to answer DI requests is every pharmacy employee’s responsibility (although the type of information varies and at a certain level, the response is the pharmacist’s primary responsibility). Having an organized approach to answering DI questions is highly relevant when working within the community and hospital settings.4

         

        Pharmacy employees who work primarily within a community setting can expect to receive DI requests from patients and from practitioners. These requests can range from asking about drug storage requirements (which a technician can usually answer) to consequences of taking an OTC medication in combination with prescription drugs, to requests regarding the safety of a medication for an uncommon or off-label indication. Pharmacists who work in hospital settings can expect to receive most DI requests from colleagues within the care team. For instance, a DI request could come from a prescriber asking about medication absorption and distribution in a patient with comorbid conditions, or from a nurse asking if a medication can be crushed. Pharmacists who work in industry settings, however, may receive medication information requests that vary greatly from those received in clinical settings.4

         

        All DI requests require referencing reliable materials and sometimes, various internal policy or research documents. While DI requests are diverse, they all require similar analysis of sources and communication to provide a quality answer. Because pharmacy employees at different levels of responsibility can answer DI questions, this continuing education activity will call the person asking the question the requestor and the person finding the answer the respondent.

         

        SCREENING THE REQUEST

        One of the most confounding situations in the pharmacy occurs when someone asks a question, the respondent spends times finding an answer, and then the requestor says, “Oh, that’s not what I needed to know!” Sometimes, requestors don’t really know how to ask questions effectively. This is a problem that all customer service fields encounter, and answering DI requests is both a clinical function and a customer service. It’s why when you call many customer service lines, the customer service representative will say, “OK, what I hear you asking is….” and then rephrase the question.5

         

        To answer DI requests effectively, the respondent must thoroughly understand the question.5 Very specific questions tend to be easily answerable, while others are more general or vague. In both instances, respondents need to ensure they understand the question. They can rephrase the question in their own words and say, “Let me make sure I understand. Do you mean….”, or they can use open ended questions (questions that cannot be answered with a yes or a no) to ask the requestor to provide more information. This avoids answering a question that wasn’t asked or intended or was poorly formulated.

         

        Often, requestors don’t know how to ask a question that will provide the information they need. The hallmark of this type of question is that the requestor may use jargon inappropriately or words that don’t seem to make sense. Respondents can say, “Excuse me, I’m not sure I understood entirely. Can you rephrase the question?” or “Pardon me, but I didn’t quite understand the question. Can you tell me a little more about what you want to know and why?” That final word—WHY—provides the impetus for the requestor to provide necessary information.

         

        Once the question has coalesced and both parties agree on its intent, the respondent can solicit important details from the requester and, if applicable, the patient, before delving into a search. At this point, the respondent needs to spend time actively listening to the requestor’s explanations.

         

        This can be difficult if the requestor is long-winded, difficult to understand, or cognitively impaired, so it requires patience. Here’s a PRO TIP for listening: it’s called the traffic-light-rule.6 During the first 30 seconds (which seems like a short period of time, but is actually relatively long), the requestor’s “talking light” is green. Pharmacy staff should let them talk. In the next 30 seconds, the requestor’s light is yellow: pharmacy staff probably have enough information and should make note of comments or questions. After one minute, the requestor’s talking light is red: pharmacy staff should be comfortable stopping the requestor politely or asking questions.6

         

        Before continuing, review the following DI requests. How would you proceed? Later  in this activity, we’ll provide a description of the ideal process.

         

        Pharmacist DI request #1: TN, 35-year-old obese female (BMI = 32.4 kg/m2) with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes will start on an atypical antipsychotic today to manage schizophrenia. TN’s psychiatric nurse practitioner (NP) calls with questions about drug selection. The NP mentions that TN’s drug formulary lists aripiprazole, haloperidol, olanzapine, and quetiapine as tier 1 preferred options. The NP wants your opinion as to which atypical antipsychotic may be most appropriate to prescribe for TN. What do you suggest?

         

        Pharmacist DI Request #2: You work at a tertiary care internal medicine center. MS, an 80-year-old female, was recently admitted to the medicine floor. She had fallen when she was trying to use the restroom at her nursing home and presented to the emergency department with a wrist fracture. She suffers from insomnia and other comorbidities. Her medication list includes lisinopril 20 mg daily, metformin 500 mg twice daily, rosuvastatin 20 mg daily, and lorazepam 0.5 mg PRN anxiety and sleep. The nursing home staff states that MS received more doses of lorazepam in recent weeks. The medical resident believes that the increased lorazepam use could have contributed to the fall and wants to know if trazodone would be a safer replacement for MS’s insomnia. How do you respond?

         

        Technician DI Request #1: I left this medication in my bathroom for four days, and then I noticed it says, “Keep in the refrigerator.” My house is cold, and the bottle didn’t feel warm. Is this still good, and if it isn’t, what should I do?

         

        Technician DI Request #2: My child is having trouble swallowing her medication and refuses to take it. Are there any easier ways I could give it to her?

         

        Identify Critical Information

        Although it may seem counterintuitive, beginning with the end in mind is critical and the person gathering information must determine the requestor’s preferred response format. This means asking how the requester wants to receive the response. The respondent will need to adjust the answer according to the requestor’s preferences. Some requestors will want to wait for an answer. If the information is to be communicated through email or an electronic medical record, respondents may use their organization’s required format (a SOAP note or similar formats; see Table 1), but formats used in medical records may not be the most efficient approach in person or over phone. In person or on the phone, respondents need to use a more conversational tone. Furthermore, the respondent will need to determine the requestor’s level of medical competency and tailor the response accordingly. If the requestor is a patient, it is more appropriate to use simple language than if a provider asked the same or  similar question. Respondents will have to evaluate these factors critically to provide a sound and comprehensive answer.7

        Table 1. Formats for Communicating Critical Information8,9

        Communication Format Parts of the format Uses
        SOAP S: Subjective information

        This section includes descriptive information about a patient’s symptoms, feelings and experiences.

         

        O: Objective information

        This section includes pertinent lab values, imaging, or diagnostic tests.

         

        A: Assessment

        In this section the subjective and objective information are taken into consideration to make an assessment regarding the patient's disease states.

         

        P: Plan/ Follow Up

        This section outlines a detailed plan regarding the patient's treatment and the follow-up and monitoring required.

        This format is a widely-used written format in healthcare. It helps organize pertinent patient information and efficiently present an answer. This format is especially useful when the respondent must consider multiple pieces of information.
        ISBAR I: Introduction

        Introduction of the pharmacist and the respondent, and the pharmacist’s role and location.

         

        S: Situation

        What are the current events regarding the patient?

         

        B: Background

        What has happened in the past with the patient?

         

        A: Assessment

        Identify the problem at hand and make assessments regarding the patient's disease state.

         

        R: Recommendation

        Outline the next steps and your plan.

        This format is beneficial for verbal communication. It helps the presenter explain the problem at hand and the solution in a time efficient way.
        TITRS T: Title

        Introduction of who you are and your purpose in helping the patient.

         

        I: Introduction

        Present the patient and the problems that the patient needs help with.

         

        T: Text

        State subjective and objective information that is necessary to support any recommendations.

         

        R: Recommendation

        Outline the treatment plan in a clear, complete, and concise manner.

         

        S: Signature

        Include name, title, and phone number.

        This format is beneficial when a brief and concise formal consult is needed to communicate a progress note towards a medical team.

         

        Assess the Urgency of the Response

        While it is critical to provide an appropriate response for the question, doing so in a timely manner is just as critical. Asking the requestor is the simplest way to determine the expected response time. However, many times the requestor isn’t present or cannot be reached, and it is up to the respondent to determine which questions require immediate responses and which may not. Clinically critical topics include

        • Medication safety: does the DI request ask if a certain therapy could cause or have caused harm to the patient?
        • Time sensitivity of the treatment: how important is timeliness to the treatment and disease progression?
        • How much of a concern is the problem to the requestor: does it seem that the requestor needs an immediate response?

         

        Sometimes, respondents don’t know the answer to the question immediately.10,11 Pharmacy staff will never be able to answer every question, but they can handle every question gracefully and provide a complete, accurate answer within a reasonable time. When they don’t know the whole answer, they should answer what they can immediately and tell the respondent that they need to do a little more research to answer the remainder. A PRO TIP is to tell the requestor when to expect an answer (and to be sure to follow through).10-12

         

        Obtain Sufficient Background Information

        In simple words, this step is about getting to know the patient or problem or establishing a strong understanding of the patient’s relevant characteristics by obtaining background information. Since some patients have low health literacy, obtaining this information can be a challenge. However, narrowing the search to only include relevant information and filtering unnecessary information can make the process more efficient. This could be achieved by7

        • Asking targeted questions to patients. For example, instead of asking patients if they take their medication regularly (a closed-ended question that can be answered with yes or no), asking when they last took their medications provides a more precise answer.
        • Identifying avenues that can provide accurate information. For example, instead of asking patients what other medications they take, checking the local profile and/or contacting their community or specialty pharmacist to receive a medication list can be more accurate.
        • Reviewing any available records like medical charts or dispensing records.

         

        Identify Extraneous Information

        Obtaining complete information is important but ensuring that the information is pertinent to the question being asked is just as important.

         

        Many times, DI requests are in-depth and require researching two or more sources before arriving at an answer. While conducting this search, ensure that the sources are relevant to the problem at hand. For example, if a study suggests that a medication is contraindicated in a patient, determine if the patient’s characteristics are similar to the study’s population. Furthermore, extraneous information could come from data gathering as well. For example, a patient may have multiple diseases, but they may not all impact the problem at hand. Making this distinction is important to provide a thorough and accurate answer.7

         

        Answers to Pause and Ponder

        Pharmacist DI request #1: Haloperidol is not an atypical antipsychotic; therefore, it would be eliminated immediately and the remaining atypical antipsychotics would be reviewed as outlined below:

        Screen Request Pertinent patient information: past medical conditions (uncontrolled diabetes, schizophrenia). Medications on tier 1 of patient's formulary: quetiapine, olanzapine, haloperidol, aripiprazole.
        Reformulate Request This is a therapeutics drug information request because the provider is looking for the best medication to treat the patient's schizophrenia without adding any contraindications to the patient's current medication list or concomitant medical conditions.
        Formulate Response The provider made the request in writing, so a written response is most appropriate. The SBAR format would succinctly and effectively convey the message. First, we conducted a Google search and a tertiary source search (PubMed) including the pertinent patient information and request. Our search read "effects of antipsychotics on obesity and diabetes." Through this, we determined that some antipsychotics lead to changes in metabolic activity. Because the patient has diabetes that is exacerbated by weight gain, the best choice is an antipsychotic that does not have a significant effect on the metabolism. After conducting a more thorough primary source search on the metabolic effects of antipsychotics, we found that the best drug would be aripiprazole. Additionally, monitoring the BMI and efficacy would be appropriate.
        Assess Understanding Provide the response in a professional and timely manner. Document the request to display accountability and in case there is a similar question in the future. Follow up with the requestor to access the outcomes and ensure that there are no lingering questions or concerns.

         

        Pharmacist DI request #2:  Off-label use of low-dose (25 to 100 mg) trazodone, a decades-old antidepressant with drowsiness as a side effect, is common.13 In fact, off-label usage for insomnia has surpassed its use for depression.14 The American Academy of Sleep Medicine does not recommend trazodone because of limited supporting data. A 2018 Cochrane review found equivocal evidence supporting its short-term use for insomnia, but little data on long‐term safety and efficacy exists.15 The Beers Criteria doesn’t highlight trazodone as a potentially inappropriate medication in older adults, not because of evidence demonstrating safety, but because of lack of studies demonstrating harm. However, a retrospective cohort study found low-dose trazodone was no safer with respect to fall-related injury risk than benzodiazepines among 15,582 nursing home residents aged 66 years and older. Future studies need to confirm trazodone’s safety with respect to other risks such as dependence, withdrawal, and cognitive impairment.16

         

        Technician DI request #1:

        It would depend on the medication. Some medications, like amoxicillin, are refrigerated to preserve the taste while most others, such as insulin, are refrigerated to preserve the compound. The technician should ask what medication the patient is referring to and then look up the specific storage requirements for that medication. Some places where this information is available include Drugs.com (https://www.drugs.com/medical-answers/drugs-that-require-cold-storage-166784/) and (https://www.iehp.org/en/members/helpful-information-and-resources?target=emergency-safety). If the medication is not listed in these resources or the medication’s stability has possibly been compromised (such as exposure to extreme heat), the technician should consult the pharmacist.

         

        Technician DI request #2:

        It would vary depending on the medication. Some medications have specific coating that needs to stay intact to ensure proper drug delivery, and such medications should not be crushed. Other medications do not have such restrictions and can be crushed, split in half, sprinkled in foods like applesauce, or have a liquid formulation that can be considered as an alternative with a doctor’s approval. The technicians should ask, “What medication is your child taking so that I can look it up?” Information regarding which medications can be crushed can be found in the following website https://pharmacist.therapeuticresearch.com/Content/Segments/PRL/2014/Aug/Meds-That-Should-Not-Be-Crushed-7309. If the medication or the specific dosage form is not available on the list, the technician should ask the pharmacist to review the medication.

         

        Recognize when to ask for additional support or information. While drug information requests can be challenging, involving other healthcare professionals to hear about their experiences with similar clinical situations can offer a new perspective. Some benefits of consulting with experts include formulating a patient-specific answer to the question whereas a study may be irrelevant. When the request requires analysis beyond the scope of a drug information search, it is appropriate to reach out to a professional. While this may take additional time, arriving at the correct answer is more important than to harm the patient unknowingly. And a PRO TIP is that if reaching out will mean you cannot answer the question in the time frame promised, contact the requestor and say you need more time and why.

         

        REFORMULATING THE REQUEST 

        To ensure the core request is clear, the respondent will need to ask many questions, especially if requesters don’t know what question they need to ask. Before starting to research the answer, respondents need to gather information needed from the requestor. In addition, it’s prudent to identify resources the requestor has already consulted (and their reliability in case information needs to be corrected).

         

        Categorize the Request

        Requests can be based on complex patient specific cases, for educational purposes, or geared towards a decision-making process in medication therapy for a specific patient demographic. To fully optimize patient care and provide evidence-based recommendations, it is helpful to ask specific questions and consider all factors pertinent to the specific DI request. Categorizing the request can help stay on track, address all concerns, and point the respondent to the appropriate resources. Table 2 lists common categories and the questions that can clarify the request.

         

        Table 2. Common DI Categories and Related Questions1

        DI Category Related Questions
        Allergy/Cross-reactivity

         

        Does the patient have any documented allergies?

        What caused or is suspected to have caused the allergic reaction?

        When did the patient take the medication, and when did the reaction occur?

        What type of allergic reaction occurred?

        Is this a class or drug specific effect?

        Alternative, or Complementary Medicine

         

        Where did the patient obtain the medication?

        Why is the requestor taking or interested in taking the medication?

        What other medications or treatments are available?

        ADR/Safety

         

        What are the possible side effects?

        What monitoring parameters need to be considered?

        Compatibility (Y-site, syringe, IV)

         

        What solution will medication be used in?

        If applicable, how will the medications be administered?

        Dosage/Route/Administration

         

        What is the route of administration?

        What is the recommended therapeutic dose for pediatrics, adults, and geriatrics?

        How should the medication be taken (with/without food, with water, etc)

        Drug Identification

         

        What was the source of the medication (e.g., domestic or foreign)?

        What is the generic and brand name?

        Where did the medication come from?

        Ingredients/Stability

         

        What physical conditions exist? (Temperature, light protectant, storage duration, diluents)

        Are there IV admixture compatibility/non-admixture stability data available?

        Interactions

         

        What are the possible interactions between:

        ●      Drug-drug

        ●      Drug-food

        ●      Drug-lab

        ●      Drug allergy

        Kinetics

         

        What is the onset/half-life/duration?

        What are the serum levels?

        Is dialysis a consideration?

        What is the medication’s bioavailability?

        Pharmacoeconomics

         

        Are there other competitors on the market?

        Are there cheaper alternatives with the same therapeutic effects?

        What is the AWP pricing?

        Pharmaceutics

         

        What is the drug route of administration and drug dosage?

        What patient factors will affect the drug?

        Age, weight, gender, organ function, current medications

        Pharmacology What factors will affect drug metabolism and bioavailability?
        Pregnancy/Lactation What health conditions does the mother have?

        What medications is the mother currently taking?

        What is the current trimester?

        How long has the mother been taking the medication or expected to take this medication?

        Will the drug be present in breast milk?

        How will the drug affect the infant?

        What is the infant's age?

        What health conditions do the mother and infant have?

        Was the infant a full term or premature delivery?

        Vaccinations

         

        Is the vaccination appropriate for the patient?

        What are some side effects to monitor?

        When should the patient get the vaccination?

        Therapeutics

         

        What is the desired effect?

        Is the goal cure or prophylaxis?

        What previous medications and doses has the patient used?

        Is this medication being used for an FDA approved or off-label use?

        Toxicity

         

        What are possible sequelae?

        What management strategies are available?

        Abbreviations: ADR = adverse drug reaction; AWP = Average Wholesale Price; FDA = Food Drug Administration; IV = Intravenous

         

        Finding Reliable Sources

        Being able to locate sources efficiently and correctly for a DI request is very important. Three main types of sources are available: primary, secondary, and tertiary.

        • A primary source is any original research found in journals. Examples of primary sources are trial results found in the New England Journal of Medicine (NEJM) or similar journals in which researchers use a trial design to answer a specific question. (Note that NEJM and similar journals also publish secondary source materials, too.) This is the strongest Limitations of using this evidence include lack of access to journals that require paid subscriptions and lack of good search skills to find relevant papers.
        • Secondary sources analyze, interpret, present, or restate information from primary sources. Textbooks, books and review articles, commentaries, guidelines, and Medline are examples of secondary sources.
        • Tertiary sources compile information from other sources and organize it. Lexicomp , Micromedex, and DynaMed are common tertiary sources for DI requests as they use information from Food and Drug Administration-approved complete prescribing information (package inserts) and clinical studies. One limitation to be aware of is these sources are not updated rapidly therefore the information could be old and outdated.

         

        Determine the Best Source

        When evaluating DI requests, in most cases the best course of action is to start with tertiary sources, such as textbooks or DI databases, when possible.1 These platforms provide a starting point and often suggest a basic idea for the answer. For many DI requests such as dosage, half-life, or adverse effects, the tertiary resource may provide a sound answer. Requests asking to compare two medications’ efficacy or assess the appropriateness of an uncommon or off-label medication use may require further research. Databases that identify off-label use include Micromedex.  In such cases, a primary source is the best resource. References sections of databases like DynaMed and Micromedex can be a great start for finding appropriate primary sources. Using search engines such as MEDLINE, PubMed or Google Scholar (scholargoogle.com) can provide access to relevant primary literature as well.1 Reviewing two to three sources is good practice for most drug information requests. Respondents must determine the relevance of the studies by evaluating if the trial size was large enough to be statistically reliable, if its findings were clinically significant, and if the patient population is similar to the patient.

         

        Use General Search Engines Appropriately

        Using general search engines like Google, and Microsoft Edge can be an acceptable starting point for a search. A metasearch engine is usually better. A metasearch engine is a platform that aggregates the results from multiple search engines and organizes them based on their relevance. Examples of metasearch engines include Dogpile, ixquick, and Metacrawler which aggregate information from sources like Google and Yahoo as well as videos posted on various platforms.

        Researchers must consider the following factors when determining a source’s credibility17:

        • Is the information’s original source listed and reliable?
        • Does the funding for the site come from a sound source such as a university (.edu), an established patient advocacy organization or a professional society (.org), or a government-funded organization (.gov)?
        • How is the information presented and how is it supported?
        • Who wrote the article on the webpage? Is the author a credible healthcare provider or a journalist writing about a medical topic?
        • Is the information updated and verifiable with other sources?

         

        Table 3 matches types of information and reliable sources to find information.

         

        Table 3. Finding Reliable Sources for Drug Information Requests

        Type of Request Source
        Alternative or Complementary medicine Natural Medicine Comprehensive Database
        ADR/Safety Lexicomp*, UpToDate*, Micromedex*, Package Inserts
        Compatibility FDA-approved prescribing information, Trissel’s Stability of Compounded Formulations*
        Dosage/Route/Administration Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*, Micromedex*, etc.
        Drug Identification Lexicomp* (Drug I.D) Drugs.com, WebMD Pill identifier, RxResouce.org (pill identification tool)
        Ingredients/Stability Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
        Interactions

         

        CYP Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
        HIV HIV Drug Interactions

        Clinicalinfo Drug Database

        Kinetics Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
        Pharmacoeconomics Studies published in pharmacoeconomics journals
        Pharmaceutics PubMed* and primary sources
        Pharmacology Lexicomp*, Micromedex* and could require further research with primary sources
        Pregnancy/Lactation LactMed
        Regulatory The Pharmacy Practice Act, Pharmacist's Manual
        Therapeutics Dynamed*, UpToDate*, DiPiro’s textbook
        Toxicity MSDS, PubChem, Micromedex*
        Vaccinations CDC vaccine and immunization schedule, Lexicomp
        Veterinary Information Plumb’s Veterinary Drug Handbook

        *=sources requiring a subscription or payment

        Abbreviations: ADR = Adverse Drug Reactions; CDC = Center for Disease Control and Prevention; CYP = Cytochrome P450; FDA = Food and Drug Administration; MSDS = Material Safety Data Sheet;  HIV = Human immunodeficiency virus

         

        Another relevant option that many healthcare professionals are considering for answering drug information requests is artificial intelligence (AI) platforms such as ChatGPT. While these seem to be able to provide responses that are based on data and research, the issue that users run into is the AI is not able to approach/appraise situations critically. While AI can provide information that may be or seem accurate, it is cannot assess the data that it uses to ensure that it is relevant to the situation or specific patient. Additionally, AI doesn’t cite its sources, meaning that it can be difficult to assess the appropriateness of the source. Last, it is important to realize that AI has sometimes provided wrong answers that could lead to patient harm and therefore need to be checked against reliable sources.

         

        Figure 2 summarizes a typical drug information process.

        Figure 2. The Drug Information Process


        FORMULATE THE RESPONSE 

        Verbal responses tend to be easier for most people than written responses, but respondents should document every request. One simple rule should guide the response: Use principles of clear communication. Clear communication reduces risks of misinterpretation and increases the requestor’s understanding. It optimizes patient care. Clear, concise sentences that are short (fewer than 25 to 32 words) and straightforward create an ideal response.18 It is best to be comprehensive with adequate information and complete sentences that leave no confusion. Each statement should have a clear purpose with no extraneous information or unnecessary words. Respondents must paraphrase important information from accumulated data taken from reliable sources, while avoiding copying and pasting from other outside sources. The response must focus on the audience (the requestor) and the requestor’s background, remembering that different types of professionals have different education and focus.18

         

        Organize and Evaluate Information 

        Organizing information makes research and presentation straightforward and simple for the audience to understand quickly. Templates are available to help keep information organized and formulated, but they have advantages and disadvantages.

         

        • Pros: Templates provide consistency that makes it easier for requesters to follow. (Saving your responses to DI requests is a PRO TIP, discussed in the SIDEBAR) Templates also provide an idea about how the completed presentation will look and reduce the time associated with creating the response. Some organizations provide templates for their employees. Lacking an approved template, respondents can find customizable templates from their workplace or university. Example templates found in the appendices show how useful templates can be. Templates can act as checklists to remember what should be included in a drug information response.
        • Cons: Many templates limit the amount of allowable customization or text, and respondents must be knowledgeable about editing templates. Templates may also limit the approach to the topic and limit the information to standard or predictable fields; this is a problem when the question is unique or unusual. It is important to understand that templates are guides in answering requests and are not restrictions.

         

        Templates that can be used while answering drug information questions have different strengths and limitations. The choice of template can be dependent on the pharmacist’s preference as well as the type of drug information request. We reviewed the templates in the addendum and assessed their utility. Take a minute to look at them. How do your assessments compare to ours?

         

        Template 1 located in Appendix 1:

        Pros: Extensive prompts for what should be included in a drug information response. This format is very detailed which could be useful for less experienced users.

        Cons: Could be too detailed to be used for a wide range of requests. It lacks space, so users will have to use it against a document that they have already created.

         

        Template 2 located in Appendix 2:

        Pros: This format displays the drug information request topic quickly, organizes patient information and the response, and includes references to use for evidence-based literature support. It is broad enough to be used for multiple types of requests. It could be especially helpful for pharmacists who receive a wide variety of requests as it allows them to focus and tailor responses appropriately.

        Cons: Insufficient prompts or guidance responders, making it more suitable for experienced pharmacy staff. This would too broad for beginners or pharmacy students because it does not outline various aspects of drug information responses.

         

        SIDEBAR: Saving FAQs for Future Use: The FAQ File19,20

        Pharmacy staff often notice that they receive the same or similar questions repeatedly. Each time a requestor asks the question, the respondent must answer again. When employees in the pharmacy discuss questions they receive, they may find that although each of them has only answered a specific question once or twice, collectively they are answering the same question often. A frequently asked question (FAQ) file has numerous advantages. It can

        • Save time for everyone including the requestor
        • Standardize the answer so that it is consistent each time staff answer the specific question
        • Provide the answer in clear language
        • Create an answer that technicians and students can give to requestors without asking the pharmacist to intervene
        • Refer requestors to web sites or documents for additional information

         

        To develop a reliable FAQ file, pharmacy staff should take several steps:

        • Identify the questions that are asked frequently.
        • Develop a simple format for all FAQs. Usually, the actual question appears at the top of the documents, with the answer below.
        • Start small and ask one employee to draft the FAQ.
        • Have two or three people review the FAQ, including a pharmacist and at least one or two support personnel. Encourage reviewers to provide constructive criticism. If the FAQ usually comes from a colleague or patient, involve colleagues and patients in the review.
        • A good process for reviewing FAQs is to ask a reviewer to read to a certain point and then stop. The project coordinator should ask, “Can you tell me in your own words what you just read?” If the reviewer explains and the information is incorrect, the project coordinator should not correct the reviewer; rather, the project coordinator should make a note that the section needs work and why.
        • The project reviewer should ask additional, open-ended questions including
          • What’s your general reaction to this draft FAQ?
          • What did you like about this draft FAQ?
          • What did you dislike about this draft FAQ?
          • Is anything in this draft FAQ confusing?
          • What would you do if you got this document?
          • What do you think the writer was trying to do with this document?
          • And here’s a PRO TIP: Often, people will not answer directly because they do not want to appear uneducated or picky. A way to circumvent this issue is to ask, “Thinking of other people you know who might get this document…”
            • What about the document might work well for them?
            • What about the document might cause them problems?
          • Once the FAQ completes the process and is ready for “prime time,” save it in a format that cannot be edited (i.e. a PDF that is locked for editing) and upload it to a shared file or drive where all employees can access the document and print or clip it to an email when needed.

         

        Finally, drugs and drug information change over time. Organizations that use FAQ files must schedule routine review (at least annually and more often if necessary) to ensure that the content in FAQ files remains current and correct.

         

        Proofing and Editing Drafts 

        Proofing and editing written drafts entails first fact-checking the narrative and the sources used, and then reviewing the text to ensure it is clear and professional. The respondent must re-assess and re-evaluate each source and the information gathered. Asking other healthcare professionals who have expertise to contribute to or proofread the draft is smart. Collaborating with colleagues can be beneficial, especially in healthcare. The recent emphasis on interdisciplinary approaches reminds us that healthcare professionals from multiple backgrounds need to collaborate and exchange information more often than not. Colleagues can also help confirm or modify any information, while also giving feedback to learn how to better future drug information requests.

        Once the data is confirmed as accurate, the last step is to double check for spelling and grammar errors and ensure the response is clear and concise. A skilled pharmacy technician is often an exceptional collaborator in this step.

         

        Document, Document, Document

        Documentation is helpful when pharmacy employees have to refer back to that specific topic on a similar drug information question or when colleagues have a similar request in the future. Documenting the response will aid as a reference point and could help clinicians in the future make decisions regarding patient care.21 Documentation will also display accountability and the respondent’s value to the organization and the interdisciplinary team. Many healthcare organizations have policies and procedures for documenting DI requests, and all staff should follow them if they exist.

         

        ASSESS REQUESTOR’S UNDERSTANDING AND SATISFACTION 

        Following up after responding to a DI request is a professional action. The respondent should follow up with the requestor in a timely manner and assess the outcomes. If the requestor is not completely satisfied, the respondent can adjust the answer and recommendations appropriately.7 Follow-up will also reveal if the requestor has implemented the recommendation (and if it worked), provide feedback for potential modifications in future DI requests, and show professionalism and dedication to patient care. A PRO TIP is to document the follow-up and outcomes.

         

        CONCLUSION

        Pharmacy teams have serious responsibilities related to DI requests, which can cover a broad spectrum of topics and specialties. Pharmacists, pharmacy technicians, and pharmacy students should use a methodical approach, followed by documentation. As the ever-changing landscape of healthcare, medicine, and technology continues to advance, the providing drug information will remain an integral part of the pharmacist’s responsibilities.

         

        Table 4 provides additional resources.

         

        Table 4. Additional Resources

        Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests

         

        This resource helps characterize the various types of drug information requests

        https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/pharmacy-practice/resource-centers/preceptor-toolkit/sicp-busy-day-systematic-approach-answering-drug-info-requests.ashx?la=en&hash=7C8B36648FAB999DE761D3AE37BFE48A847B8551
        7 Tips on Improving Communication in Your Pharmacy

         

        This resource provides guidance on how best to speak with patients

        https://www.pbahealth.com/elements/7-tips-on-improving-communication-in-your-pharmacy/
        Formulating an Effective Response: A Structured Approach

         

        This resource provides strategies to answer formulated drug information requests.

        https://accesspharmacy.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=2275&sectionid=177197497 :
        ASHP Guidelines on the Pharmacist’s Role in Providing Drug Information

         

        This resource provides suggestions on how to answer a formulated drug information request.

        https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/policy-guidelines/docs/guidelines/pharmacists-role-providing-drug-information.pdf
        How To Evaluate Health Information on the Internet: Questions and Answers

         

        This resource provides approaches on how to find credible sources to answer drug information requests.

        https://ods.od.nih.gov/HealthInformation/How_To_Evaluate_Health_Information_on_the_Internet_Questions_and_Answers.aspx

         

         

        Templates:

        Requirements checklist for drug information Response1 - UBC Blogs. Accessed July 3, 2023. https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/Requirements-Checklist-for-Drug-Information-Response.pdf.

        Drug Information Request and Response Form.; 2017. Accessed July 3, 2023.

        https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/DIR-Example.pdf

        PHRM Handbook. Accessed July 3, 2023.

        https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/Drug-Information-Request-and-Response-Fillable-Form-.pdf

        Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

        Pharmacy: Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

        Pharmacists Post-test

        After completing this education activity, pharmacists will be able to
        1) Recognize key elements of a drug information request
        2) Describe a typical process for researching drug information requests
        3) Prioritize information in the final written response
        4) Identify the best language to use based on the inquiring party’s needs

        1. Which of the following describes a good practice in answering complicated drug information requests?
        A. Reviewing at least two sources when looking for answers
        B. Using a couple of metasearch engines (e.g., Dogplie)
        C. Using tertiary sources (e.g., Micromedex, Lexicomp)

        2. A patient approaches the community pharmacy counter asking about experiencing GI upset when taking his daily medications. His medications include metformin, prednisone and lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate targeted question to obtain key information?
        A. Are you taking your medications at the correct times?
        B. How are you taking your medications?
        C. Are you taking your medications with food?

        3. Which of the following are elements of screening a response to correctly identify the key elements in a drug information request?
        A. Setting aside extraneous information to focus on pertinent information
        B. Relying solely on the patient’s recollection of medical information
        C. Asking closed-ended questions to extract targeted information

        4. Which of the following correctly identifies the process of answering a drug information request?
        A. Screen request for pertinent information, reformulate request, formulate response, assess understanding
        B. Assess understanding, reformulate request, screen request for pertinent information, formulate response
        C. Formulate response, reformulate request, access understanding, screen request for pertinent information

        5. A doctor asks how many hours prior to dialysis medication X should be administered to ensure an optimal response. Which category would the question fall under?
        A. ADR inquiry
        B. Therapeutics
        C. Kinetics

        6. If asked a question about the dosing for atorvastatin for a 40-year-old patient recently diagnosed with dyslipidemia, which of the following sources would be the most appropriate place to look for the answer?
        A. Natural medicine comprehensive database
        B. LactMed
        C. Lexicomp

        7. Which of the following correctly pairs the appropriate language and the type of requestor who is asking for information?
        A. Patient: “Possible adverse events include gastrointestinal upset and an increase frequency of bowel movements.”
        B. Provider: “The patient may have a tummy ache and have to go to the bathroom to poop a lot.”
        C. Nurse: “Patients who take this medication may develop some side effects including nausea and diarrhea”

        8. Which of the following statements identifies the purpose of the “assess understanding” step
        A. To gauge requestors’ satisfaction and determine if they implemented the recommendation or need further assistance
        B. To test the requesters health literacy and attempt to match the language you use to the language they understand
        C. To provide new information to requestors so that they have multiple options in case the first answer didn’t resolve their problem

        9. You have been tasked with creating a general drug information template. Which of the following are important aspects to include in your template
        A. Prior medical history; lab values; current medications
        B. Patient’s education; reference authors; siblings’ ages
        C. Patient’s age, financial status, current medications

        10. A patient approaches the pharmacy stating that she left a refrigerated medication on her front porch for more than 24 hours. She asks if it is still safe to use the medication. Which of the following is the most efficient way to answer?
        A. Google the name of the drug and look for a patient or nurse blog site
        B. Look at the package insert for the medication in the pharmacy database
        C. Find two the primary sources for the stability in various temperatures

        Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

        Pharmacy: Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

        Pharmacy Technician Post-test

        After completing this education activity, pharmacy technician’s will be able to
        1) Identify questions that are within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice
        2) Recognize tools and resources to use when attempting to answer a drug information question
        3) Complete the steps to completing a drug information request that is within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice

        1. Which of the following questions would require counseling from a licensed pharmacist?
        A. Do I store this liquid antibiotic at room temperature or refrigerate it?
        B. Is there a less expensive generic or store brand for this product?
        C. What other medications should I avoid taking with this prescription?

        2. A patient approaches the community pharmacy counter asking about experiencing GI upset when taking his daily medications. His medications include metformin, prednisone, and lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate targeted question to obtain key information?
        A. Are you taking your medications at the correct times?
        B. How are you taking your medications?
        C. Are you taking your medications with food?

        3. When can pharmacy technicians answer questions and help customers find specific medications or classes of medications while staying within their scope of practice?
        A. If information is clearly printed on the prescription label, on auxiliary labels, or in an FDA-approved Medication Guide.
        B. If the supervising pharmacist is busy and will not have time to help a customer for at least 15 minutes to an hour.
        C. When the technician does not like the specific customer and would like to see the customer leave as soon as possible

        4. Which of the following correctly identifies the process of answering a drug information request?
        A. Screen request for pertinent information, reformulate request, formulate response, assess understanding
        B. Assess understanding, reformulate request, screen request for pertinent information response, formulate response
        C. Formulate response, reformulate request, access understanding, screen request for pertinent information

        5. A 58-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy counter and tells you she received her Shingrix vaccine two weeks ago and does not remember when she needs to come back for her next Shingrix dose. Where would a pharmacy technician be able to find information about vaccine scheduling to answer the patient’s question?
        A. Trissel’s Stability Compendium
        B. LactMed and lexicomp
        C. CDC Vaccine and Immunization Schedule

        6. According to the traffic-light-rule, what should the pharmacy staff member do after one minute of listening?
        A. Pharmacy staff should let patients continue to talk because it’s unlikely they have disclosed enough information.
        B. Pharmacy staff probably has enough information and should make note of comments or questions.
        C. Pharmacy staff should be comfortable stopping the requestor politely or asking additional questions.

        7. A mother is picking up her son’s antibiotic prescription and asks if there is a specific way that her son should take the medication. Where would you find this information about the route of administration for antibiotics?
        a) PubMed
        b) Pharmacists Manual
        c) Lexicomp

        8. Which of the following statements identifies the purpose of the “assess understanding” step
        A. To gauge requestors’ satisfaction and determine if they implemented the recommendation or need further assistance
        B. To test the requesters health literacy and attempt to match the language you use to the language they understand
        C. To provide new information to requestors so that they have multiple options in case the first answer didn’t resolve their problem

        9. You have been tasked with creating a general drug information template. Which of the following are important aspects to include in your template
        A. Prior medical history; lab values; current medications
        B. Patient’s education; reference authors; siblings’ ages
        C. Patient’s age, financial status, current medications

        10. A patient approaches the pharmacy stating that she left a refrigerated medication on her front porch for more than 24 hours. She asks if it is still safe to use the medication. Which of the following is most efficient way to answer?
        A. Google the name of the drug and look for a patient or nurse blog site
        B. Look at the package insert for the medication in the pharmacy database
        C. Find two the primary sources for the stability in various temperatures

        References

        Full List of References

        References

           
          1. Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests Step 1: Obtain Background Information. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/pharmacy-practice/resource-centers/preceptor-toolkit/sicp-busy-day-systematic-approach-answering-drug-info-requests.ashx?la=en&hash=7C8B36648FAB999DE761D3AE37BFE48A847B8551
          2. Understanding Your Scope of Practice as a Pharmacy Technician. Career Advice. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.careerstep.com/blog/news/understanding-your-scope-of-practice-as-a-pharmacy-technician/
          3. Foster P. What You Can and Can’t Say to Customers as a Pharmacy Technician. October 28, 2016. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.pennfoster.edu/blog/2016/october/what-you-can-and-can-not-you-say-to-customers-as-a-pharmacy-technician
          4. ASHP Guidelines on the Pharmacist’s Role in Providing Drug Information Background and Rationale. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/policy-guidelines/docs/guidelines/pharmacists-role-providing-drug-information.pdf
          5. Martin SW. Strategies for Answering Your Customers’ Toughest Questions. Harvard Business Review. June 28, 2012. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://hbr.org/2012/06/handling-customers-toughest-qu
          6. Nemko M. How to handle difficult clients. Psychology Today. February 25, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/how-do-life/202102/how-handle-difficult-clients
          7. Malone PM, Witt BA, Malone MJ, Peterson DM. Formulating an Effective Response: A Structured Approach | Drug Information: A Guide for Pharmacists, 6e | AccessPharmacy | McGraw Hill Medical. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://accesspharmacy.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=2275§ionid=177197497
          8. Podder V, Lew V, Ghassemzadeh S. SOAP Notes. Published 2022. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482263
          9. Burgess A, van Diggele C, Roberts C, Mellis C. Teaching clinical handover with ISBAR. BMC Medical Education. 2020;20(2):1-8. doi:https://doi.org/10.1186/s12909-020-02285-0
          https://bmcmededuc.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12909-020-02285-0
          10. Compassionate Geek. IT Customer Service Skills: What To Do When You Don’t Know The Answer To A Customer Question. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://compassionategeek.com/customer-service-skills-when-you-dont-know-the-answer/
          11. Expert Panel Forbes Councils Member. Leaders: Nine Good Ways To Handle A Business Question You Don't Know The Answer To. June 7, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.forbes.com/sites/theyec/2021/06/07/leaders-nine-good-ways-to-handle-a-business-question-you-dont-know-the-answer-to/?sh=39d2b40823ba
          12. Csizmadia A. Oops, I don’t know: How to respond to a customer’s question when you don’t know the answer. September 25, 2018. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.liveagent.com/blog/oops-i-don’t-know-how-to-respond-to-a-customers-question-when-you-don’t-know-the-answer/
          13. Gill LL. Consumer Reports. Should You Take Trazodone for Insomnia? Accessed January 26, 2022. https://www.consumerreports.org/insomnia/trazodone-for-insomnia-should-you-take-a9455377183/
          14. Jaffer KY, Chang T, Vanle B et al. Trazodone for insomnia: a systematic review. Innov Clin Neurosci 2017;14:24-34.
          15. Everitt H, Baldwin DS, Stuart B et al. Antidepressants for insomnia in adults. Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews 2018;5:CD010753.
          16. Bronskill SE, Campitelli MA, Iaboni A et al. Low-dose trazodone, benzodiazepines, and fall-related injuries in nursing homes: a matched-cohort study. J Am Geriatr Soc 2018;66:1963-71.
          17. How To Evaluate Health Information on the Internet: Questions and Answers. ods.od.nih.gov. National Institutes of Health. Published June 24, 2011. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://ods.od.nih.gov/HealthInformation/How_To_Evaluate_Health_Information_on_the_Internet_Questions_and_Answers.aspx
          19. U.S. Department of Health & Human Services. National Institutes of Health Naional Cancer Institute. Making Health Communications Programs Work. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.cancer.gov/publications/health-communication/pink-book.pdf
          18. Clear Writing Assessment. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Accessed match 25, 2023. https://www.cdc.gov/nceh/clearwriting/docs/Clear_Writing_Assessment-508.pdf
          20. JIMDO. How to Write an FAQ Page–with Example. October 21, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.jimdo.com/blog/how-to-write-an-faq-page-with-examples/
          21. 7 Steps to Respond to Drug Information Requests. Pharmacy Times. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.pharmacytimes.com/view/7-steps-to-respond-to-drug-information-requests

          Set Your Ascites on Improving Patient Care: The Pharmacy Team’s Role in Hepatorenal Syndrome Management

          Learning Objectives

           

          After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists and technicians will be able to

          1. Describe the prevalence, pathophysiology, and prognosis of hepatorenal syndrome (HRS)
          2. Explain updated guidelines for diagnosis and treatment of HRS
          3. Discuss current and emerging therapies for HRS
          4. Identify the role of pharmacists and pharmacy technicians in HRS treatment

            Cartoon image depicting a person with ascites.

             

            Release Date: August 15, 2023

            Expiration Date: August 15, 2025

            Course Fee

            Pharmacists: FREE

            Pharmacy Technicians: FREE

            This CE was funded by:  Mallinckrodt

            ACPE UANs

            Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-029-H01-P

            Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-029-H01-T

            Session Codes

            Pharmacist:  23YC29-HPX34

            Pharmacy Technician:  23YC29-XPX38

            Accreditation Hours

            2.0 hours of CE

            Accreditation Statements

            The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-029-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

             

            Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

            The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

            Faculty

            Rachel Eyeler, PharmD, BCPS
            Adjunct Clinical Professor
            UConn School of Pharmacy
            Storrs, CT

                                       

            Nicole A. Pilch, PharmD, BCPS
            Associate Professor Department of Pharmacy and Clinical Sciences
            Medical University of South Carolina
            Charleston, SC

            Faculty Disclosure

            In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

            Drs. Eyeler and Pilch do not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

             

            ABSTRACT

            Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS) is a specific type of kidney injury unique to patients with end stage liver disease, also known as cirrhosis. Patients with cirrhosis have scarred, stiff livers in which blood cannot flow through easily. Portal hypertension changes blood flow resulting in several consequences: ascites, esophageal varices, and HRS. The American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases guidelines describe two distinct forms of HRS. Therapies such as volume resuscitation (e.g., with crystalloids or albumin) and vasoconstrictors (e.g., norepinephrine or terlipressin) focus on restoring blood flow to the kidneys before they are irreparably injured. Sometimes, clinicians must select therapies based on availability of intensive care unit beds and monitoring equipment. Clinicians also need to consider factors when patients leave the hospital and are discharged to home. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians who are familiar with the basics of HRS can help clinicians make appropriate choices, counsel patients thoroughly, and contribute to better patient outcomes.

            CONTENT

            Content

            INTRODUCTION

            Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS), a type of kidney injury unique to patients with advanced liver disease, carries a grim prognosis. Therapies such as volume resuscitation (e.g., crystalloids or albumin) and vasoconstrictors (e.g., norepinephrine or terlipressin) focus on restoring blood flow to the kidneys before they are irreparably injured. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can play a crucial role in helping select and monitor therapies for treatment of this syndrome, and perhaps more importantly, by helping patients avoid developing HRS in the first place. By educating patients to avoid certain over the counter (OTC) medications that can worsen the condition (e.g., non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs]), and teaching patients to monitor their diuretic use by weighing themselves daily and monitoring their blood pressure, engaged pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can make a large difference in their patients’ clinical outcomes.

             

            HRS: A Complication of Cirrhosis

            Cirrhosis, an advanced state of liver disease, is increasingly common and an important cause of mortality.1 Globally, in 2017 the estimated incidence of people living with compensated cirrhosis was 112 million. In 2019, cirrhosis was associated with 2.4% of deaths worldwide.2 Classically, cirrhosis in developed countries is most commonly due to hepatitis C infection and alcohol misuse.1 However, over the past decade, the incidence of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) has increased dramatically with improvement in diagnostic criteria and screening. At the same time, treatment improvements for hepatitis B and C infections have decreased viral hepatitis-related deaths in some areas of the world. The COVID-19 pandemic has also had significant impact, with data collected from multiple countries showing a substantial increase in alcohol consumption, and an increase in alcohol-associated cirrhosis deaths.2,3 Testing and treatment rates for hepatitis B and C declined internationally between January 2019 and December 2020,4 and treatment delays are predicted to lead to excess liver-related deaths.2,5

            PAUSE AND PONDER: How will the new hepatitis C direct-acting antivirals (e.g., elbasvir, glecaprevir, ledipasvir, pibrentasvir, sofosbuvir, velpatasvir, and voxilaprevir) change the landscape of HRS?

            Although the causes of cirrhosis may be shifting, the transition from chronic liver disease to cirrhosis is generally the same. Chronic inflammation of the liver leads to fibrosis and scarring, causing structural and hemodynamic changes within the liver (Figure 1). One of the main consequences is development of portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results because the scarring of the liver makes it more difficult for blood to flow through it, leading to increased blood pressure in the portal vein as blood is delivered from the splanchnic organs (stomach, small intestine, colon, pancreas, and spleen) (Figure 2). The obstruction of blood flow through the portal vein additionally results in dilation of the splanchnic circulation as a compensatory mechanism aimed at restoring blood flow. In turn, increased blood flow to the splanchnic circulation worsens portal hypertension.1  

            Figure 1. Stages of Liver Disease.

            Graphic showing the stages of liver disease, from healthy liver to cirrhosis.

             

            Figure 2. The splanchnic circulation. The splanchnic circulation describes blood flow to the abdominal organs. Blood from these “splanchnic” organs is delivered to the portal vein, and accounts for the majority of the blood flow to be processed by the liver.

            Graphic showing the blood flow from the aorta, through organs and liver, and then finally to the inferior vena cava.

             

            Pathophysiology of HRS

            Portal hypertension and the changes in blood flow that result are the main drivers of several consequences of cirrhosis. These complications include the development of ascites, espophageal varices, and HRS.

             

            Ascites is fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity that commonly appears as abdominal swelling or bloat. A patient with significant ascites will often test positive for a “fluid wave.” That is, when a patient is lying flat and someone applies pressure to the abdominal midline, a clinician can tap one flank sharply, and an impulse or “shock wave” will travel through the fluid in the abdomen. The clinician will be able to be feel the tap on the other side.

             

            Esophageal varices are enlarged veins in the esophagus that can lead to bleeding that commonly presents as “coffee ground” looking emesis (or vomitus) that is a result of the blood being digested in the stomach then regurgitated through the esophagus. In the case of HRS, the portal hypertension and splanchnic vessel dilation mean that blood tends to pool in the splanchnic circulation, decreasing effective arterial volume (i.e., a decreased amount of blood effectively perfusing organ tissue, including the kidneys). Additionally, the body activates various compensatory mechanisms aimed at increasing blood volume (e.g., the renin-angiotensin system and the sympathetic nervous system). This action is an attempt to restore effective blood volume, which leads to vasoconstriction of the kidney arterioles and further hypoperfusion of the kidney (Figure 3).6

            Figure 3. Changes in blood flow with cirrhosis. The image on the left represents normal splanchnic and portal blood flow. The image on the right shows blood flow to a cirrhotic liver. Blood from the splanchnic organs meets increased resistance in the portal vein, leading to portal hypertension. The splanchnic arteries vasodilate which worsens portal hypertension and leads to decreased blood flow to the kidneys.

            Cartoon showing the difference in blood flow between a normal liver and cirrhotic liver. The main difference is backup of blood flow, causing portal hypertension.

            ABBREVIATIONS: ADH: antidiuretic hormone, IMA: inferior mesenteric artery, RAAS: renal angiotensin aldosterone system, RBF: renal blood flow, GFR: glomerular filtration rate, SMA: superior mesenteric artery

            Prevalence and Prognosis

            HRS is a type of acute kidney injury (AKI) that is unique to patients with decompensated cirrhosis. HRS occurs in the absence of hypovolemia or any structural changes to the kidney—in fact, the kidneys often function normally following liver transplantation.7 HRS is common in patients with cirrhosis, and risk of development increases as the severity of cirrhosis and the duration with which the patient has had it increase. In one study of patients with cirrhosis and ascites, the incidence of HRS increased from 18% at one year to 39% after five years.8 The development of HRS is unfortunately associated with a very poor prognosis, and often the only way to reverse the kidney failure is to receive a liver transplant.7

             

            Classification and Diagnosis

            Two distinct forms of HRS have been described. According to the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) guidelines9

            • Type 1 HRS is a rapid increase in creatinine (0.3 mg/dL or greater) within 48 hours or an increase in serum creatinine to levels that are at least 50% higher than the most recent baseline value measured within three months. It often has a precipitating factor, such as a bacterial infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, or over-diuresis. This type of HRS is more common and more severe, making up 75% of cases and having a median survival of one month.
            • Type 2 HRS takes a longer time to develop and is defined as an estimated glomerular filtration rate of less than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2 for three months or more in the absence of other (structural) causes. This is the same definition used for all patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Type 2 HRS often co-occurs with other complications of cirrhosis (i.e., refractory ascites) and has a median survival of about seven months.8

             

            In recent years the nomenclature has been updated so that type 1 HRS is referred to as HRS-AKI and type 2 is called HRS-CKD.6,9

             

            Sometimes it is hard to know that a patient with end-stage liver disease is in kidney failure. These patients may have decreased muscle mass, are prone to malnutrition, and may take diuretics to control volume status. All three of those factors make serum creatinine an unreliable surrogate measure of kidney function.10

            In patients with cirrhosis and ascites who meet the criteria for AKI, the diagnosis of HRS-AKI becomes one of exclusion. Clinicians must attempt to rule out hypovolemia, shock, medication-induced AKI, and structural kidney injury. In the absence of these alternative causes for AKI, a diagnosis of HRS-AKI can be made, and treatment commenced as soon as possible, as early intervention is key to decreasing mortality.9

             

            Sidebar: Why is serum creatinine unreliable in advanced liver disease?

            In clinical practice, clinicians often estimate kidney function by measuring a patient’s serum creatinine and inputting the value into a kidney function estimating equation. Creatinine is a byproduct of creatine, an amino acid produced by the liver and released into the circulation to reach target tissues, such as muscle. Creatinine is released during normal muscle metabolism. It is used in kidney function estimates because the glomerulus filters it freely, and so theoretically the rate at which the kidneys clear creatinine should be similar to the glomerular filtration rate itself.

             

            However, a patient’s serum creatinine value is not affected by glomerular filtration rate alone. A malfunctioning liver may produce lower amounts of creatinine’s precursor, creatine. Additionally, patients with cirrhosis may have decreased oral intake due to nausea, ascites, and/or ongoing alcohol use. This means they consume less creatine is consumed from the diet as well. Finally, since creatinine is a product of muscle tissue breakdown and patients with cirrhosis tend to have significantly reduced muscle mass, they may generate less creatinine from the creatine. The end result is a serum creatinine that is normal or even lower than that seen in healthy individuals.

             

            Hence, kidney function estimates that rely on creatinine tend to overestimate kidney function in these patients and even small absolute increases in creatinine could represent an acute kidney injury.

            PAUSE AND PONDER: Is there a better way to measure true kidney function in patients with end-stage liver disease?

             

            Current and Emerging Therapies for HRS

            Therapies used to treat HRS aim at removing the precipitating factor and increasing blood flow to the kidneys. First, clinicians must identify and treat the potential etiology leading to the decline in kidney function (e.g., antibiotic therapy in the treatment of an infection of ascites fluid called spontaneous bacterial peritonitis [SBP], proton pump inhibitors, and endoscopic intervention to stop a gastrointestinal bleed). Removing the cause is one of the most important factors in ensuring that the change in kidney function is not permanent.

             

            Fundamentally the kidney receives insufficient blood flow secondary to a decrease in effective arterial blood flow, so initial therapy’s main goal is to improve the patient’s mean arterial pressure as soon as possible. The most common goal cited is to increase the patient’s mean arterial pressure (MAP) to greater than 65 mmHg to improve perfusion to target end organs, specifically the kidney.11,12 The goal is to improve kidney function and give the patient additional time to secure a liver transplant or stabilize the end stage disease and decrease mortality. This continuing education activity will review the agents used to improve kidney function in the setting of HRS. Table 1 summarizes guideline recommendations for initial management of patients with HRS-AKI.

             

            Table 1. Summary of Society Guidelines for Initial Management of HRS-AKI in the ICU9,22,23,32,33
            Society HRS-AKI Definition Volume expander Vasopressor of choice Target
            American Association for the Surgery of Trauma 2022 Increase in SCr > 0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours or > 50% increase in SCr in preceding 7 days in patients with cirrhosis/ascites without another cause Lactate ringers or Plasmalyte over Normal Saline; albumin 20-25% 1 gm/kg/day x 48 hours Norepinephrine, Terlipressin MAP > 65 mmHg, increased urine output
            American Association for the Study of Liver Disease 2021 Increase in SCr > 0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours or > 50% increase in SCr in preceding 7 days in patients with cirrhosis/ascites without another cause; use SCr values for the last 3 months prior to event to evaluate baseline Albumin 1 gm/kg on day 1, then 40 to 50 gm daily while receiving vasopressor therapy Terlipressin,* Norepinephrine 0.5 mg/h ; max 3 mg/h Increase MAP by at least 10 mmHg above pre-treatment baseline or urine output >200 mL over 4 hours; albumin to maintain CVP between 4-10 mmHg;

            Continue treatment until SCr back to baseline up to 14 days; if SCr remains at or above pre-treatment values after 96 hours stop vasopressor therapy

            European Association for the Study of the Liver 2010 Kidney failure in the setting of liver disease unexplained by another cause Albumin 1 gm/kg/day (max 100 gm/day) Terlipressin 1 mg every 4 to 6 hours in combination with albumin, if SCr does not improve by at least 30% in 72 hours increase dose to 2 mg every 4 hours Increase in MAP by at least 5 mmHg by day 3
            American Gastroenterological Association 2022 Increase in SCr > 0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours or > 50% from baseline or urine output is <0.5 mL/kg/hr for > 6 hours Albumin 1 gm/kg/day x 48 hours, if no improvement continue 1 gm/kg x 1 day then 20 to 40 gm daily while receiving vasopressor therapy Terlipressin 1 mg every 4 to 6 hours; increase to 2 mg every 4 to 6 hours if reduction in SCr < 25% by day 3 if available up to 14 days, alternative norepinephrine or midodrine/octreotide Increase MAP by at least 10 mmHg or urine output by at least 50 mL/h for at least 2 hours, maintain priority for liver transplant if survive
            *not approved in US at the time of guideline construction

             

            ABBREVIATIONS: CVP = central venous pressure; MAP = mean arterial pressure; SCr = serum creatinine

             

             

             

            PAUSE AND PONDER: When might these interventions be considered “too late?” What would you do then?

             

            Crystalloids

            Initial evaluation of patients includes an assessment of their effective arterial blood volume status. Early cessation of home medications that impact blood pressure or volume status, such as diuretics (e.g., spironolactone, furosemide) will allow a more accurate determination. If the patient’s effective arterial blood volume is not optimized, inadequate blood flow to the kidney can precipitate acute kidney injury in the setting of cirrhosis.

             

            Crystalloids, such as normal saline and Lactated Ringer’s, stay within the intravascular space and provide appropriate initial fluid replacement. However, clinicians must provide fluid replacement (also referred to in this case as fluid resuscitation) carefully and with appropriate monitoring as patients can become volume overloaded. Patients with end stage liver disease have low albumin levels and tend to lack the oncotic pressure (a type of osmotic pressure induced by plasma proteins, especially albumin) required to keep crystalloids within the intravascular space. Even minimal resuscitation can produce significant peripheral edema and pulmonary edema, and worsen ascites.13

            Pharmacists should provide support in appropriate monitoring of volume status and ensuring serum electrolytes are frequently obtained. Fluids may need to be stopped abruptly in response to volume overload to prevent hypervolemic hyponatremia (low sodium levels).14 Appropriate understanding of the patient’s intravascular volume status will determine if using albumin during resuscitation is appropriate.

             

            Albumin

            Patients with end-stage liver disease typically have reduced or low albumin levels because the liver is no longer able to manufacture these proteins. Reduced albumin decreases the circulating oncotic pressure which yields fluid leakage from blood vessels into other areas of the body (e.g., peritoneal space), reducing the arterial blood volume going to the kidney. This becomes especially apparent when a precipitating event such as a hemorrhage or infection occurs, which further decreases circulating blood volume. Clinicians often administer concentrated albumin (e.g., 25% or 25 grams/100 mL) every six to eight hours to increase the intravascular circulating blood volume. Albumin allows fluid to move from the interstitial spaces back into the blood stream and keeps exogenously administered crystalloids in the vessels, thereby increasing blood flow to the kidneys.12 Clinicians should reserve concentrated albumin for patients with baseline low serum albumin (e.g., less than 3 mg/dL) who are also volume overloaded and limit them to just the amount that restores hemodynamic stability.15

             

            Patients who have inadequate total body volume or those who have capillary leak (e.g., septic shock) may benefit from less concentrated (e.g., 5%) albumin infusions. A recent single center open-label, randomized study evaluated hypotensive patients with end-stage liver disease and compared volume replacement with albumin to normal saline.16 The primary outcome was to determine which approach could reverse a mean arterial pressure less than 65 mmHg more effectively within the first hours of resuscitation. Of note this trial excluded patients who needed immediate interventions, such as variceal bleed or vasopressor agents.17 The researchers randomized patients to receive 250 mL of 5% albumin over 30 minutes followed by 50 mL/hr for three hours or normal saline 30 mL/kg over 15 to 30 minutes followed by 100 mL/h over three hours. Albumin was more effective than normal saline in improving mean arterial pressure above 65 mmHg in the first hour (25.3% albumin vs 14.9% normal saline, p = 0.03) of resuscitation. The benefit continued over the next three hours (p < 0.001) and survival was also better in patients resuscitated with albumin than those treated with saline (43.5% vs 38.3%).16,18 The researchers note that results are predicated on appropriate management of the underlying causes of hypotension (i.e., sepsis).

             

            Albumin is expensive, can be and has been subject to shortages. It should be used with stewardship in end stage liver disease and HRS; however, the evidence for benefit is robust especially when combined with other modalities.16 It is important to understand the patient’s volume status and hemodynamic goals to select the appropriate concentration and frequency.19,20 The AASLD Guidelines for the Diagnosis, Evaluation and Management of Ascites, Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis and HRS suggest that patients who present with HRS should receive 1 gram/kg albumin on day 1 and then 40 to 50 grams per day until kidney function improves and other therapies are no longer needed.9,15 The daily dose may be reduced (e.g., 20 to 40 grams/day) if given in combination with vasopressor agents with a goal to maintain adequate volume. Clinicians sometimes use a surrogate measure of volume using a central venous catheter to measure central venous pressure (CVP), which reflects the amount of blood in the patient’s anterior vena cava and venous tone. In this case, a CVP goal between 10 and 15 mmHg is targeted.10,21 Unfortunately CVP can be unreliable when ascites is present and clinicians may need to employ other invasive methods along with close monitoring for the development of pulmonary edema.9,22,23

             

            Ensuring albumin is available for patients with HRS is necessary. Some ways to aid centers in managing their supplies when shortages occur include limiting scheduled orders to 24 hours (e.g., 1 gram of 25% every 8 hours for 24 hours). Limiting “evergreen” orders to 24 hours will ensure clinicians assess patients appropriately before administering additional albumin and may prevent unappreciated volume overload. Also, standardized order sets will prevent use of partial vials, larger than needed vials (e.g., 250 mL or 500 mL) and inappropriate ordering of the incorrect concentration (e.g., 5% versus 25%). Teaching hospitals may also benefit from limiting albumin orders to certain clinical situations or diagnoses to avoid ubiquitous use for volume resuscitation in patients (e.g., trauma) who can be resuscitated with crystalloid.

             

            Vasopressors

            Vasopressors are given in combination with resuscitation, specifically albumin. The exogenous albumin facilitates adequate oncotic pressure to keep fluid in the vasculature, allowing vasopressors to constrict the vessels, increase mean arterial pressure, and supply fluid to the kidney. Vasopressors will be ineffective and can make kidney function worse if fluid in the vasculature is insufficient. Therefore, prescribers should only institute vasopressors along with or after volume resuscitation. The main adverse effects associated with any vasopressor therapy are related to ischemia (poor blood flow) in the peripheral limbs/tissues (e.g., fingertips, skin), gastrointestinal tract, or heart.9 Limited head-to-head trials exist to identify which agent or combination is the most effective in reversing HRS beyond early implementation of therapy in combination with albumin volume expansion. Table 2 summarizes the pros, cons, and considerations related to vasopressor agents used in the treatment of HRS.

             

            Table 2. Vasopressor Agents Pros, Cons and Considerations
            Medication Pros Cons Considerations
            Norepinephrine Frequently used in the ICU setting, team comfort with monitoring for adverse effects and ease/experience with titration May be less effective in hypothermia, pH dysregulation, continuous infusion May require ICU setting, especially for acute titration; may require a central line
            Terlipressin Does not require a central line, or continuous infusion Requires additional monitoring for ischemia which may require ICU level care to ensure safety Requires monitoring for ischemic events
            Octreotide Can be given outside the ICU Slow response, IV or subcutaneous administration May be continued as an outpatient
            Midodrine Available as an oral agent, can be given outside the ICU Slow response, only available as an oral agent; frequency of dosing May be provided on discharge to help maintain blood pressure in the setting of hypotension

            ABBREVIATIONS: ICU = intensive care unit; IV = intravenous

             

            Norepinephrine

            Norepinephrine is an exogenous catecholamine that targets alpha-1-adrenergic receptors which helps improve peripheral vascular resistance.24 Norepinephrine has been used consistently in the United States (U.S.) for many years and has been the agent of choice until the recent approval of terlipressin. Norepinephrine’s limitation is that it can be less effective, as are other catecholamines, if patients have temperature or pH dysregulation. Appropriate resuscitation and correction of these variables can improve norepinephrine’s efficacy. A meta-analysis comparing the effectiveness of norepinephrine and terlipressin suggests that norepinephrine is as effective in increasing mean arterial pressure and reversal of kidney dysfunction.24 The most frequent doses of norepinephrine cited in terlipressin head-to-head trials were between 0.5 to 3 mg/hour and/or 0.05 to 0.7 mcg/kg/minute titrated to increase mean arterial pressure 10 mmHg above baseline or increasing urine output to more than 200 mL/hour.24 Clinicians must monitor norepinephrine administration carefully to prevent complications of vasoconstriction, such as cardiac or digital ischemia and therefore it is often restricted to the intensive care unit (ICU).24

             

            Terlipressin

            Terlipressin is a prohormone of lysine-vasopressin, causing extended release of lysine-vasopressin and activation of V1 and V2 receptors allowing intermittent administration.24 V1 receptors are predominantly located in the smooth muscles of the arterial vasculature in the splanchnic region. Activating V1 receptors constricts the splanchnic vessels (reducing delivery of blood flow to the portal vein, lowering portal pressure) which subsequently may improve blood flow to kidneys. Additionally, activation of the V2 receptors causes reabsorption of water in the kidney.24,25 Terlipressin has been evaluated in several prospective, placebo-controlled clinical trials evaluating its efficacy in improving kidney function in HRS.18 Specifically, a recent prospective, randomized, double-blind controlled trial evaluated the effectiveness of terlipressin against placebo in combination with albumin in reversing HRS-AKI.25 Terlipressin was more effective than placebo in reversing HRS (32% vs 17%, p < 0.006), but did yield more respiratory failure.25 This trial was an impetus for U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval of terlipressin in 2023.

             

            The FDA approved terlipressin for rapid reduction in kidney function in the setting of cirrhosis with no other etiology, or reversal of HRS at a dose of 1 mg administered by intravenous bolus every six hours.10 If the patient’s serum creatinine fails to improve or increases within the first 96 hours then prescribers should discontinue terlipressin. If improvement is marginal (e.g., less than 30% from baseline) the dose can be increased to 2 mg every six hours.10 Therapy should be continued until the patient’s serum creatinine is 1.5 mg/dL or less for two days or a maximum of 14 days. Prescribers should use terlipressin with caution in patients with a history of ischemic conditions (e.g., cardiac, mesenteric).10 Terlipressin should not be used in patients who have a serum creatinine exceeding 5 mg/dL, in patients who are hypoxic (SpO2 less than 90%), or in patients who develop ischemia.10,23

             

            Terlipressin is often given outside the ICU and does not need continuous cardiac monitoring, which may make it desirable for longer term administration.10 Initial clinical trials compared norepinephrine continuous infusion (1 mcg/kg/minute increased every four hours to increase MAP by 10 mmHg) to terlipressin (1 mg every four hours; increased to 2 mg every four hours after three days) combined with albumin to maintain a CVP between 10 and 15 mmHg. These trials defined a complete response as an improvement in serum creatinine by at least 30% from baseline within 14 days of therapy. There was no difference in responders between norepinephrine and terlipressin (70% and 83%).21,26,27 Therefore terlipressin’s benefit may lie in its intermittent dosing and ability to be administered outside the ICU.

             

            Terlipressin’s most common adverse reactions (≥10%) include abdominal pain, nausea, respiratory failure, diarrhea, and dyspnea. Terlipressin does have some additional considerations. It also has a boxed warning for possible serious or fatal respiratory failure, and clinicians need to monitor patients’ oxygen saturation carefully.28

             

            Terlipressin is supplied as a single dose 0.85 mg vial that must be stored under refrigeration and protected from light. Vials are reconstituted with 5 mL of sodium chloride and if not used, must be refrigerated and expire after 48 hours. The initial dose based on the approved labeling is one vial (0.85 mg) every six hours; which can be increased to two vials (1.7 mg) every six hours.28

             

            Midodrine and Octreotide

            Midodrine and octreotide in combination have been a staple in the treatment of acute HRS for the last two decades in the U.S. Midodrine, an oral tablet, is like norepinephrine and produces vasoconstriction through alpha-1-adrenergic receptors.24 Octreotide injection is a somatostatin analogue that decreases the release of vasodilatory substances and glucagon leading to vasoconstriction of the splanchnic circulation.24 Because norepinephrine must be administered in the ICU, some healthcare facilities favor the combination of midodrine and octreotide. They also use midodrine/octreotide if they have not added terlipressin to their formularies.23 Unfortunately, patients tend to respond slowly to the combination and the combination requires an extended duration for full benefit.23 Octreotide cannot be given without midodrine but midodrine may be continued long-term (e.g., post-discharge) to maintain blood pressure in patients who are persistently hypotensive.23,29

             

            Researchers recently published a single center experience with standardizing administration of midodrine and octreotide for treatment of HRS at their center.29 They wanted to standardize the use and dosing of albumin in combination with midodrine dosed at 2.5 to 10 mg three times daily and octreotide 50 to 100 mcg subcutaneously three times daily for 14 days and compare it to previous unstandardized prescribing. The goal was to obtain a full response: a serum creatinine within 0.3 mg/dL of baseline within seven to 14 days. Use of the standardized protocol was more effective in producing a full response than the historical unstandardized practice (25% vs 10%, p = 0.07).29 Additionally, the researchers also found that fewer patients in the protocol group required kidney replacement therapy. Guidelines suggest initiating midodrine at a dose of 7.5 mg three times daily and titrating it to 12.5 mg three times daily in combination with octreotide.23 The combination may still be in favor because it is a cost-effective alternative to terlipressin outside the ICU.

             

            Midodrine is supplied in three tablet strengths which include 2.5 mg, 5 mg and 10 mg.30 This allows outpatient tapering or adjustment if the patient experiences tachycardia. Unfortunately, it is short acting and requires three times daily dosing initially. In practice, dropping the middle of the day dose without reducing the strength allows improved adherence once the patient’s blood pressure is stable. Midodrine’s labeling includes a boxed warning for possible marked elevation of supine blood pressure, and clinicians should monitor supine and standing blood pressure regularly.30

             

            Octreotide is supplied in single dose ampules or multidose vials that must be stored in the refrigerator and protected from light; multidose vials must be discarded within 14 days. Octreotide is stable for 14 days at room temperature.31 Doses of 50 mcg to 100 mcg are administered every eight hours around the clock during the inpatient stay. If patients continue on octreotide as outpatients, the hospital pharmacy often needs to supply the doses. Patients and caregivers need appropriate education on subcutaneous injections and disposal of injection materials. In practice, the dose used in the hospital with success is often continued and not reduced to allow for the shortest duration possible. Octreotide subcutaneous injections on the outpatient side typically require additional insurance approval and preparation so discharge planning early is important.31

             

            The Role of Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians in the Treatment of HRS

            Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can play an integral role in improving outcomes for patients presenting with or who have a history of HRS. Prevention is the key! Patients with end-stage liver disease should avoid medications that can precipitate HRS such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and will require appropriate adjustment or discontinuation (if possible) of potential nephrotoxic agents (e.g., certain antimicrobials).

             

            Ensuring patients with a history of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) are on appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis can prevent subsequent SBP events that decrease blood flow to the kidneys. In the ambulatory setting, careful blood pressure monitoring and adjustment of blood pressure medications commonly used to treat portal hypertension (e.g., carvedilol), can ward off hypotensive events that can precipitate HRS.

             

            Table 3 summarizes some lifestyle counseling tips that can help empower patients to play an active role in optimizing their care and preventing HRS episodes. Additionally, general management of concurrent disease states, such as heart failure and diabetes, can aid in maintaining optimal hemodynamics.

            Table 3. Lifestyle Counseling Points for Patients with Cirrhosis at risk for HRS35-37
            Avoid alcohol Even if the cause of liver damage isn’t drinking, alcohol use can increase the amount of damage. Patients who cease alcohol can experience dramatic improvements in some of the complications of cirrhosis.
            Low sodium diet (especially in patients with ascites) Limit sodium intake. This can be quite difficult, but if it can be done will help quite a bit with volume management. Patients with ascites are often asked to target ≤2 g/day. (For reference, 1 teaspoon of salt contains 2.3 g!)
            Weight loss in patients who are overweight Even a small amount of weight loss (e.g., a few pounds) can have a beneficial effect in patients with NAFLD or chronic HCV.
            Protect yourself from infections Patients need to stay up to date on vaccinations, wash their hands frequently, and avoid people who are sick.
            Organize medication schedule Patients with liver impairment can take seven to 10 medications a day—some administered multiple times a day. Investing in a strong adherence-enhancing system with alarm reminders or reminders from caregivers can be key.
            Use OTC medications carefully NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen and naproxen, can precipitate acute kidney injury.
            Monitor weight daily (if on diuretic treatment) Patients need to weigh themselves first thing in the morning after urinating. They should report significant weight changes to their providers (e.g., losing 1 pound or more a day or gaining more than 5 pounds in a week).

             

             

            SIDEBAR: Did you know…acetaminophen can be a great choice for patient with HRS?34

            Imagine a situation where a medical intern is cross-covering in the medical intensive care unit and receives a call from a nurse about a patient with HRS. The patient is experiencing some mild pain and the nurse would like an as-needed medication to help.

             

            Or…

             

            You are working in the pharmacy and receive an order for oxycodone 5 mg every six hours as needed for mild pain. You are very concerned that this patient has both kidney and liver insufficiency and oxycodone is not a good choice but what else can you recommend?

             

            What about acetaminophen?!?

             

            Acetaminophen tends to have a bad rap mainly because it is in so many prescription and OTC products. It’s often in the news for causing liver toxicity. Oftentimes patients and providers do not think about the total acetaminophen exposure (the total daily dose of acetaminophen) and that is where the danger can come in. When the amount of acetaminophen’s toxic intermediary N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI) exceeds the liver’s glutathione stores, NAPQI starts to stick to hepatocytes (the liver’s main structural component). NAPQI acts like an antigen and stimulates the immune system to attack the liver.

             

            Fortunately, it takes a significant amount administered at one time or consistently over several days to expend the glutathione stores. Doses up to 2,000 mg per day are safe and effective in most patients with severe liver insufficiency. (The maximum daily dose in healthy adults is 3900 mg.) Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can ensure providers and patients with liver disease know they have alternative options. They can also help patients avoid reaching for a NSAID, especially if the patient has had a recent bout of HRS or if the patient is taking other medications that would suggest the presence of liver insufficiency (e.g., lactulose, rifaximin, norfloxacin). Remember prevention of HRS is the key!

             

            When a hospital admits a patient, healthcare providers need to understand what the patient was taking at home and stop or continue the appropriate medications at the right doses. For example, prescribers should discontinue medications that could be reducing blood pressure (e.g., beta blockers and alpha beta blockers) on admission.11,16 They need to consider adjusting home medications for kidney dysfunction and restarting medications needed to manage other complications of end-stage liver disease (e.g., lactulose for encephalopathy).

             

            When prompt administration of resuscitation with albumin is needed, the team may need help selecting the appropriate concentration. Patients who are significantly volume overloaded but have fluid in the extravascular space (e.g., in the abdominal cavity) would likely benefit from concentrated (25%) albumin. With the multidisciplinary team, the pharmacy team needs to understand the patient’s volume status and goals of therapy. Helping teams develop protocols to treat HRS can aid in goal-directed therapy and allow quick implementation of pharmacologic interventions to improve blood flow to the kidneys.

             

            At discharge pharmacists and pharmacy technicians must ensure that medications are appropriately adjusted for the patient’s current kidney and liver function after the acute event has resolved or stabilized. The pharmacy team should be involved in educating patients on how to organize their new medication regimens, how to monitor their responses to therapy and recognize common adverse effects, and how appropriate lifestyle changes can increase the effectiveness of therapy and help avoid the advanced complications of liver disease.

             

            CONCLUSION

            HRS is a common complication for patients with advanced liver disease and ascites. Patients are in a state of decreased effective arterial blood flow to the kidneys and other end organs, and kidney injury is easily precipitated by nephrotoxic agents, over-diuresis, or bacterial infection. Acute treatment is aimed at restoring blood flow to the kidneys with the use of volume resuscitation and splanchnic vasoconstrictors. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can identify medications that may worsen kidney function, and assist in the appropriate prescribing, monitoring, and stewardship of these agents. Additionally, appropriate patient education—empowering patients to monitor their fluid/blood pressure status and avoiding OTC medications that can worsen their condition or precipitate HRS—is key in optimizing patient outcomes.

            Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

            Set Your Ascites on Improving Patient Care: The Pharmacy Team’s Role in HRS Management
            Pharmacist post-test
            JC is a 56-year-old patient with end-stage liver disease secondary to non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) who presents to the emergency department with her caregiver after she was found disoriented in the backyard overnight. An arterial line is placed and the initial mean arterial pressure is 40 mmHg with a central venous pressure of 3 mmHg.

            Past Medical History:
            • Type 2 diabetes
            • NAFLD, biopsy proven six years ago
            • variceal bleed last year
            • ascites and recent worsening encephalopathy.
            Vital signs:
            • blood pressure 72/30 mmHg
            • temperature 102.3 F (39 C)
            • weight 56 kg, last weight 58 kg one week ago
            • no urine output
            Labs:
            • Scr 3.8 mg/dL (Scr 0.7 mg/dL last week).
            No signs of edema or ascites.
            Current medications: pantoprazole 40 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg every other day, carvedilol 6.25 mg twice daily, lactulose 30 mL TID, glipizide 10 mg daily, citalopram 10 mg daily.

            Please use the case above to answer the next 5 questions.

            1. JC’s blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg in triage, an arterial line is placed and CVP is initially 3 mmHg. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention given this information?
            A. Normal saline 500 mL bolus
            B. Vasopressin 0.04 units/min continuous infusion
            C. Midodrine 10 mg three times daily

            2. During JC’s admission the team requests your evaluation of the patient’s home medications. Which home medication would you discontinue on admission?
            A. Carvedilol
            B. Lactulose
            C. Citalopram

            3. What should the patient’s goal mean arterial pressure (MAP) be?
            A. Increase MAP by 30%
            B. Decrease MAP to 30 mmHg
            C. MAP of at least 65 mmHg

            4. The team is trying to determine what dose and concentration of albumin to administer. Based on only the information in the case, which initial dose and concentration is the most appropriate?
            A. 100 grams of 5% albumin
            B. 60 grams of 25% albumin
            C. 60 grams of 5% albumin

            5. The hospital is currently on ICU diversion and no critical care beds are available, so she must be cared for on the internal medicine unit. That unit cannot manage central lines. What is the most appropriate regimen to improve the patient’s MAP in addition to the currently infusing albumin?
            A. Terlipressin
            B. Norepineprhine
            C. Octreotide

            6. A patient has received terlipressin 1 mg every 6 hours for the past four days and the patient’s serum creatinine has increased from 3.5 mg/dL to 5 mg/dL. How should terlipressin be adjusted?
            A. Stop terlipressin
            B. Increase terlipressin dose to 1 mg every four hours
            C. Increase terlipression dose to 2 mg every six hours

            7. Which of the following medications should be avoided in patient with hepatorenal syndrome and/or liver cirrhosis?
            A. Acetaminophen
            B. Naproxen
            C. Guaifenesin

            8. HR is a 53-year-old Hispanic male who presents from hepatology clinic with an acute rise in serum creatinine. Admission medication reconciliation notes that his primary care doctor recently started him on losartan, and his blood pressure was 74/52 mmHg on admission. Following hydration with normal saline and stopping all other offending medications, the doctor prescribes midodrine and octreotide. What hemodynamic change can you expect following initiation of midodrine?

            A. Decrease in blood pressure
            B. Increase in portal pressure
            C. Increased blood pressure

            9. Which of the following is the most accurate rationale for combining albumin with other agents that cause vasoconstriction to manage hepatorenal syndrome?

            A. Exogenous albumin administration decreases intravascular oncotic pressure and allows for a decrease in mean arterial pressure when combined with vasoconstricting agents
            B. When specifically used in the setting of infection, exogenous albumin administration allows for enhanced delivery of protein bound antimicrobials to their required site of action
            C. Use of intravenous concentrated albumin allows fluid from the extravascular space to be pulled into the blood stream and increases blood volume and delivery to the kidney

            10. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of HRS?
            A. Increased blood flow to the kidney in the setting of splenic vasodilation
            B. Decreased blood flow to the kidney in the setting of portal hypertension
            C. Decreased blood flow to the kidney in the setting of splenic vasoconstriction

            11. Which of the following is a definitive treatment required to resolve HRS?
            A. Liver transplant
            B. Kidney transplant
            C. Portal vein transplant

            12. Which of the following best describes the main difference between Type I HRS and Type II HRS?
            A. Type 1 HRS is associated with a higher rise in serum creatinine (at least 0.3 mg/dL from baseline).
            B. Type 1 HRS happens more quickly (increase in serum creatinine over the most recent baseline taken within the past three months).
            C. Type 1 HRS shows the presence of structural kidney disease (e.g., polycystic kidney disease or glomerular, interstitial, or vascular diseases).

            Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

            Set Your Ascites on Improving Patient Care: The Pharmacy Team’s Role in HRS Management
            Pharmacy technician post-test
            1. Which of the following is a reason that liver disease affects the kidneys?
            A. Toxins that are cleared by the liver are toxic to the kidneys
            B. The treatments for liver disease release nephrotoxins
            C. Liver disease affects blood flow to the kidneys

            2. Which of the following best describes main difference between Type I HRS and Type II HRS?
            A. Type 1 HRS is associated with a higher rise in serum creatinine (at least 0.3 mg/dL from baseline) over any time period.
            B. Type 1 HRS happens more quickly (increase in serum creatinine over most recent baseline taken within the past three months).
            C. Type 1 HRS shows the presence of structural kidney disease (e.g., polycystic kidney disease or glomerular, interstitial, or vascular diseases).

            3. A patient with a past medical history of cirrhosis and ascites comes into the pharmacy complaining of mild to moderate knee pain and asks for help picking an over-the-counter analgesic. Which of the following will the pharmacist most likely recommend because of safety concerns?
            a. Naproxen
            b. Low dose acetaminophen
            c. Ibuprofen

            4. A patient is picking up prescriptions for furosemide and spironolactone. Which of the following should the patient remember to do to prevent an over-diuresis that can precipitate HRS?
            a. Weigh himself daily in the morning after he urinates; record his weights
            b. Eat a high sodium diet; read labels carefully and aim for more than 2 grams/day
            c. Practice good sleep hygiene; aim for an average 7 hours/night

            5. JC is a 55-year-old patient admitted to the intensive care unit with worsening ascites and hepatorenal syndrome. His mean arterial pressure is 50 mmHg, and the ICU doctor orders IV crystalloids. Which home medication might the team want to discontinue?
            A. Carvedilol
            B. Lactulose
            C. Citalopram

            6. Which of the following is a definitive treatment required to resolve HRS?
            A. Liver transplant
            B. Kidney transplant
            C. Portal vein transplant

            7. Which of the following is a vasopressor of the splanchnic circulation?
            A. Lactated ringers
            B. Terlipressin
            C. Albumin

            8. Which of the following is the most accurate rationale for combining albumin with other agents that cause vasoconstriction in the management of hepatorenal syndrome?
            A. Exogenous albumin administration decreases intravascular oncotic pressure and allows for a decrease in mean arterial pressure when combined with vasoconstricting medications
            B. When specifically used in the setting of infection, albumin allows for enhanced delivery of protein bound antimicrobials to their required site of action
            C. Use of intravenous concentrated albumin pulls fluid from the extravascular space into the blood stream and increases blood volume and delivery to the kidney

            9. What is a drawback to the use of midodrine and octreotide in the treatment of HRS?
            A. It constricts the splanchnic circulation.
            B. It was not available in the United States until 2023.
            C. It takes an extended number of days for full benefit.

            10. Which of the following medications needs to be administered in the intensive care unit?
            A. Albumin
            B. Norepinephrine
            C. Octreotide

            References

            Full List of References

            References

               
              1. Tsochatzis EA, Bosch J, Burroughs AK. Liver cirrhosis. Lancet. 2014 May 17;383(9930):1749-61.
              2. Huang DQ, Terrault NA, Tacke F, Gluud LL, Arrese M, Bugianesi E, Loomba R. Global epidemiology of cirrhosis - aetiology, trends and predictions. Nat Rev Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2023 Jun;20(6):388-398.
              3. Kim D, Alshuwaykh O, Dennis BB, Cholankeril G, Ahmed A. Trends in Etiology-based Mortality From Chronic Liver Disease Before and During COVID-19 Pandemic in the United States. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2022 Oct;20(10):2307-2316.e3.
              4. Kondili LA, Buti M, Riveiro-Barciela M, Maticic M, Negro F, Berg T, Craxì A. Impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hepatitis B and C elimination: An EASL survey. JHEP Rep. 2022 Sep;4(9):100531.
              5. Blach S, Kondili LA, Aghemo A, Cai Z, Dugan E, Estes C, Gamkrelidze I, Ma S, Pawlotsky JM, Razavi-Shearer D, Razavi H, Waked I, Zeuzem S, Craxi A. Impact of COVID-19 on global HCV elimination efforts. J Hepatol. 2021 Jan;74(1):31-36.
              6. Tariq R, Singal AK. Management of Hepatorenal Syndrome: A Review. J Clin Transl Hepatol. 2020 Jun 28;8(2):192-199.
              7. Arroyo V. The liver and the kidney: mutual clearance or mixed intoxication. Contrib Nephrol. 2007;156:17-23.
              8. Ginès A, Escorsell A, Ginès P, Saló J, Jiménez W, Inglada L, Navasa M, Clària J, Rimola A, Arroyo V, et al. Incidence, predictive factors, and prognosis of the hepatorenal syndrome in cirrhosis with ascites. Gastroenterology. 1993 Jul;105(1):229-36.
              9. Biggins SW, Angeli P, Garcia-Tsao G, Ginès P, Ling SC, Nadim MK, Wong F, Kim WR. Diagnosis, Evaluation, and Management of Ascites, Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis and Hepatorenal Syndrome: 2021 Practice Guidance by the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases. Hepatology. 2021 Aug;74(2):1014-1048.
              10. Wong F, Kwo P. Practical Management of HRS-AKI in the Era of Terlipressin: What the Gastroenterologist Needs to Know. Am J Gastroenterol 2023 Jun 1;118(6):915-920.
              11. Chandna S, Zarate ER, Gallegos-Orozco JF. Management of Decompensated Cirrhosis and Associated Syndromes. Surg Clin North Am. 2022 Feb;102(1):117-137.
              12. Patidar KR, Peng JL, Pike F, et al. Associations Between Mean Arterial Pressure and Poor ICU Outcomes in Critically Ill Patients With Cirrhosis: Is 65 The Sweet Spot? Crit Care Med. 2020 Sep;48(9):e753-e760.
              13. Francoz C, Durand F, Kahn JA, Genyk YS, Nadim MK. Hepatorenal Syndrome. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol. 2019 May 7;14(5):774-781.
              14. Maynard E. Decompensated Cirrhosis and Fluid Resuscitation. Surg Clin North Am. 2017 Dec;97(6):1419-1424.
              15. Nanchal R, Subramanian R, Karvellas CJ, et al. Guidelines for the Management of Adult Acute and Acute-on-Chronic Liver Failure in the ICU: Cardiovascular, Endocrine, Hematologic, Pulmonary, and Renal Considerations. Crit Care Med. 2020 Mar;48(3):e173-e191.
              16. Philips CA, Maiwall R, Sharma MK, et al. Comparison of 5% human albumin and normal saline for fluid resuscitation in sepsis induced hypotension among patients with cirrhosis (FRISC study): a randomized controlled trial. Hepatol Int. 2021 Aug;15(4):983-994.
              17. Cullaro G, Kanduri SR, Velez JCQ. Acute Kidney Injury in Patients with Liver Disease. Clin J Am Soc Nephrol. 2022 Nov;17(11):1674-1684.
              18. Mujtaba MA, Gamilla-Crudo AK, Merwat SN, Hussain SA, Kueht M, Karim A, Khattak MW, Rooney PJ, Jamil K. Terlipressin in combination with albumin as a therapy for hepatorenal syndrome in patients aged 65 years or older. Ann Hepatol. 2023, Vol. 28, p. 101126.
              19. Kugelmas M, Loftus M, Owen EJ, Wadei H, Saab S. Expert perspectives for the pharmacist on facilitating and improving the use of albumin in cirrhosis. Am J Health Syst Pharm. 2023, Vol. epub.
              20. Zheng X, Bai Z, Wang T, et al. Human Albumin Infusion for the Management of Liver Cirrhosis and Its Complications: An Overview of Major Findings from Meta-analyses. Adv Ther. 2023, Vol. 40, pp. 1494-1529.
              21. Nassar Junior AP, Farias AQ, D' Albuquerque LA, Carrilho FJ, Malbouisson LM. Terlipressin versus norepinephrine in the treatment of hepatorenal syndrome: a systematic review and meta-analysis. PLoS One. 2014, Vol. 9, p. e107466.
              22. Seshadri A, Appelbaum R, Carmichael SP 2nd, et al. Management of Decompensated Cirrhosis in the Surgical ICU: an American Association for the Surgery of Trauma Critical Care Committee Clinical Consensus Document. Trauma Surg Acute Care Open. 2022, Vol. 7, p. e000936.
              23. Flamm SL, Wong F, Ahn J, Kamath PS. AGA Clinical Practice Update on the Evaluation and Management of Acute Kidney Injury in Patients With Cirrhosis: Expert Review. Clin Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2022, Vol. 20, pp. 2702-2716.
              24. Flamm SL, Brown K, Wadei HM, Brown RS, Kugelmas M, et al. The Current Management of Hepatorenal Syndrome–Acute Kidney Injury in the United States and the Potential of Terlipressin. Liver Transplantation . 2021, Vol. 27, pp. 1191-1202.
              25. Wong F, Curry MP, Reddy KR, Rubin RA, Porayko MK, Gonzalez SA, et al. Terlipressin plus albumin for the treatment of hepatorenal syndrome type 1. N Engl J Med 2021;384:818-828. N Engl J Med. 2021, Vol. 384, pp. 818-828.
              26. Alessandria C, Ottobrelli A, Debernardi-Venon W, Todros L, Cerenzia MT, Martini S, Balzola F, Morgando A, Rizzetto M, Marzano A. Noradrenalin vs terlipressin in patients with hepatorenal syndrome: a prospective, randomized, unblinded, pilot study. J Hepatol. 2007, Vol. 47, pp. 499-505.
              27. Martín-Llahí M, Pépin MN, Guevara M, Díaz F, Torre A, Monescillo A, Soriano G, Terra C, Fábrega E, Arroyo V, Rodés J, Ginès P and Investigators, TAHRS. Terlipressin and albumin vs albumin in patients with cirrhosis and hepatorenal syndrome: a randomized study. Gastroenterology. 2008, Vol. 134, pp. 1352-1359.
              28. Terlivaz [package insert]. Mallinckrodt Pharmaceuticals;2023.
              29. Hiruy A, Nelson J, Zori A, et al. Standardized approach of albumin, midodrine and octreotide on hepatorenal syndrome treatment response rate. Eur J Gastroenterol Hepatol. 2021, Vol. 33, pp. 102-106.
              30. Midodrine [package insert]. Upsher-Smith Laboratories; 2020.
              31. Octreotide Acetate Inejction [package insert]. Fresenius Kabi; 2022.
              32. European Association for the Study of the Liver. EASL clinical practice guidelines on the management of ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, and hepatorenal syndrome in cirrhosis. J Hepatol. 2010 Sep;53(3):397-417.
              33. Pitre T, Kiflen M, Helmeczi W, et al. The Comparative Effectiveness of Vasoactive Treatments for Hepatorenal Syndrome: A Systematic Review and Network Meta-Analysis. Crit Care Med. 2022 Oct 1;50(10):1419-1429.
              34. Rogal SS, Hansen L, Patel A, Ufere NN, Verma M, Woodrell CD, Kanwal F. AASLD Practice Guidance: Palliative care and symptom-based management in decompensated cirrhosis. Hepatology. 2022 Sep;76(3):819-853.
              35. Nobili V, Carter-Kent C, Feldstein AE. The role of lifestyle changes in the management of chronic liver disease. BMC Med. 2011 Jun 6;9:70.
              36. Saleh ZM, Bloom PP, Grzyb K, Tapper EB. How Do Patients With Cirrhosis and Their Caregivers Learn About and Manage Their Health? A Review and Qualitative Study. Hepatol Commun. 2020 Nov 17;5(2):168-176.
              37. US Department of Veterans Affairs. Ascites due to Cirrhosis. 2018. https://www.hepatitis.va.gov/pdf/ascites-fact-sheet.pdf Accessed 6/30/2023.

              The Nitty Gritty: Dry Eye Guidance for the Pharmacy Team

              Learning Objectives

               

              After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists and technicians will be able to

              1. Describe the etiology and pathophysiology of dry eye disease (DED) and its impact on quality of life
              2. Identify available and emerging over-the-counter and prescription therapies to treat DED
              3. Optimize artificial tear selection based on patient-specific characteristics
              4. Infer when to refer patients to the pharmacist or an eye care provider for DED

                 

                Release Date: August 15, 2023

                Expiration Date: August 15, 2025

                Course Fee

                Pharmacists: FREE

                Pharmacy Technicians: FREE

                This CE was funded by:  Alcon Vision, LLC

                ACPE UANs

                Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-030-H01-P

                Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-030-H01-T

                Session Codes

                Pharmacist:  23YC30-TVX83

                Pharmacy Technician:  23YC30-XVT99

                Accreditation Hours

                2.0 hours of CE

                Accreditation Statements

                The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-030-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                 

                Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                Faculty

                Jennifer Salvon, RPh
                Clinical Pharmacist
                Mercy Medical Center
                Springfield, MA

                Faculty Disclosure

                In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                Ms. Salvon does not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

                 

                ABSTRACT

                Dry eye disease (DED) is a multifactorial condition affecting the ocular surface and tear function. Symptoms include burning, itching, and watery eyes. DED affects millions of people in the United States. Many underlying factors contribute to DED making therapeutic management difficult. Left untreated, DED can result in visual changes affecting everyday activities such as reading and driving. Simple environmental changes often help alleviate symptoms. Before seeking healthcare professional assistance, many people self-treat with over-the-counter artificial tear products, leading to high costs and frustration. Treatment involves patient education, environmental and lifestyle modifications, topically applied products, and, in severe cases, surgical procedures. Several recently approved products offer alternative treatment approaches. A knowledgeable, informed pharmacy team is prepared to counsel patients on product choice and to make appropriate referrals contributing to better patient outcomes.

                CONTENT

                Content

                INTRODUCTION

                The feeling of grit under the eyelids is uncomfortable, annoying, and frustrating and can pose a serious health issue. This feeling, often accompanied by burning, itching, redness, and visual disturbances, is a symptom of keratoconjunctivitis sicca, otherwise known as dry eye disease (DED). At its simplest, DED is inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva from tear hyperosmolarity (higher concentration of solutes like salts, sugars, or other dissolved particles) and tissue dryness. Left untreated, DED may result in severe eye inflammation, corneal ulcers, and vision loss.1

                 

                DED affects approximately 16.4 million people, or 6.8% of the United States (U.S.) adult population.2,3 DED is likely underreported and underdiagnosed, with estimates as high as 22.9 million adults experiencing symptoms.2 Researchers estimate DED’s global prevalence is as high as 50%.4

                 

                Despite this prevalence, experts began to recognize DED as a disease state only about 30 years ago.5,6 Initially described as a component of Sjogren’s syndrome (an autoimmune disease involving tear and saliva glands), DED emerged as a separate condition as ocular surface study progressed. The National Eye Institute first defined DED in 1995.1

                 

                The Tear Film and Ocular Surface Society (TFOS) is a non-profit organization focused on eye health research and education.5 In 2015, the Dry Eye Workshop II (DEWS II), organized by TFOS, examined multiple aspects of DED. The workshop updated the definition, diagnosis, and classification of DED, the disease’s impact, therapeutic management options, and clinical trial design.5

                 

                TFOS DEWS II defines DED as "… a multifactorial disease of the ocular surface characterized by a loss of homeostasis of the tear film, and accompanied by ocular symptoms, in which tear film instability and hyperosmolarity, ocular surface inflammation and damage, and neurosensory abnormalities play etiological roles."5 In simpler terms, DED occurs when the tear film, which keeps the eyes moist, becomes imbalanced, leading to problems like tear film instability, high concentration of substances in the tears, inflammation and damage on eye surface, and abnormal nerve sensations.

                 

                Many risk factors contribute to DED development (Table 1). Women are two to three times more likely to develop DED than men.3,4 Risk of developing DED increases with age. Adults aged 50 or older are three times more likely to develop symptoms than those 18 to 49 years old.2,3 However, DED’s incidence is rising steadily in the younger population, possibly due to increased disease awareness.3 Digital device use may also contribute. Studies show that using digital devices decreases blink rate and increases incomplete blinks, leading to ocular surface dryness and, ultimately, DED.4.7

                 

                Table 1. Dry Eye Disease Risk Factors1,4,5

                Modifiable Non-modifiable
                Androgen deficiency

                Computer use

                Contact lens wear

                Environment

                Medications

                Age ≥ 50 years

                Asian race

                Connective tissue diseases (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus)

                Diabetes

                Female sex

                Meibomian gland dysfunction

                 

                 

                DED impacts the American economy significantly. Several factors contribute to DED burden: direct costs of medical care, the impact of lost productivity, and the associated quality of life burden. In the U.S., estimates of direct medical costs exceed $3.84 billion, fueled by healthcare professional visits, pharmacologic therapies, and surgical procedures.4,8 The cost of lost productivity (i.e., time spent seeking and receiving treatment, avoidance of aggravating work environments, and inability to perform work due to visual changes) is even more substantial. One study estimates that these indirect costs total $11,302 per patient annually.8 If more than 16 million people have DED, that totals more than $150 billion annually.4,8

                 

                Beyond monetary costs associated with DED, the disease also affects vision-related quality of life (VR-QoL). As DED progresses, visual quality decreases. Individuals with DED are three times more likely to report visual difficulties than those without.4 This impacts many daily activities such as reading, driving, watching television, and smartphone use.4 DED-associated pain and discomfort, along with difficulty in activities of daily living, impact mental health negatively.8 A 2021 study examined self-reported health status and psychological burden in patients with DED. The study associated DED with having a negative self-perception of health status and experiencing increased psychological stress.9

                 

                A Deeper Look at DED

                A better understanding of DED requires review of the surface anatomy of a healthy eye (see Figure 1). The eye's surface consists of the ocular surface and ocular adnexa (accessory anatomical parts).10 The ocular surface includes the cornea, conjunctiva (including goblet cells), and tear film. The ocular adnexa includes the eyelids, lacrimal and meibomian glands, tear ducts, and the connecting muscles and nerves.10

                 

                Figure 1. Eye Surface Anatomy and Tear Film Formation

                Anatomical image of the eye and tear film.

                 

                Tears lubricate the eye, and the tear film—which provides nutrients and moisture, removes microbes, and smooths the ocular surface—has three layers10,11:

                • Outermost lipid layer, produced by meibomian glands
                • Aqueous layer, produced by the lacrimal gland
                • Innermost mucin layer, produced by goblet cells

                 

                Tear film instability, primarily increased tear osmolarity, leads to ocular surface damage in DED.7 DED's categorization is based on the mechanism leading to tear hyperosmolarity. In aqueous deficient dry eye disease (ADDE), decreased tear secretion increases tear film osmolarity. Increased evaporation of tears leads to hyperosmolarity in (you guessed it) evaporative dry eye disease (EDE).5

                 

                ADDE is further categorized based on the underlying cause: Sjogren’s Syndrome or non-Sjogren’s syndrome. As mentioned, Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease attacking the salivary and lacrimal glands resulting in dry mouth and eyes. Non-Sjogren’s syndrome ADDE has various causes, including lacrimal deficiency, lacrimal gland duct obstruction, and systemic drugs. These mechanisms decrease tear secretion, resulting in tear hyperosmolarity.5,10

                 

                Meibomian gland dysfunction (MGD) is the primary cause of EDE.12,13 Meibomian glands line the inside of the upper and lower eyelid. Lipid secretion by meibomian glands forms a coating on the aqueous layer, impeding tear evaporation and providing protection against environmental irritants. Risk factors for MGD include aging, hormonal changes, contact lens wear, diet, and systemic and topical medications.13

                 

                Separation of DED into ADDE and EDE implies mutual exclusivity, but many patients presenting with DED exhibit characteristics of both. Recent evidence indicates the two classifications co-exist, with more patients presenting with EDE due to MGD. 6,14,15 Regardless of the subtype or mechanism, the result is a vicious, self-perpetuating cycle of inflammation.6,16 Tear film hyperosmolarity triggers an innate inflammatory immune response, activating CD4+ T-cells. This leads to conjunctival and corneal cell death and impaired lacrimal gland function, further decreasing tear production.16,17 This further increases tear hyperosmolarity, which continues the cycle.

                 

                Diagnosing DED is problematic due to its multi-factorial nature and inconsistent symptom presentation. Exploring differential diagnoses using triaging questions is crucial to exclude diseases that mimic DED, including allergic, bacterial, or viral conjunctivitis; blepharitis; and rheumatic disorders.5,18 A thorough patient history screens for risk factors such as smoking, contact lens wear, and certain systemic and topical medications. Several questionnaires also exist to help clinicians screen for DED. The Dry Eye Disease Questionnaire (DEQ-5) contains five items asking patients to rate the frequency of eye discomfort, eye dryness, and watery eyes during a typical day.18 The Ocular Surface Disease Index (OSDI) is another popular questionnaire. The OSDI questionnaire asks a series of 12 questions assessing eye symptoms, vision issues (e.g., reading, driving), and environmental conditions.18

                 

                Patients with positive questionnaire results should progress to a more detailed tear film and ocular surface examination. A positive result in any of the following tests is diagnostic of DED18:

                • Tear breakup time (TBUT): There are two methods for measuring TBUT, using fluorescein dye or illumination of the cornea. Both measure how long it takes for tears to break up after a blink. Lower TBUT scores indicate tear instability.
                • Osmolarity: Clinicians use a device with a test strip to gain a sample of the tear film from both eyes to check tear osmolarity. An osmolarity of 308 mOsm/L or greater in either eye or a difference of more than 8 mOsm/L between the eyes is diagnostic of DED.
                • Ocular surface staining: After applying dye to the lower eyelid’s inner lining, clinicians examine the ocular surface for missing or damaged epithelial cells. Positive scores range from five to nine spots depending on the dye used.

                 

                Clinicians also commonly deploy the Schirmer test to evaluate the eye’s ability to produce tears. A notched paper strip placed over the lower eyelid stimulates tear production during the test. After five minutes, a length of wetting greater than 10 mm indicates normal tear function. Values less than 5 mm signify tear insufficiency.18

                Pause and ponder: How would vision loss affect your everyday life?

                 

                Treatment Goals

                Treatment goals for DED are to decrease ocular inflammation and restore ocular surface homeostasis (balance). DED's complexity and heterogeneous presentation necessitate an individualized approach. TFOS DEWS II recommendations emphasize identifying the disease’s root cause to determine an appropriate management approach.14 From there, the report outlines a stepwise, flexible approach to guide treatment based on patient-specific disease etiology and severity.14 Table 2 briefly summarizes recommended management steps.

                 

                Table 2. Treatment Steps in DED Management14

                Step 1:

                ·       Education

                ·       Environmental modifications

                ·       Lifestyle modifications

                ·       Dietary supplementation

                ·       Eyelid hygiene

                ·       Medication review

                ·       Artificial Tears

                Step 2:

                ·       Preservative-free artificial tears

                ·       Prescription therapy

                ·       Tear Conservation

                ·       Overnight treatments

                ·       In-office treatments

                Step 3:

                ·       Tear stimulation

                ·       Biological tear substitutes

                ·       Therapeutic contact lenses

                Step 4:

                ·       Prescription therapy

                ·       Surgical intervention

                 

                 

                NON-PHARMACOLOGIC TREATMENT

                One of the first steps, patient education, is essential for successful disease management.14 Patient education starts with thoroughly explaining DED’s chronic nature, including the ongoing, often long-term nature of therapeutic management. Discussing the patient’s home and work environment during the session may identify contributing factors.14 The environment affects overall health and well-being. Air pollution, low humidity, high altitude, and wind contribute to DED development.14 Adding an air humidifier inside or using protective eyeglasses outside can help mitigate DED symptoms. Other strategies include minimizing exposure to digital screens, cigarette smoke, and air conditioning.19

                 

                Proper lid hygiene is important in managing many eye conditions, including DED.14 Patients can use a cotton swab to scrub the eyelid with a dilute solution of baby shampoo to keep the area free of crusty build-up and environmental contaminants. Warm eye compresses also promote good lid hygiene and help alleviate DED symptoms. Unfortunately, lid hygiene adherence is poor, with estimates of just over 50% adherence at six weeks.14 Reinforcing the importance of lid hygiene with patients is an important component of DED patient counseling.

                 

                Identifying medications that may contribute to DED is an important task for pharmacy staff. Many medication classes produce drying effects on the body, intentionally or as an adverse effect.14,19 Table 3 lists examples of medications that may worsen DED. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians should review patient profiles to identify drying medications, including ophthalmic formulations, as medications for glaucoma (an eye condition causing progressive vision loss) may contribute to DED.14 Mitigating options to consider include changing the route of administration from oral to topical, substituting with a therapeutic alternative, and adjusting doses.14

                Table 3. Examples of Medications that Worsen Dry Eye Disease14,19

                Drug Class Examples
                Antihistamines and decongestants

                 

                Chlorpheniramine

                Diphenhydramine

                Fexofenadine

                Loratadine

                Pseudoephedrine

                Antidepressants

                ·       TCA

                ·       SSRI

                ·       SNRI

                 

                Amitriptyline

                Citalopram

                Duloxetine

                Fluoxetine

                Sertraline

                Venlafaxine

                Anti-Parkinson’s Levodopa
                Antipsychotics

                 

                Aripiprazole

                Perphenazine

                Quetiapine

                Beta-blockers

                 

                Atenolol

                Carvedilol

                Metoprolol

                Propranolol

                Diuretics

                 

                Furosemide

                Hydrochlorothiazide

                Proton pump inhibitors

                 

                Omeprazole

                Pantoprazole

                Hormone therapy Estrogen

                DED = dry eye disease; TCA = tricyclic antidepressants; SSRI = serotonin-selective reuptake inhibitor; SNRI = serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

                 

                Diet and Nutrition

                An emerging body of evidence suggests that certain diet changes and nutritional supplementation may play a role in DED treatment. Dehydration increases tear osmolarity, so maintaining adequate hydration is important to disease control.14 Lactoferrin is an anti-inflammatory glycoprotein found in natural tears. Studies have found decreased lactoferrin levels in patients with DED leading researchers to the explore lactoferrin topical application and oral supplementation as treatment for the condition. One study found improved dry eye symptoms and tear film stability in patients taking an oral lactoferrin supplement.20 Oral lactoferrin is available as a supplement in many retail locations.

                 

                Supplementation with omega-3 fatty acids also shows potential in DED. Omega-3 fatty acids block proinflammatory substances and are essential for ocular surface homeostasis.14 Some studies have found that omega-3 fatty acid supplementation improves TBUT and Schirmer scores.21,22 Conversely, The Dry Eye Assessment and Management (DREAM) trial reported no difference between groups receiving omega-3 fatty acids and placebo.23 While oral omega-3 fatty acids show benefit for some patients, further study is necessary. These conflicting results prompted studies for alternative administration routes. Topical application of omega-3 fatty acids shows promise. A systematic review of 10 studies (five in animals and five in humans) showed overall improvement in ocular surface staining and TBUT.24 Further study is necessary to evaluate long-term efficacy and optimize dosage and delivery formulations.

                 

                Artificial Tears

                Patients often attempt self-treatment before seeking healthcare professional assistance. Tear replacement with artificial tear (AT) formulations is essential for patient comfort and a mainstay of initial and ongoing therapy. Global sales of AT reached $2.64 billion in 2019, and experts predict this to reach $4.30 billion by 2027.25 Many AT products line the pharmacy shelves, all touting their ability to lubricate the eye. Faced with the confusing array of products, patients often employ a trial-and-error approach for AT selection, leading to high costs and frustration. Knowing the differences between ATs enhances the pharmacy team’s ability to counsel patients effectively.

                 

                AT supplementation is generally safe and well tolerated and associated adverse effects are mild, including blurred vision and ocular discomfort.14 Most ATs are water-based with viscosity-enhancing agents added for lubrication. Osmolarity, viscosity, and pH vary between products. Table 4 describes the components of AT products and their functions.

                 

                Table 4. Components of Artificial Tear Products11,14,26

                Component Purpose Examples
                Viscosity-enhancing agents (lubricants) Aid lubrication

                Increase tear film thickness

                Protect ocular surface

                Promote tear retention

                Improve goblet cell density

                Carbomer 940 (polyacrylic acid)

                Carboxymethyl cellulose (CMC)

                Dextran

                Glycerin

                Hyaluronic acid (HA)

                Hydroxypropyl-guar (HP-guar)

                Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)

                Polyvinyl alcohol

                Polyvinylpyrrolidone

                Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

                Lipids

                 

                Restore the lipid layer

                Increase lipid layer thickness

                Prevent evaporation

                Mineral oil

                Castor oil

                Flaxseed oil

                Osmoprotectants

                 

                Balance osmotic pressure

                 

                Trehalose

                Levocarnitine

                Erythritol

                Betaine

                Preservatives

                 

                Prevent microbial growth in multi-dose formulations Benzalkonium chloride (BAK)

                Sodium chlorite

                Sodium perborate

                Buffers

                 

                Control pH Sodium borate

                Sodium citrate

                Sodium phosphate

                Electrolytes

                 

                Promote ocular surface homeostasis Potassium

                Calcium

                Magnesium

                Phosphate

                 

                 

                Viscosity-enhancing agents, or demulcents, are the most common ingredient in AT and typically listed as the active ingredient on product packaging. The higher the viscosity (i.e., the thicker the product), the longer the ocular surface retention time, but differences in viscosity can influence product choice. High viscosity can create visual disturbances and buildup on the eyelid leading to decreased adherence.26 These products are best for nighttime use, and patients should use lower-viscosity products during the day.26 Many products contain multiple viscosity-enhancing agents. Commonly paired agents include carboxymethyl cellulose (CMC) with hyaluronic acid (HA) and hydroxypropyl-guar (HP-guar) with HA.14,26 Studies suggest that combining viscosity-enhancing components improves symptom control.14

                 

                There is significant interest in developing novel formulations to increase the spreading and retention time of applied drops.14 Lipid-containing eye drops are gaining in popularity as understanding of DED’s pathophysiology progresses.14 Lipids restore and thicken the lipid layer of the tear film and prevent tear evaporation. Formulated as oil-in-water emulsions, lipid-containing products contain macro-, micro-, or nano-particles. Particle size is important. Macro particles are associated with cloudy, blurred vision. As particle size decreases, blurring decreases.14

                 

                Osmoprotectants balance osmotic pressure, as the name implies, to protect and prevent corneal and conjunctival cell death.26 Levocarnitine and erythritol protect cells from hyperosmolar stress and improve DED’s symptoms.26 Clinical trials have shown that trehalose is more effective at improving ocular surface staining than saline.14,26

                 

                Multi-dose products contain preservatives to prevent microbial growth, but these can also worsen symptoms in DED. Benzalkonium chloride (BAK), the most common preservative, may cause corneal damage and interfere with tear film stability.14 Newer “disappearing preservatives” (e.g., sodium chlorite, sodium perborate) have a lower impact on the ocular surface. Exposure to light or the ocular surface breaks down these compounds, minimizing toxicity.14,27 Even newer preservatives carry risk, making preservative-free drops the best choice, especially in patients with severe DED. Preservative-free AT products are available in disposable single-use units but are generally more expensive.14

                 

                The pH of ATs affects product activity, stability, patient comfort, and safety.14 Adding electrolytes to reproduce the electrolyte profile of the tear film aids osmotic balance. Studies show that hypotonic solutions (i.e., having a lower osmotic pressure) decrease DED signs.26

                 

                No large-scale, randomized clinical trials have evaluated all currently available AT formulations. Some clinical trials evaluate individual AT products, and a few head-to-head studies exist.16,28 Several published systematic reviews have concluded that ATs treat DED safely and effectively. One systematic review of more than 60 studies published in 2022 drew the following conclusions27:

                • Combination formulations, including the following, may be more effective than single-ingredient products: CMC and HA, HA and trehalose, CMC and glycerin, and HA and coenzyme Q10.
                • Formulations containing polyethylene glycol (PEG) may be more effective than those with CMC.
                • Preservative-free formulations are preferable.
                • Patients with EDE and/or MGD should use drops containing phospholipids.
                • Patients should administer AT four times daily for one month to assess efficacy.
                • Patience is key; sometimes, it may take up to four months of consistent use to see improvement.

                 

                Another literature review of 18 studies compared commercially available AT products and concluded that products containing CMC, hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC), or HA were the most beneficial in improving patient comfort level.29 This study also determined that clinicians should recommend administration three to four times daily for two months to assess patient response before escalating therapy. The use of a preservative-free formulation is preferable.29 If patients choose or clinicians recommend preservative-containing eye drops, administration should be limited to four to six times daily.29 Researchers created a stepwise approach to selecting AT products29:

                • Step 1: Start with CMC, HPMC, or HA-based formulations
                • Step 2: Move to formulations with PEG or PEG and glycerin
                • Step 3: Consider gel or lipid formulations
                • Step 4: Progress to ointments, liposomal sprays, or prescription inserts

                 

                Both studies reached similar conclusions. Adherence and persistence are key to successfully evaluating an individual product, a fact that pharmacy staff should reiterate to patients. While some trial and error may be necessary, following the above recommendations allows patients and providers an organized approach to AT selection. While AT are a mainstay of early symptomatic treatment of dry eye disease, they do not address DED’s underlying causes. Prescription therapies target the underlying inflammatory processes.

                 

                Hydroxypropyl cellulose ophthalmic insert (HCOI) is a prescription-only lubricant insert containing 5 mg of hydroxypropyl cellulose. The insert is preservative-free and designed to provide continuous lubrication throughout the day. Patients insert HCOI once daily using an applicator.30 They rinse the applicator in hot water then use the grooved end to pick up the insert. Patients then place the insert in a pocket created by pulling out the outer corner of the eyelid. The HCOI softens and slowly dissolves, stabilizing and thickening the tear film, prolonging TBUT. One study comparing HCOI to using AT four or more times a day found increased TBUT and decreased foreign body sensation with HCOI compared to AT.30,31 Reported adverse effects include blurred vision, eye irritation, eyelid matting, and light sensitivity.30

                 

                Pause and Ponder: A patient approaches the pharmacy counter with a plastic bag full of bottles of different brands of artificial tears. Dumping them on the counter, she states, “None of these work! I don’t know what to do next.” What advice would you give her?

                 

                PRESCRIPTION THERAPIES

                Available prescription therapies (outlined in Table 5) target the inflammatory cycle of DED through different mechanisms with varying degrees of success.

                 

                Table 5. Prescription Therapies to Treat Dry Eye Disease28,32-36

                Drug Brand Name (Manufacturer) Formulation(s) Dosing Supplied
                Cyclosporine A Restasis

                (Allergan)

                0.05% emulsion 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use vials
                Cequa

                (Sun Pharma)

                0.09% solution 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use vials
                Generic

                (Mylan)

                0.05% solution 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use vials
                Lifitegrast Xiidra

                (Novartis)

                5% solution 1 drop in each eye BID Single-use containers
                Loteprednol Eysuvis

                (Kala Pharma)

                0.25% suspension 1-2 drops in each eye QID for up to 2 weeks Multi-dose 10 mL bottle
                Perfluorohexyloctane Meibo

                (Bausch & Lomb)

                100% solution 1 drop in each eye QID Multi-dose 5 mL bottle
                Varenicline Tyrvaya

                (Oyster Point Pharma)

                0.03 mg/0.05ml solution 1 spray in each nostril BID Multi-dose nasal spray

                ABBREVIATIONS: BID, twice daily; QID, four times daily

                 

                Cyclosporine A

                Cyclosporine A (CsA) is an anti-inflammatory immune modulator approved for use in DED more than two decades ago.16 Calcineurin activates T-cells, increasing inflammatory cytokine production. CsA inhibits calcineurin to prevent T-cell activation, disrupting the inflammatory cycle in DED.16

                 

                Many clinical trials have evaluated CsA’s safety and efficacy in DED treatment.1,5,14,37 Results consistently show that CsA improves Schirmer test scores, corneal staining results, and goblet cell density. Improvement often takes several months, making patient education key to adherence.1,5,14,37 Topical CsA alleviates symptoms in approximately 50% of patients.1 Patients using CsA experience decreases in blurred vision, ocular dryness, foreign body sensation, and watery eyes.1,14 Treatment often causes stinging and irritation. Other adverse effects include blurred vision, ocular itching, eye redness, and foreign body sensation.37 Pretreatment with an ophthalmic steroid such as loteprednol may decrease CsA’s adverse effects.1,38

                 

                As a hydrophobic (water-fearing) substance, CsA is challenging to formulate into an ophthalmic topical formulation. Initially, products used castor oil and corn oil as vehicles, but poor bioavailability and adverse effects preclude their use.16 The first commercially available CsA product, a 0.05% emulsion, uses a castor oil-in-water emulsion, which reduces but does not eliminate adverse reactions.37

                 

                Approval of CsA 0.09% nanomicellar solution introduced a novel formulation.16,37 Clinical efficacy trials found a response as early as day 28.16At the end of 12 weeks, 17% of study participants receiving CsA 0.09% experienced increased tear production with a Schirmer score greater than 10 mm. Reported adverse effects included mild instillation site pain, eye irritation, blepharitis, and headache.32 Preliminary studies suggest CsA 0.09% is more effective and better tolerated than CsA 0.05%.16

                 

                Lifitegrast

                Approved in 2016, the novel drug lifitegrast is a lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1 (LFA-1) antagonist.33 LFA-1 binds to intracellular adhesion molecule-1 during inflammation, activating T-cell migration and resulting in ocular inflammation. Lifitegrast binds to LFA-1, preventing this interaction and decreasing T-cell-mediated inflammation.33 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved this drug based on four randomized, double-masked, 12-week efficacy and safety trials. 33,39-41 All studies showed a reduction in patient-rated eye dryness scores at the end of 12 weeks. Patients in three of the four studies experienced reduced corneal staining scores.33

                 

                The one-year multicenter, randomized, placebo-controlled SONATA study evaluated lifitegrast safety.42 Reported adverse effects included burning, reduced visual acuity, dry eye, and taste changes. Researchers observed no serious adverse events and discontinuation rates were 12.3% and 9% for lifitegrast and placebo, respectively.42 A 2021 retrospective review of 600 patient charts examined real-world experience with lifitegrast in DED.43 Most patients continued treatment for six months and showed improvement in DED symptoms. Patients also experienced improved quality of life at three and 12 months of treatment.43

                 

                Perfluorohexyloctane

                Perfluorohexyloctane, formerly known as NOV3, reduces tear evaporation from the ocular surface.44 The drug’s exact mechanism in DED is unclear. In May 2023, the FDA approved an ophthalmic formulation containing perfluorohexyloctane for treating DED in adults 18 and older based on data from two phase 3 clinical trials: GOBI and MOJAVE.44,45

                 

                These trials evaluated efficacy and safety in more than 1,200 patients with DED meeting similar inclusion and exclusion criteria based on tear film break-up time, ocular surface disease scores, and MGD evaluations. Both trials were multi-center, randomized, double-masked, and saline-controlled.44,45 GOBE and MOJAVE results also consistently showed statistically significant reductions in reported symptoms of DED. Reported adverse events occurred in less than 4% of study participants and included blurred vision, blepharitis, instillation site pain, and conjunctival redness.44,46 Patients must remove contact lenses before and for at least 30 minutes after administration of perfluorohexyloctane drops.34

                 

                Perfluorohexyloctane should be available in the second half of 2023.44

                 

                Short-Term Corticosteroids

                Corticosteroids are potent inhibitors of inflammatory mediators.14 Many clinical trials have demonstrated their efficacy in breaking the inflammatory cycle of DED. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is associated with increased intraocular pressure, cataracts, and risk of infection.14

                 

                Loteprednol is a synthetic corticosteroid derived from prednisolone. Its rapid breakdown into inactive metabolites reduces risk of adverse reactions.47 A retrospective safety study concluded that loteprednol therapy carries a low risk of treatment-related elevated intraocular pressure compared to other steroids.48 Several loteprednol ophthalmic formulations are available, but only the 0.25% suspension is FDA approved for the short-term treatment of DED. This formulation uses mucus-penetrating particle (MPP) technology to allow nanoparticle penetration through the mucin layer.47,49

                 

                The FDA approved loteprednol 0.25% suspension based on the STRIDE series of trials.36 These trials randomized patients with DED to the drug or a vehicle control four times daily in both eyes for two weeks. All trials reported significant improvements in eye redness and discomfort at the end of two weeks.36

                 

                One role for topical steroids in DED is pre-treatment prior to topical CsA therapy. A 2014 study compared loteprednol versus AT during a two-week lead-in period to CsA.38 Patients self-administered either loteprednol or AT four times daily for two weeks, followed by CsA twice daily plus either loteprednol or AT twice daily for an additional six weeks. Both groups showed improved ocular staining and OSDI and Schirmer scores. Loteprednol provided more rapid relief of DED symptoms and resulted in a lower CsA discontinuation rate than AT.38

                 

                Patients with moderate-to-severe DED with adequate long-term control may still experience periodic symptom exacerbation. Short-term pulse steroid therapy (using steroids of a week or two, then tapering and resuming if necessary) can be useful for patients with symptom exacerbations.14

                 

                Varenicline Nasal Spray

                Pharmacy staff may recognize varenicline as a treatment for smoking cessation, but a newer nasal spray formulation shows utility for treating DED. Tear film production results from stimulating afferent nerves in the cornea and conjunctiva and parasympathetic nerves in the lacrimal gland, meibomian glands, and goblet cells.50,51 This neural pathway is accessible through central nervous system or peripherally through the nasal cavity. While the drug’s mechanism in DED is not fully understood, experts theorize that varenicline, a cholinergic agonist, activates this pathway to stimulate tear production.50,51

                 

                The randomized, double-masked, vehicle-controlled, 28-day ONSET-1 and ONSET-2 trials evaluated varenicline nasal spray’s safety and efficacy.50,51 Participants self-administered one spray of varenicline solution or vehicle in each nostril twice daily. Both studies found a significant improvement in tear production measured by Schirmer scores. The most common patient-reported adverse effects included sneezing, cough, throat irritation, and nasal irritation.50,51 The 2021 MYSTIC study examined varenicline nasal spray's long-term safety and efficacy compared to placebo over a 12-week period.52 Patients reported no severe or serious adverse events during the study; sneezing was the most common adverse reaction, occurring in 82% of patients.52

                 

                Varenicline packaging includes two glass bottles, each containing a 15-day drug supply. Patients must initially prime the bottle by pumping seven sprays into the air away from the face. Re-priming by pumping one spray into the air is necessary after five days of nonuse.35

                 

                Steps for administration of varenicline nasal spray35:

                • Blow nose if needed to clear nostrils
                • Remove the cap and clip from the bottle
                • Hold the bottle upright, placing one finger on each side of the applicator and thumb on the bottom of the bottle
                • Tilt head back slightly
                • Insert the applicator tip into one nostril, pointing it toward the ear on the same side of the nostril, leaving space between the tip and the wall of the nostril
                • Place tongue on roof of mouth and breath gently while pumping one spray into the nostril
                • Repeat in other nostril
                • Wipe the applicator with a clean tissue and replace the cap and clip

                 

                Antibiotics

                Clinicians sometimes use oral or topical antibiotics with anti-inflammatory effects off-label to treat DED due to MGD.14 Many patients experience MGD due to overgrowth of eyelid flora, so reduction of eyelid flora and inflammation improves patient-reported symptoms.53 Oral administration of doxycycline and minocycline in small doses (40 to 400 mg of doxycycline and 50 to 100 mg of minocycline) to treat MGD improves patient-reported symptoms.1,53 Unfortunately, gastrointestinal adverse effects limit the use of these medications. One study found that azithromycin 1% eyedrops improved eyelid inflammation and tear film lipid layer stability.54

                 

                EMERGING THERAPIES

                New and novel therapies are also in the pipeline for DED treatment. Pharmacy staff should be aware of their potential place in therapy and prepared to incorporate them upon approval.

                 

                Reproxalap

                Exploring another causative mechanism in DED, reproxalap is a reactive aldehyde species (RASP) inhibitor. RASP molecules are found at the top of the inflammatory cascade and are elevated in many inflammatory diseases. They bind to and disrupt the function of enzymes and ion channels, which activates pro-inflammatory mediators. RASP inhibition, therefore, decreases pro-inflammatory substances associated with DED.55,56

                 

                A randomized, double-masked, phase 2a trial evaluated the efficacy of three formulations of reproxalap: 0.1% and 0.5% solutions and a 0.5% lipid solution.55 Participants used the products four times daily for 28 days. The study found a significant improvement in four questionnaire scores, Schirmer test values, tear osmolarity, and tear staining scores. Within one week, patients reported symptom improvement. Researchers concluded that reproxalap could potentially alleviate DED symptoms.55

                 

                A separate randomized, double-masked, phase 2b trial compared reproxalap 0.01% and 0.25% to a control vehicle solution.56 Patients self-administered drops four times daily for a total of 12 weeks. The study found statistically significant improvements in ocular dryness and staining over 12 weeks.56

                 

                A 2021 tolerability study compared ocular adverse effects between two formulations of reproxalap 0.25% (one solution, one lipid-based) and lifitegrast 5% solution.57 Over seven days, study participants received one dose of each solution with a 3-day washout period between administrations. Researchers assessed adverse effects after 1 hour. Reproxalap formulations were similar to one another and superior to lifitegrast in ocular discomfort, blurry vision, and dysgeusia.57

                 

                Reproxalap offers a novel approach to treating the underlying inflammatory process involved in DED. Preliminary study results show improvements in DED symptoms and better patient tolerability, potentially leading to lower discontinuation rates and improved patient outcomes.

                 

                Cationic Cyclosporine

                A cationic (positively charged) 0.1% CsA nanoemulsion is available in Europe to treat DED.58 Experts theorize that a cationic emulsion increases the surface time of CsA on ocular tissues. All FDA-approved products are anionic (negatively charged). Clinical trials are evaluating CsA 0.1% nanoemulsion for FDA approval.58

                 

                PHARMACY TEAMS: FRONT-LINE SUPPORT

                Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians are among the most accessible healthcare providers. People routinely turn to neighborhood pharmacies for advice on many health topics. Most people self-treat dry eye symptoms long before seeking professional help. These facts make the pharmacy team essential in supporting people suffering from DED. The SIDEBAR provides basic counseling information about eye products.

                 

                SIDEBAR: Counseling Tips for Eyedrop and Eye Ointment Administration59,60

                Proper administration of ophthalmic formulations is key to their success. Administration is awkward, and many patients struggle with it. Advising patients on proper technique is a key role for the pharmacy team. General tips for all ophthalmic products include

                • Confirm you have the correct product
                • Check expiration date
                • Read the directions
                • Wash your hands
                • If using both eyedrops and eye ointment, wait five to ten minutes between drops, and administer the eyedrops at least 10 minutes before the ointment
                • Using a mirror may make it easier to see what you are doing

                 

                Eyedrops:

                1. Gently shake the bottle
                1. Be sure the eye dropper is clean, and do not let it touch any surface
                2. Tilt your head back and look up
                1. Pressing your finger gently on the skin just beneath the lower eyelid, pull your lower eyelid down and away from your eyeball to make a “pocket” for the drops
                2. With the other hand, hold the eye drop bottle upside down with the tip just above the pocket
                3. Squeeze the prescribed number of eye drops into the pocket
                4. If you think you did not get the drop of medicine into your eye properly, use another drop
                5. Blink a few times so that the medicine spreads across your eye
                6. For at least 1 minute, close your eye and press your finger lightly on your tear duct (small hole in the inner corner of your eye) to keep the eye drop from draining into your nose
                1. Wash your hands
                1. Wait at least 10 minutes before you use other eye products, especially ointments, gels, or other thick eye drops

                 

                Eye ointment:

                1. Be sure the top of the ointment tube is clean, and don’t let it touch any surface, including the eye, eyelid, or lashes. (If it does, call your pharmacy and arrange to get another tube of eye ointment.)
                2. Tilt your head back and look up
                3. With one hand, pull the lower eyelid down with one or two fingers to create a small pouch
                4. With the other hand, position the medicine above your eye
                5. Put a thin line of ointment in the pouch. Close the eye for 30 to 60 seconds to let the ointment absorb
                6. Wash your hands
                7. Eye ointments can cause some temporary blurring of vision

                 

                Knowledge of risk factors, including precipitating medications (revisit Table 3 for a refresher), aids in identifying patients at risk for developing DED. Technicians are often the first point of contact at the pharmacy counter, routinely fielding questions. Actively listening and asking open-ended questions help gather necessary information. Patients reporting dry eye symptoms or buying AT products may need counseling or a referral to a pharmacist or an eye care professional.

                 

                Educating patients about avoiding certain environmental factors is important. Remind patients that minimizing exposure to wind or smoke, taking a break from digital screens, and using a humidifier may help alleviate symptoms. Adherence to therapeutic interventions is key in DED treatment. Some interventions, such as lid hygiene, are time-consuming, and many patients stop after only a few days.  Reinforcing the importance of lid hygiene with patients is an important component of DED patient counseling.

                 

                 

                Advising patients on selecting an appropriate AT product decreases frustration and increases overall patient satisfaction. Proper administration of ophthalmic preparations can be difficult for some patients, particularly older individuals. Taking the time to counsel on proper technique sets patients up for successful administration and improved outcomes.

                 

                Patients with severe refractory DED may not benefit enough from lifestyle modifications and pharmacologic therapy. Many other interventions exist including14

                • Punctal plugs blocking the tear ducts to promote tear conservation
                • Pulsed light therapy delivered in office with a handheld flash gun
                • Tear stimulation utilizing topical and systemic secretagogues
                • Biological tear substitutes utilizing patient-derived serum
                • Use of therapeutic contact lenses made of silicone hydrogel
                • Surgery to correct any causative physiological abnormalities

                Pharmacy staff should recognize when patients with worsening DED symptoms may require escalation of therapy and refer them to an eye care provider when appropriate.

                 

                Pause and Ponder: Consider your home and work environment. Could you take steps to minimize conditions contributing to developing dry eye?

                 

                CONCLUSION

                You may have noticed a recurring theme throughout this activity: education. Helping patients understand the chronic nature of DED and navigate treatment options improves patient care and outcomes. Education must include the entire pharmacy team. Understanding the roles of each treatment allows for effective management and counseling. Educated pharmacy teams can assist patients with product selection, counsel on the timing and administration of treatments, improve safety, and provide referrals when appropriate.

                 

                Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                The Nitty Gritty: Dry Eye Guidance for the Pharmacy Team

                Posttest

                Learning Objectives:
                1. Describe the etiology and pathophysiology of dry eye disease (DED) and its impact on quality of life
                2. Identify available and emerging over-the-counter and prescription therapies to treat DED
                3. Optimize artificial tear selection based on patient-specific characteristics
                4. Infer when to refer patients to the pharmacist or an eye care provider for DED

                Pharmacists:
                1. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing DED?
                A. Caucasian race
                B. Digital device use
                C. Obesity

                2. How does meibomian gland disease (MGD) contribute to DED?
                A. Decreased lipid secretion affecting the outer layer of the tear film
                B. Increased lipid secretion affecting the outer layer of the tear film
                C. Decreased tear secretion leading to tear film instability

                3. Prince Charming shares with you his recent DED diagnosis. Which of the following medications in his profile is most likely contributing to his symptoms?
                A. Duloxetine
                B. Donepezil
                C. Erythromycin

                4. Which of the following is a function of viscosity-enhancing agents in artificial tears?
                A. Balance osmotic pressure
                B. Control pH
                C. Increase lubrication

                5. Olaf stops by the pharmacy asking for assistance selecting an artificial tear product. He describes mild dry eye symptoms he is experiencing with the change in seasons. As a first choice, you suggest a product containing which of the following?
                A. Carboxymethylcellulose (CMC)
                B. CMC and hyaluronic acid (HA)
                C. Polyvinyl alcohol

                6. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to advise Olaf to use the recommended AT product to effectively manage symptoms and assess efficacy?
                A. Apply 1-2 drops in each eye 1-2 times a day for 4-6 months
                B. Apply 1-2 drops in each eye 4-6 times a day for 1-2 weeks
                C. Apply 1-2 drops in each eye 3-4 times a day for 1-2 months

                7. Buzz Lightyear recently received a diagnosis of DED due to MGD. Which of the following would be an appropriate first-line treatment choice?
                A. Artificial tears formulated with mineral oil
                B. Loteprednol 0.25% ophthalmic suspension
                C. Oral omega-3 fatty acid supplements

                8. Elsa started using cyclosporine A 0.05% eye drops for DED last month. While picking up her first refill, she mentions the drops are controlling her symptoms well but causing a burning sensation when she administers them. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
                A. Let her know this is a known adverse effect and to continue therapy as prescribed
                B. Recommend she stop using the drops immediately, as she may be harming her eyes
                C. Offer to contact her eye care provider to switch to cyclosporine A 0.09%

                9. Which of the following is a novel eye drop approved for long-term use in DED?
                A. Perfluorohexyloctane
                B. Varenicline
                C. Loteprednol

                10. Snow White frequently stops by the pharmacy to ask for guidance about treating her DED. Today she shared that her AT is no longer working, and it’s the fifth one she has tried. You confirm she is properly and consistently administering ATs. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation for Snow White?
                A. Assist her in selecting a more appropriate AT product to try based on trial-and-error
                B. Advise her to reach out to her ophthalmologist to explore prescription therapies
                C. Tell her that she must move out of the dusty cabin she shares with the seven dwarves

                Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                Pharmacy Technicians:
                1. Dry eye disease (DED) affects approximately how many U.S. adults?
                A. 7 million
                B. 16 million
                C. 23 million

                2. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing DED?
                A. Caucasian race
                B. Digital device use
                C. Obesity

                3. Prince Charming shares his recent diagnosis of DED. Which of the following medications in his profile may be a contributing factor?
                A. Duloxetine
                B. Donepezil
                C. Erythromycin

                4. Why is it important to engage with patients at the counter and ask open-ended questions?
                A. So you can stay updated with their vacation plans and get some destination ideas
                B. To help gather important health-related patient information and optimize therapy
                C. It’s not important; the patient wants to pick up their prescription as quickly as possible

                5. Which of the following is a function of viscosity-enhancing agents in artificial tears?
                A. Balance osmotic pressure
                B. Control pH
                C. Increase lubrication

                6. Cinderella approaches the register with two open bottles of AT and a receipt from one week ago. She asks if she can return the products, as they did not work. Which of the following is the BEST response?
                A. Refer Cinderella to the front end of the store to process the refund
                B. Issue Cinderella a refund and suggest she speak to an ophthalmologist
                C. Refer Cinderella to the pharmacist for counseling

                7. Buzz Lightyear stops at the counter to purchase artificial tear eye drops. When he asks you how to use them, what should you do?
                A. Tell him to follow the directions on the box; they clearly outline how to use them
                B. Offer Buzz a patient handout explaining eye drop use, and refer him to the pharmacist
                C. Explain that his doctor is the best person to educate him about eye drop administration

                8. Olaf stops by the pharmacy, complaining that his eyes always feel dry, especially when he is outside sledding. Which of the following is the BEST suggestion?
                A. Wear eye protection when sledding to reduce wind exposure
                B. Watch YouTube videos of other people sledding instead
                C. Build a snowman friend on top of the mountain and play there

                9. Elsa seems quieter than usual when picking up her prescriptions. When you ask her if everything is OK, she shares that it feels like something is in her eye all the time and she is having a hard time reading her book for book club. Which of the following is the BEST response?
                A. Suggest that she get the audiobook instead so she can still enjoy her book club
                B. Let her know that this is common and over-the-counter therapies may help
                C. Recommend that she see an eye care provider to prescribe loteprednol eye drops

                10. While picking up a prescription, Snow White also purchases 4 bottles of artificial tears, stating that she goes through them like water. When you ask her if they help, she replies “Eh, not really…” How should you respond?
                A. Tell her to keep it up; sometimes, artificial tears take a while to work
                B. Explain that this isn’t typical and refer her to the pharmacist for counseling
                C. Let her know it’s okay to stop using them if they aren’t working

                References

                Full List of References

                References

                   
                  References
                  1. Mohamed HB, Abd El-Hamid BN, Fathalla D, Fouad EA. Current trends in pharmaceutical treatment of dry eye disease: A review. Eur J Pharm Sci. 2022;175:106206. doi:10.1016/j.ejps.2022.106206
                  2. Farrand KF, Fridman M, Stillman IÖ, Schaumberg DA. Prevalence of Diagnosed Dry Eye Disease in the United States Among Adults Aged 18 Years and Older. Am J Ophthalmol. 2017;182:90-98. doi:10.1016/j.ajo.2017.06.033
                  3. Dana R, Bradley JL, Guerin A, et al. Estimated Prevalence and Incidence of Dry Eye Disease Based on Coding Analysis of a Large, All-age United States Health Care System. Am J Ophthalmol. 2019;202:47-54. doi:10.1016/j.ajo.2019.01.026
                  4. Stapleton F, Alves M, Bunya VY, et al. TFOS DEWS II Epidemiology Report. Ocul Surf. 2017;15(3):334-365. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2017.05.003
                  5. Craig JP, Nelson JD, Azar DT, et al. TFOS DEWS II Report Executive Summary. Ocul Surf. 2017;15(4):802-812. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2017.08.003
                  6. Craig JP, Nichols KK, Akpek EK, et al. TFOS DEWS II Definition and Classification Report. Ocul Surf. 2017;15(3):276-283. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2017.05.008
                  7. Al-Mohtaseb Z, Schachter S, Shen Lee B, Garlich J, Trattler W. The Relationship Between Dry Eye Disease and Digital Screen Use. Clin Ophthalmol. 2021;15:3811-3820. Published 2021 Sep 10. doi:10.2147/OPTH.S321591
                  8. McDonald M, Patel DA, Keith MS, Snedecor SJ. Economic and Humanistic Burden of Dry Eye Disease in Europe, North America, and Asia: A Systematic Literature Review. Ocul Surf. 2016;14(2):144-167. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2015.11.002
                  9. Wang MT, Muntz A, Wolffsohn JS, Craig JP. Association between dry eye disease, self-perceived health status, and self-reported psychological stress burden. Clin Exp Optom. 2021 Nov;104(8):835-840. doi: 10.1080/08164622.2021.1887580. Epub 2021 Mar 3. PMID: 33689664.
                  10. Clayton JA. Dry Eye. N Engl J Med. 2018;378(23):2212-2223. doi:10.1056/NEJMra1407936
                  11. Kathuria A, Shamloo K, Jhanji V, Sharma A. Categorization of Marketed Artificial Tear Formulations Based on Their Ingredients: A Rational Approach for Their Use. J Clin Med. 2021;10(6):1289. Published 2021 Mar 21. doi:10.3390/jcm10061289
                  12. Bron AJ, de Paiva CS, Chauhan SK, et al. TFOS DEWS II pathophysiology report [published correction appears in Ocul Surf. 2019 Oct;17(4):842]. Ocul Surf. 2017;15(3):438-510. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2017.05.011
                  13. Chhadva P, Goldhardt R, Galor A. Meibomian Gland Disease: The Role of Gland Dysfunction in Dry Eye Disease. Ophthalmology. 2017;124(11S):S20-S26. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2017.05.031
                  14. Jones L, Downie LE, Korb D, et al. TFOS DEWS II Management and Therapy Report. Ocul Surf. 2017;15(3):575-628. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2017.05.006
                  15. Lemp MA, Crews LA, Bron AJ, Foulks GN, Sullivan BD. Distribution of aqueous-deficient and evaporative dry eye in a clinic-based patient cohort: a retrospective study. Cornea. 2012;31(5):472-478. doi:10.1097/ICO.0b013e318225415a
                  16. de Oliveira RC, Wilson SE. Practical guidance for the use of cyclosporine ophthalmic solutions in the management of dry eye disease. Clin Ophthalmol. 2019;13:1115-1122. Published 2019 Jul 1. doi:10.2147/OPTH.S184412
                  17. Pflugfelder SC, de Paiva CS. The Pathophysiology of Dry Eye Disease: What We Know and Future Directions for Research. Ophthalmology. 2017;124(11S):S4-S13. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2017.07.010
                  18. Wolffsohn JS, Arita R, Chalmers R, et al. TFOS DEWS II Diagnostic Methodology report. Ocul Surf. 2017;15(3):539-574. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2017.05.001
                  19. Messmer EM. The pathophysiology, diagnosis, and treatment of dry eye disease. Dtsch Arztebl Int. 2015;112(5):71-82.
                  20. Vagge A, Senni C, Bernabei F, et al. Therapeutic Effects of Lactoferrin in Ocular Diseases: From Dry Eye Disease to Infections. Int J Mol Sci. 2020;21(18):6668. Published 2020 Sep 12. doi:10.3390/ijms21186668
                  21. Bhargava R, Kumar P, Kumar M, Mehra N, Mishra A. A randomized controlled trial of omega-3 fatty acids in dry eye syndrome. Int J Ophthalmol. 2013;6(6):811-816. Published 2013 Dec 18. doi:10.3980/j.issn.2222-3959.2013.06.13
                  22. Liu A, Ji J. Omega-3 essential fatty acids therapy for dry eye syndrome: a meta-analysis of randomized controlled studies. Med Sci Monit. 2014;20:1583-1589. Published 2014 Sep 6. doi:10.12659/MSM.891364
                  23. Zhao M, Yu Y, Ying GS, Asbell PA, Bunya VY; Dry Eye Assessment and Management Study Research Group. Age Associations with Dry Eye Clinical Signs and Symptoms in the Dry Eye Assessment and Management (DREAM) Study. Ophthalmol Sci. 2023;3(2):100270. Published 2023 Jan 12. doi:10.1016/j.xops.2023.100270
                  24. Paik B, Tong L. Topical Omega-3 Fatty Acids Eyedrops in the Treatment of Dry Eye and Ocular Surface Disease: A Systematic Review. Int J Mol Sci. 2022;23(21):13156. Published 2022 Oct 29. doi:10.3390/ijms232113156Intro
                  25. Pharmaceutical. Artificial Tears Market Size, Share & COVID-19 Impact Analysis. Available online at: https://www.fortunebusinessinsights.com/artificial-tears-market-103486 (Accessed June 5, 2023)
                  26. Labetoulle M, Benitez-Del-Castillo JM, Barabino S, et al. Artificial Tears: Biological Role of Their Ingredients in the Management of Dry Eye Disease. Int J Mol Sci. 2022;23(5):2434. Published 2022 Feb 23. doi:10.3390/ijms23052434
                  27. Semp DA, Beeson D, Sheppard AL, Dutta D, Wolffsohn JS. Artificial Tears: A Systematic Review. Clin Optom (Auckl). 2023;15:9-27. Published 2023 Jan 10. doi:10.2147/OPTO.S350185
                  28. Restasis [package insert]. Irvine, CA: Allergan. Accessed June 5, 2023. https://media.allergan.com/actavis/actavis/media/allergan-pdf-documents/product-prescribing/Combined-Restasis-and-MultiDose-PI_8-3-17.pdf
                  29. Moshirfar M, Pierson K, Hanamaikai K, Santiago-Caban L, Muthappan V, Passi SF. Artificial tears potpourri: a literature review. Clin Ophthalmol. 2014;8:1419-1433. Published 2014 Jul 31. doi:10.2147/OPTH.S65263
                  30. Lacrisert (hydroxypropyl cellulose ophthalmic insert). Accessed June 23, 2023. https://www.lacrisert.com
                  31. Lacrisert [package insert]. Bridgewater, NJ: Bausch & Lomb; 2019. Accessed June 23, 2023. https://www.lacrisert.com/siteassets/pdf/Lacrisert-package-insert.pdf
                  32. Cequa [package insert]. Cranberry, NJ: Sun Pharmaceuticals. Accessed June 5, 2023. https://www.cequapro.com/CequaPI.pdf
                  33. Xiidra [package insert]. East Hannover, NJ: Novartis. 2020. Accessed June 1, 2023. https://www.novartis.com/us-en/sites/novartis_us/files/xiidra.pdf
                  34. Meibo [package insert]. Bridgewater, NJ: Bausch & Lomb. 2023. Accessed June 5, 2023. https://www.bausch.com/globalassets/pdf/packageinserts/pharma/miebo-package-insert.pdf
                  35. Tyrvaya [package insert]. Princeton, NJ: Oyster Point Pharma. 2021. Accessed June 5, 2023. https://www.tyrvaya-pro.com/files/prescribing-information.pdf
                  36. Eysuvis [package insert]. Watertown, MA: Kala Pharmaceuticals. Accessed June 14, 2023. https://www.eysuvis-ecp.com/pdf/prescribing-information.pdf
                  37. Periman LM, Perez VL, Saban DR, Lin MC, Neri P. The Immunological Basis of Dry Eye Disease and Current Topical Treatment Options. J Ocul Pharmacol Ther. 2020;36(3):137-146. doi:10.1089/jop.2019.0060
                  38. Sheppard JD, Donnenfeld ED, Holland EJ, et al. Effect of loteprednol etabonate 0.5% on initiation of dry eye treatment with topical cyclosporine 0.05%. Eye Contact Lens. 2014;40(5):289-296. doi:10.1097/ICL.0000000000000049
                  39. Sheppard JD, Torkildsen GL, Lonsdale JD, et al. Lifitegrast ophthalmic solution 5.0% for treatment of dry eye disease: results of the OPUS-1 phase 3 study. Ophthalmology. 2014;121(2):475-483. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2013.09.015
                  40. Tauber J, Karpecki P, Latkany R, et al. Lifitegrast Ophthalmic Solution 5.0% versus Placebo for Treatment of Dry Eye Disease: Results of the Randomized Phase III OPUS-2 Study. Ophthalmology. 2015;122(12):2423-2431. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2015.08.001
                  41. Holland EJ, Luchs J, Karpecki PM, et al. Lifitegrast for the Treatment of Dry Eye Disease: Results of a Phase III, Randomized, Double-Masked, Placebo-Controlled Trial (OPUS-3). Ophthalmology. 2017;124(1):53-60. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2016.09.025
                  42. Donnenfeld ED, Karpecki PM, Majmudar PA, et al. Safety of Lifitegrast Ophthalmic Solution 5.0% in Patients With Dry Eye Disease: A 1-Year, Multicenter, Randomized, Placebo-Controlled Study. Cornea. 2016;35(6):741-748. doi:10.1097/ICO.0000000000000803
                  43. Hovanesian JA, Nichols KK, Jackson M, et al. Real-World Experience with Lifitegrast Ophthalmic Solution (Xiidra®) in the US and Canada: Retrospective Study of Patient Characteristics, Treatment Patterns, and Clinical Effectiveness in 600 Patients with Dry Eye Disease. Clin Ophthalmol. 2021;15:1041-1054. Published 2021 Mar 8.
                  44. Tauber J, Berdy GJ, Wirta DL, Krösser S, Vittitow JL; GOBI Study Group. NOV03 for Dry Eye Disease Associated with Meibomian Gland Dysfunction: Results of the Randomized Phase 3 GOBI Study. Ophthalmology. 2023;130(5):516-524. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2022.12.021
                  45. Bausch + Lomb News Releases. www.bausch.com. Accessed June 9, 2023. https://www.bausch.com/news/releases/?id=156
                  46. Sheppard JD, Kurata F, Epitropoulos AT, Krösser S, Vittitow JL; MOJAVE Study Group. NOV03 for Signs and Symptoms of Dry Eye Disease Associated With Meibomian Gland Dysfunction: The Randomized Phase 3 MOJAVE Study [published online ahead of print, 2023 Mar 21]. Am J Ophthalmol. 2023;252:265-274. doi:10.1016/j.ajo.2023.03.008
                  47. Venkateswaran N, Bian Y, Gupta PK. Practical Guidance for the Use of Loteprednol Etabonate Ophthalmic Suspension 0.25% in the Management of Dry Eye Disease. Clin Ophthalmol. 2022;16:349-355. Published 2022 Feb 9. doi:10.2147/OPTH.S323301
                  48. Sheppard JD, Comstock TL, Cavet ME. Impact of the Topical Ophthalmic Corticosteroid Loteprednol Etabonate on Intraocular Pressure. Adv Ther. 2016;33(4):532-552. doi:10.1007/s12325-016-0315-8
                  49. Gupta PK, Venkateswaran N. The role of KPI-121 0.25% in the treatment of dry eye disease: penetrating the mucus barrier to treat periodic flares. Ther Adv Ophthalmol. 2021;13:25158414211012797. Published 2021 May 5. doi:10.1177/25158414211012797
                  50. Wirta D, Torkildsen GL, Boehmer B, et al. ONSET-1 Phase 2b Randomized Trial to Evaluate the Safety and Efficacy of OC-01 (Varenicline Solution) Nasal Spray on Signs and Symptoms of Dry Eye Disease. Cornea. 2022;41(10):1207-1216. doi:10.1097/ICO.0000000000002941
                  51. Wirta D, Vollmer P, Paauw J, et al. Efficacy and Safety of OC-01 (Varenicline Solution) Nasal Spray on Signs and Symptoms of Dry Eye Disease: The ONSET-2 Phase 3 Randomized Trial. Ophthalmology. 2022;129(4):379-387. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2021.11.004
                  52. Quiroz-Mercado H, Hernandez-Quintela E, Chiu KH, Henry E, Nau JA. A phase II randomized trial to evaluate the long-term (12-week) efficacy and safety of OC-01 (varenicline solution) nasal spray for dry eye disease: The MYSTIC study. Ocul Surf. 2022;24:15-21. doi:10.1016/j.jtos.2021.12.007
                  53. Thulasi P, Djalilian AR. Update in Current Diagnostics and Therapeutics of Dry Eye Disease. Ophthalmology. 2017;124(11S):S27-S33. doi:10.1016/j.ophtha.2017.07.022
                  54: Arita R, Fukuoka S. Efficacy of Azithromycin Eyedrops for Individuals With Meibomian Gland Dysfunction-Associated Posterior Blepharitis. Eye Contact Lens. 2021;47(1):54-59. doi:10.1097/ICL.0000000000000729
                  55. Clark D, Sheppard J, Brady TC. A Randomized Double-Masked Phase 2a Trial to Evaluate Activity and Safety of Topical Ocular Reproxalap, a Novel RASP Inhibitor, in Dry Eye Disease. J Ocul Pharmacol Ther. 2021;37(4):193-199. doi:10.1089/jop.2020.0087
                  56. Clark D, Tauber J, Sheppard J, Brady TC. Early Onset and Broad Activity of Reproxalap in a Randomized, Double-Masked, Vehicle-Controlled Phase 2b Trial in Dry Eye Disease. Am J Ophthalmol. 2021;226:22-31. doi:10.1016/j.ajo.2021.01.011
                  57. McMullin D, Clark D, Cavanagh B, Karpecki P, Brady TC. A Post-Acute Ocular Tolerability Comparison of Topical Reproxalap 0.25% and Lifitegrast 5% in Patients with Dry Eye Disease. Clin Ophthalmol. 2021;15:3889-3900. Published 2021 Sep 22. doi:10.2147/OPTH.S327691
                  58. Gupta PK, Asbell P, Sheppard J. Current and Future Pharmacological Therapies for the Management of Dry Eye. Eye Contact Lens. 2020;46 Suppl 2:S64-S69. doi:10.1097/ICL.0000000000000666
                  59. How to Put in Eye Drops. National Eye Institute. Accessed May 30, 2023. https://www.nei.nih.gov/Glaucoma/glaucoma-medicines/how-put-eye-drops
                  60. Eye Problems: Using Eyedrops and Eye Ointment. Kaiser Permanente. Accessed May 30, 2023. https://healthy.kaiserpermanente.org/health-wellness/health-encyclopedia/he.eye-problems-using-eyedrops-and-eye-ointment.za1098

                  The Gall of it All: Gallbladder Disease

                  Learning Objectives

                    After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
                  1. DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion
                  2. RECOGNIZE gallbladder disease based on various presentations
                  3. EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis
                  4. DISCUSS treatment approaches for gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy management
                  After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:
                  1. DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion
                  2.EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis
                  3. LIST over-the-counter medications used by patients with gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy
                  4. IDENTIFY when to refer patients with questions about gallbladder disease to a pharmacist

                  Cartoon image of gallbladder filled with stones

                  Release Date:

                  Release Date:  June 15, 2023

                  Expiration Date: June 15, 2026

                  Course Fee

                  FREE

                  There is no funding for this CPE activity.

                  ACPE UANs

                  Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-019-H01-P

                  Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-019-H01-T

                  Session Codes

                  Pharmacist:  23YC19-ABC92

                  Pharmacy Technician:  23YC19-BCA36

                  Accreditation Hours

                  2.0 hours of CE

                  Accreditation Statements

                  The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-019-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                   

                  Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                  The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                  Faculty

                  Sara L. Tolliday, PharmD
                  Pharmacy Team Lead
                  Wentworth-Douglass Hospital
                  Outpatient Pharmacy
                  Dover, NH


                   

                  Faculty Disclosure

                  In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                  Dr. Tolliday has no financial relationships with ineligible companies.

                  ABSTRACT

                  The gallbladder—a member of the biliary system—is responsible for bile secretion into the digestive tract. It was more useful centuries ago when the human diet was largely carnivorous and high in fat, its role in digestion today is less essential. This makes removal of the organ to treat gallbladder disease (GBD) quite commonplace. Although surgery is first line GBD treatment, pharmacy teams should remain involved in care for patients with this condition. Pharmacy involvement is especially important post-gallbladder removal. This continuing education activity describes the function of the gallbladder, risk factors for and pathogenesis of GBD, treatment approaches for GBD, and how to optimize care for patients with the disease and post-gallbladder removal.

                  CONTENT

                  Content

                  INTRODUCTION

                  Gallbladder disease (GBD; see Sidebar: Types of Gallbladder Disease) is the most common surgical emergency, responsible for 600,000 surgeries per year in the United States.1 Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is one of the most common and costly gastrointestinal diseases, affecting more than 20 million Americans annually.2 An estimated 115 of every 100,000 of the world’s population will undergo gallbladder removal surgery every year.3

                  GBD is influenced by genetic and environmental factors, diet, physical activity, and nutrition. The healthcare team should encourage patients to incorporate healthy habits into their lifestyles to reduce the risk of GBD. This continuing education activity will discuss GBD pathology, risk factors, treatment, considerations post-cholecystectomy, and the pharmacy team’s role.

                   

                  GALLBLADDER DISEASE

                  The Gallbladder

                  The gallbladder is the small pear-shaped organ located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen beneath the liver. It is part of the biliary system, which is a series of ducts in the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas that drain into the small intestine.4 The gallbladder acts as a storage pouch for up to 50 mL of bile, also known as “gall.”5 Gall became a synonym for bile in the Middle Ages and also meant “embittered spirit.”5 In the late 19th century, gall was used to describe a person having boldness or insolence.4

                  Bile is a yellowish-brown alkaline surfactant (substance that decreases surface tension) continuously produced by the liver.1,2 It is composed of cholesterol, bilirubin, water, bile salts, phospholipids, and ions. The common bile duct carries bile from the liver to the gallbladder. Fatty foods and proteins released from the stomach into the small intestine stimulate the gallbladder to empty bile into the duodenum via the sphincter of Oddi, which facilitates digestion. Bile salts emulsify lipids in the intestines allowing absorption of dietary fats such as cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins. Unused bile salts return to the gallbladder through the distal ileum and portal circulation.1,2

                  The gallbladder was probably more valuable centuries ago.5 Primitive humans were carnivorous hunters; meals were large, few, and far between.5 The gallbladder would have been crucial for digestion of large, high fat meals. The organ wasn’t considered nonessential until the late 1600s, after two Italian doctors discovered that animals could thrive without it.1 This discovery was forgotten until a German physician successfully performed the first cholecystectomy (surgical removal of the gallbladder) in a human in 1878.1,6 Figure 1 describes a brief history of the gallbladder, gallstones, and cholecystectomy beginning in the 15th century.

                  Today, the gallbladder assists in digestion of fat-soluble vitamins, proving important even for vegetarians.5 People can still live a healthy life after gallbladder removal; however, the risk of hepatic problems increases due to impaired fat digestion.5

                   

                  Timeline of gall bladder surgical history from the 1400's to 1992

                  Sidebar: Types of Gallbladder Disease2,8

                  • Biliary dyskinesia: gallbladder motility disorder caused by scarring or spasm of sphincter of Oddi, the valve that controls the flow of biliary and pancreatic secretions into the duodenum
                  • Cholangitis: inflammation of the biliary system
                  • Cholecystitis: inflammation of the gallbladder
                  • Choledocholithiasis: common bile duct stones
                  • Cholelithiasis: gallstones
                  • Gallbladder empyma: severe acute cholecystitis, a surgical emergency
                  • Gallbladder pancreatitis: inflammation of the pancreas caused by pancreatic duct obstruction by a gallstone
                  • Gallbladder perforation: a hole in the gallbladder wall
                    • Acute: generalized biliary peritonitis
                    • Subacute: acute plus pericholecystic abscess
                    • Chronic: cholecystoenteric fistula
                  • Gallbladder polyps: overgrowths or lesions in the gallbladder wall

                  This continuing education activity will focus on gallstones and their complications, which may include cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, and cholangitis. Cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal) is the treatment mainstay for gallstones and pharmacist intervention is most valuable post-cholecystectomy.

                   

                  Gallstones and Acute Cholecystitis

                  The most common gallbladder disease is gallstones.7 Gallstones commonly form from imbalances in bile constituents and biliary sludge (solids precipitated from bile) caused by slowed gallbladder motility or altered hepatic cholesterol metabolism. Hardened cholesterol or bilirubin become saturated in bile and crystalize, like rock candy, and can lodge in the common bile duct.7 Gallbladder hypomotility leads to delayed emptying, resulting in the formation of biliary sludge and consequently, gallstones.7

                  Bilirubin is a substance found in bile resulting from red blood cell breakdown in the liver. It is normally eliminated through the feces. Gallstones caused by bilirubin, or “pigment stones”, are rare and only account for approximately 10% of all gallstones.8 Pigment stones are commonly seen in individuals with blood disorders, such as sickle-cell anemia.8 Approximately 75% of gallstones in Western countries contain cholesterol as their major component.9

                  The presence of stones in the gallbladder is called cholelithiasis. Most patients with gallstones are asymptomatic and may not have any attributable symptoms during their lifetime.8 Asymptomatic cholelithiasis does not require treatment as the risk of symptom development is only about 10% at five years.8

                  Cholelithiasis becomes acute cholecystitis when gallstones block the cystic duct, causing the gallbladder to become inflamed and patients to become symptomatic. Biliary pain—also known as biliary colic—is the most common symptom of cholecystitis. Epigastric (upper-middle abdomen) pain lasting from 30 minutes to several hours radiates around or through the back and may be accompanied by heartburn, bloating, nausea, and/or vomiting. The sharp, stabbing pain generally follows food intake and peaks after the first hour. It is characteristically steady and is severe enough to interfere with activities of daily living. The pain is not relieved with a bowel movement. Women often describe biliary pain as being worse than childbirth.2,8

                  Cholecystitis pain from an acute episode usually subsides over one to five hours as the stone dislodges.3,10 The likelihood that patients experience repeated symptomatic episodes from their gallstones is approximately 38% to 50% annually.8 More than 90% of patients presenting with a single episode of biliary colic have recurrent pain within 10 years.13

                  Ultrasound is the best test for diagnosing gallstones and finds most patients with an average of two to 20 stones. The record-setting number of stones was found in England in 1987; a female patient had 23,530 stones removed.5 Computerized tomography (CT) can also be used for diagnosis, but it is less accurate than other imaging methods, detecting approximately 75% of gallstones.2 Providers can also diagnose by the presence of Murphy’s sign, or pain upon inhalation when the inflamed gallbladder meets the examiner’s hand.8 Other diagnostic markers include elevated liver function tests, white cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein.8 Patients presenting with acute cholecystitis may have experienced several bouts of biliary colic before diagnosis.

                  Acute cholecystitis diagnosis typically requires admission for pain management and intravenous (IV) fluid rehydration. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) like ketorolac, diclofenac or indomethacin combat inflammation and promote speedy recovery.8 NSAIDS are generally preferred to narcotic analgesics as they are equally effective with fewer adverse effects.2 A study of 324 patients given IV ketorolac or meperidine showed both drugs offered similar pain relief but patients in the NSAID group reported fewer adverse effects.2 Patients receive broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin, cefuroxime) to prevent or treat bacterial infection.8

                  Failure to properly treat cholecystitis can lead to severe inflammation, gangrene, sepsis, and life-threatening gallbladder perforation. Cholecystitis can also lead to gallstone pancreatitis if stones in the sphincter of Oddi are not cleared and block the pancreatic duct.2

                  Chronic Cholecystitis

                  Repeated episodes of cholecystitis or chronic irritation from gallstones can lead to chronic cholecystitis.11 Chronic cholecystitis more often presents with cholelithiasis (calculous) but can also exist without gallstones (acalculous). Symptomatic patients usually present with dull RUQ pain that radiates around the waist to the middle back. Most patients are afebrile.11

                  While acute cholecystitis symptoms are sharp and abrupt, chronic cholecystitis symptoms usually develop and worsen over weeks to months.11 Lab values normally elevated in acute disease may not be in chronic disease and therefore cannot be used in diagnosis. Ultrasound of the RUQ is the best diagnostic tool to evaluate the gallbladder for wall thickening and inflammation. Elective cholecystectomy is the preferred treatment for chronic cholecystitis. Patients who are not eligible for or who prefer not to undergo surgery should be closely monitored. A low-fat diet and other lifestyle modifications can help reduce symptom frequency.11

                  Pharmacists should recognize the differences between presentations of acute versus chronic cholecystitis and refer patients to the nearest emergency department if symptoms are severe.

                  Choledocholithiasis and Cholangitis

                  Choledocholithiasis, or common duct stones, are gallstones that have migrated from the gallbladder to the common bile duct via the cystic duct. Approximately 8% to 16% of patients with symptomatic gallstones will also have common bile duct stones.8 Common duct stones can be asymptomatic or may lead to complications such as gallstone pancreatitis or acute cholangitis. Cholangitis is inflammation of the biliary system that causes fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain (Charcot triad).8 Charcot triad becomes Reynolds pentad when hypotension and altered mental state are also present.8 These symptoms develop due to bile stasis and bacterial infection in the biliary tract.

                  Cholangitis is most commonly caused by gram-negative (Escherichia coli [25% to 50%], Klebsiella spp. [15% to 20%], Enterobacter spp. [5% to 10%]) intestinal bacteria, and less often by gram-positive bacteria (Enterococcus spp. [10% to 20%]).8 Patients require prompt treatment with IV antibiotics such as a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or ciprofloxacin.8 Pharmaceutical intervention should be followed by stone removal to prevent septicemia (systemic blood infection), which can be fatal.  Most clinicians recommend that common bile duct stones be removed once discovered, even when asymptomatic.8

                  Risk Factors

                  Several genetic and environmental factors contribute to gallstone development. Patients with first-degree relatives with history of cholelithiasis are at a three times higher risk of gallstones.8 Approximately 60% of patients with acute cholecystitis are female, but the illness is generally more severe in males.2 Women experience a higher prevalence because of estrogen’s effects on cholesterol metabolism.12 Estrogen increases cholesterol synthesis and decreases bile acid production.12 Progesterone in pregnancy decreases gallbladder contractility leading to stasis, making gallstones 10 to 15 times more common in women who have been pregnant.8,12 Women with history of biliary colic, gallstones, and the like should be aware of how hormones may affect their risk for recurrence. This is valuable information for pharmacists to consider and an appropriate place to intervene and educate.

                  European and American populations are more likely to develop gallstones, and Black people of African descent are least likely. Prevalence is highest in Native American populations, with 60% incidence in the Pima Indian populace of southern Arizona.8 Table 1 summarizes risk factors for GBD.2,8,13

                   

                  Table 1. Risk Factors for Developing Gallbladder Disease2,8,14-16
                  Demographics

                  ·       Ethnicity (American Indians, Chilean and Mexican Hispanics)

                  ·       Family history

                  ·       Female gender (10:1 female:male)

                  ·       Older age

                   

                  Diet

                  ·       High fat, calorie, and refined carbohydrate intake

                  ·       Low fiber and unsaturated fat intake

                  ·       Total parenteral nutrition

                   

                  Lifestyle

                  ·       Pregnancy and multiple pregnancies

                  ·       Persistent fasting or very low-calorie diet

                  ·       Rapid weight loss (i.e., bariatric surgery)

                  ·       Sedentary

                   

                  Medications

                  ·       Estrogen therapy or oral contraceptives

                  ·       Some hypoglycemic medications (GLP-1RAs)

                  ·       Chronic use of gastric acid suppressants (H2RAs, PPIs)

                  ·       Ketamine abuse

                   

                  Heath Conditions & Other Factors

                  ·       Alcoholic liver cirrhosis

                  ·       Dyslipidemia (elevated triglycerides and low HDL)

                  ·       Gallbladder motor dysfunction

                  ·       Gastrointestinal surgery

                  ·       Metabolic syndrome, gallbladder, or intestinal stasis

                  ·       Short bowel syndrome

                  ·       Type 2 diabetes mellitus

                   

                  GLP-1RAs, glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists; H2RAs, histamine-2-receptor antagonists; HDL, high-density lipoprotein; PPIs, proton-pump inhibitors.

                   

                  Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP1) receptor agonists (GLP-1RAs) are notable for their glucose control and cardiovascular risk reduction for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus and more recently, for weight loss. Their link to GBD is controversial as GLP1 inhibits gallbladder motility and delays gallbladder emptying.14 A recent systematic review and meta-analysis of 76 randomized clinical trials shows an association between GLP-1RA use and elevated GBD risk. The risk for gallbladder or biliary diseases were more prominent with higher doses, longer duration, and when used for weight loss.14 Clinicians should discuss the benefits of using these hypoglycemics for type 2 diabetes or weight loss and whether they outweigh the risk for GBD. Pharmacists can educate patients initiating GLP-1RAs about their benefits, risks, and implications with past medical history of or additional risk factors for GBD. Multiple GLP-1RAs are available in varying doses and pharmacists should continue to counsel patients as doses are increased over time.

                  Chronic use of gastric acid suppressants may cause cholelithiasis.15 These drugs impact gut microbiome and may slow gallbladder motility leading to delayed gallbladder emptying. A recent prospective cohort of 0.47 million participants found that regular use of proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) and histamine-2-receptor antagonists (H2RAs) resulted in increased cholelithiasis risk.15 Physicians should be aware of this association when prescribing these medications, especially for patients requiring long-term use or those already at high risk for gallstones. Pharmacists should keep these risks in mind when filling prescriptions for their patients on long-term or high-dose H2RAs and PPIs.

                  Ketamine abuse has been associated with chronic biliary colic. Ketamine was developed in 1962 as an anesthetic.16 “Street ketamine”, a close analogue of ketamine, is commonly used for its euphoric effects. Ketamine’s onset of action after oral ingestion is about ten minutes and its hallucinogenic effects are short acting, lasting up to two hours. The most common signs of ketamine abuse are hypertension, tachycardia, and abdominal tenderness. Ketamine abuse is also associated with impaired consciousness, dizziness, abdominal pain, and lower urinary tract symptoms.16 Case reports have shown ketamine abusers presenting with severe bladder dysfunction and recurrent episodes of epigastric pain due to a dilated common bile duct not associated with gallstones.16 Clinicians should collect detailed drug histories for patients presenting with recurrent abdominal pain, namely biliary colic.

                  Diets characterized by increased caloric intake with highly refined sugars, high fructose, low fiber, high fat, and consumption of fast food increase the risk of gallstone formation.9 Nutrition and lifestyle changes may be beneficial in the prevention of gallstones. Increased physical activity, consuming smaller more frequent meals, and “heart healthy” diets low in cholesterol and fat and high in fiber can reduce risk of cholelithiasis.7 Fat should not be completely cut out of the diet as too little fat can also precipitate gallstone formation.

                  Weight loss can reduce gallstone risk, but rapid weight loss achieved by low-calorie diets (less than 800 kcal/day) or bariatric surgery can cause gallstones.2,9 Patients should seek professional advice before starting diets promoting very low caloric or high fat intake to achieve rapid weight loss (i.e., Atkins, ketogenic). Pharmacists should be aware of patients who have recently undergone bariatric surgery or are taking drugs or supplements for weight loss. These patients may be at a higher risk for gallstones, especially those with past medical histories of GBD or abdominal colic symptoms.

                  Some foods and medications seem to be associated with a reduced risk of gallstones:

                  • Statins alter bile cholesterol and thus affect gallstone formation, suggesting a role in prevention. While the relationship between statins and gallstone formation is conflicting, studies report reduction in symptomatic gallstone disease with statin use.17
                  • Ezetimibe, a selective NPC1L1 inhibitor, has been associated with a reduced incidence of cholesterol gallstones in animal studies. The mechanism involves reduced amounts of absorbed cholesterol, decreasing biliary cholesterol saturation, and in turn, reduced rate of cholesterol gallstone formation.12
                  • Vitamin C supplementation has been shown to reduce gallstone prevalence. Researchers have studied vitamin C supplementation’s effects in gallstone formation in guinea pigs; those deficient in vitamin C more often develop gallstones. An observational study of a randomly selected population in Germany (n = 2129) showed a positive correlation between regular vitamin C intake and a reduced gallstone incidence.18
                  • Coffee consumption may also offer a protective effect against gallstone formation. Studies suggest coffee stimulates cholecystokinin release, enhancing gallbladder contractility, thereby reducing bile cholesterol crystallization. A 2019 observational analysis published in the Journal of Internal Medicine found a 23% decrease in gallstone formation in subjects consuming six or more cups of coffee daily.19
                  • A small study conducted in Spain shows that regular consumption of olive oil containing monounsaturated and polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acids may prevent gallstones. Similarly, fish (omega-3 fatty acids) and fish oil may reduce triglycerides and prevent gallstones. A group of participants with hypertriglyceridemia taking fish oil supplements for a seven-week study in the Netherlands experienced improved gallbladder motility and a decrease in triglycerides.10

                  TREATING GALLBLADDER DISEASE

                  Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is the most common way to identify and remove common duct stones. ERCP is minimally invasive and carries the risk of acute pancreatitis.8 This diagnostic tool may also identify duct strictures at which time stents are placed to reduce obstruction and improve biliary flow.8,10 Timely stent removal (within three to six months) is crucial to prevent occlusion, stent migration, or cholangitis.22 Cholecystectomy is the definitive treatment for symptomatic gallstones and should commence within 48 hours of symptom onset during the acute inflammatory process, before tissue thickening or scarring develops.8,10

                  Surgical Intervention: Cholecystectomy

                  The first gallstone removal surgery was a coincidence. In the mid-19th century, a physician was performing investigative surgery on a female patient, and when he cut into her gallbladder, several bullet-like objects spilled out.5 The first planned gallbladder removal was performed 15 years later.5 Before the early 1900s, the surgery was performed through an incision in the RUQ (Kocher’s incision, named after Emil Theodor Kocher, a Swiss physician and medical researcher who performed the first successful cholecystectomy in 1878).6,8 This invasive procedure was outmoded a few years after Erich Muhe, a German surgeon, performed the first laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 1985.8 Today, surgeons perform more than 98% of cholecystectomies laparoscopically, over 70% of which are outpatient day surgeries.8

                  Cholecystectomy is associated with fewer gallbladder-specific complications and shorter length of hospital stay when surgery is elective or performed as a single emergency visit without previous surgical admissions.3 A population-based cohort study of outcomes following surgery for benign GBD showed poorer outcomes and risk of readmissions with delayed cholecystectomy. Many studies define emergency or early surgical intervention as operations performed within 48 to 72 hours of symptom onset. A study of 14,200 patients in Canada discovered patients experienced fewer complications when surgery was performed within seven days of hospital admission.3 These studies show value in offering emergency surgery over delaying cholecystectomy for patients presenting with benign GBD.3

                  Antibiotic prophylaxis is not routinely recommended for low-risk patients undergoing elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy.13 High-risk patients (age older than 60, type 2 diabetes, acute colic within 30 days of surgery, jaundice, acute cholecystitis, or cholangitis) may benefit. Providers should limit prophylaxis to IV cefazolin 1 g as a single dose one hour prior to surgery.13

                  Several studies suggest that pain management before or during, and after laparoscopic cholecystectomy can reduce post-operative pain. A 2018 review of 258 randomized control trials recommended a basic analgesia technique: acetaminophen plus an NSAID or cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitor with local anesthetic infiltration.21 Opioids are reserved for breakthrough pain.21

                  Patients are generally discharged a few hours after surgery. Surgeons should be on alert for early signs of complications if there is divergence from the usual course of rapid recovery post-op. Extreme pain shortly after surgery may indicate intra-peritoneal leakage of bile or bowel contents.8 Persistent hypotension (low blood pressure) and pain can suggest bleeding. Re-laparoscopy may be necessary to identify and repair these problems and is preferred to diagnostic imaging.8

                  Removal of the gallbladder will not cause weight loss/gain or vitamin deficiencies. Patients should be able to tolerate foods they couldn’t before surgery, but providers should advise them to add those foods back into their diet very slowly. Following gallbladder removal, the liver will continue to make bile, but instead of storing it in the gallbladder, it will drain into the stomach and small intestines. Patients might experience three to five days of soreness post-op and are expected to fully heal within four to six weeks.7

                  Diarrhea and bloating due to alternation of biliary flow are common short-term occurrences after surgery.22 A small percentage (1% to 2%) of patients will have loose stools each time they eat greasy or high-fat meals.7 A cystic duct remnant is also possible, potentially leading to stone formation, causing Mirizzi syndrome. Mirizzi syndrome is characterized by fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain due to common hepatic duct obstruction caused by compression from the impacted stone in the remnant cystic duct.22 Endoscopic removal of the stone may be adequate. In rarer cases, surgical excision of the remnant duct may be necessary to prevent further complications.22

                  Pharmacologic and Other Non-Surgical Interventions

                  Nonoperative methods exist for patients unwilling or unable to undergo surgical intervention. Contraindications for laparoscopic cholecystectomy include10,13

                  • Absolute: gallbladder cancer (see Sidebar: Gallbladder Cancer), general anesthesia intolerance, giant gallstones, morbid obesity, uncontrolled bleeding disorder
                  • Relative: advanced cirrhosis/liver failure, bleeding disorder, peritonitis, previous upper abdominal surgeries, septic shock

                  Gallbladder Cancer20

                  Gallbladder cancer is a rare malignancy but accounts for almost 50% of biliary cancers. Biliary cancers have a poor five-year survival rate and a high recurrence rate. Factors affecting prognosis are stage at discovery, tumor location, operability, response to chemotherapy, and presence and location of metastases. Early-stage gallbladder cancer may be curable with surgical resection.

                   

                  Oral bile acid dissolution drugs include ursodeoxycholic acid (ursodiol) and chenodeoxycholic acid (chenodiol).23 Table 2 lists dosing and adverse effects of these medications. Smaller gallstones (0.5 to 1 cm) may be better suited for pharmaceutical intervention but may take up to 24 months to dissolve.2 Ursodiol is preferred over chenodiol due to its safer adverse effect profile. Use-limiting adverse effects of chenodiol include dose-dependent diarrhea, hypercholesterolemia, hepatotoxicity, and leukopenia.2 Recurrence rate is more than 50% and fewer than 10% of patients with symptomatic gallstones are candidates for this treatment.13

                   

                  Table 2. Oral Bile Acids2,23,24

                  Drug Dosage Duration Adverse Effects
                  Ursodiol

                  (Actigall)

                  8-10 mg/kg/day given in 2-3 divided doses Symptom relief after 3-6 weeks, results may take 6-24 months, continue for 3 months after documented dissolution Dyspepsia (>10%), nausea, vomiting, pruritis, headache, diarrhea, dizziness, constipation
                  Chenodiol (Chenodal) 250 mg twice daily for 2 weeks, increase dose by 250 mg/day weekly until maximum tolerable dose reached (13-16 mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses) Discontinue if no response by 18 months, safety not established beyond 24 months Dose-dependent diarrhea* (>10%), hypercholesterolemia, leukopenia, increased serum aminotransferase

                  * If diarrhea occurs, reduce dose and restart at previous dose when symptoms resolve.

                   

                  Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is a noninvasive option for symptomatic patients.13 Complications such as biliary pancreatitis and liver hematoma are rare, however stone recurrence is common. Recent studies show this procedure is beneficial for large pancreatic and common bile duct stones with similar pain relief and duct clearance outcomes compared to surgery.13

                  The initial approach for pregnant women with symptomatic gallstones is supportive care.13 Meperidine is the choice agent for pain control as NSAIDs are not recommended in pregnancy.13 Chenodiol is contraindicated in pregnancy.24 Ursodiol has been used in pregnant patients for intrahepatic cholestasis; safety and efficacy of use for gallstones has not been studied.13,23 Laparoscopic cholecystectomy, when indicated, is safe in all trimesters.13

                  POST-OPERATIVE CONSIDERATIONS AND THE PHARMACY TEAM

                  Post-Cholecystectomy Syndrome

                  Persistent or delayed onset abdominal pain after laparoscopic cholecystectomy may indicate post-cholecystectomy syndrome (PCS).22 Additional PCS symptoms include fatty food intolerance, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, heartburn, indigestion, flatulence, and jaundice. PCS often occurs in the post-operative period but can present months or years after surgery.22 Cholecystectomy carries a low mortality risk, but approximately 10% of patients undergoing cholecystectomy each year develop PCS.22 The risk increases with urgent surgeries and 20% of patients will develop PCS regardless of choledochotomy (surgical incision of common bile duct).22

                  PCS etiologies can be extra-biliary (pancreatitis, pancreatic tumors, hepatitis, esophageal diseases, mesenteric ischemia, diverticulitis, peptic ulcer disease) or biliary (bile salt induced diarrhea, retained calculi, bile leak, biliary strictures, stenosis, sphincter dyskinesia) in nature.22 Pathophysiology is related to alterations in bile flow and bile is the main trigger for patients with gastroduodenal symptoms or diarrhea.

                  The likelihood of diarrhea post-cholecystectomy ranges from 2% to 50% according to various studies.25 Diarrhea usually improves or resolves over the course of weeks to months. As discussed, in the gallbladder’s absence, bile flows straight from the liver into the small intestine continuously. This redirection of bile flow can overwhelm the ileum’s capacity for reabsorption, leading to increased bile acids in the colon and subsequently cholerheic diarrhea (also known as bile acid diarrhea).25 Patients may respond to treatment with bile acid sequestrants, including cholestyramine and colestipol.25

                  Bile acid sequestrants release chloride and bind bile acid in the intestines, preventing bile acid reabsorption. The drugs do not leave the gastrointestinal tract and are eliminated in the feces. They are indicated for hypercholesterolemia but patients use them off-label for chronic diarrhea due to malabsorption (Table 3). The most common adverse effect of bile acid sequestrants is constipation, which occurs in more than 10% of patients.26,27 Clinicians should instruct patients to drink plenty of fluid and increase dietary fiber. Most adverse effects are gastrointestinal-related (e.g., abdominal pain, flatulence, bloating, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dysphagia), and others include26,27

                  • Cholestasis and cholecystitis (with colestipol only)
                  • Dental bleeding and caries
                  • Diuresis, dysuria, and burnt odor to urine
                  • Edema
                  • Worsened hemorrhoids

                  Bile acid sequestrants bind vitamin K and folate so prescribers should monitor for deficiencies of both. Patients should supplement with folate. Patients may supplement with vitamin K; however preexisting coagulopathy is a contraindication. These drugs should be used with caution in patients with renal insufficiency.26,27

                   

                  Table 3. Bile Acid Sequestrants26,27

                  Drug Dosage Administration
                  Cholestyramine

                  (Prevalite, Questran)

                  2-4 g daily as a single dose or divided, increase by 4 g weekly based on response and tolerability, maximum 24 g/day Mix dose in 60-180 mL of any beverage, soup, or pulpy fruit, should not be sipped or held in mouth for long periods*

                   

                  Take with meals, administer oral medications ≥1 hour before or 4-6 hours after dose

                  Colestipol (Colestid) Granules: 5 g once or twice daily, increase by 5 g in 1-2 month intervals, maintenance dose 5-30 g once daily or in divided doses

                   

                  Tablets: 2 g once or twice daily, increase by 2 g in 1-2 month intervals, maintenance dose 2-16 g once daily or in divided doses

                  Administer other medications ≥1 hour before or 4 hours after dose

                   

                  Granules: do not administer in dry form to avoid GI distress or accidental inhalation, should be added to at least 90 mL of any beverage, soup, or pulpy fruit

                   

                  Tablets: administer one at a time; swallow whole; do not cut, crush, or chew

                  *May cause tooth discoloration or enamel decay. GI, gastrointestinal.

                   

                  PCS is a temporary diagnosis until further investigation establishes organic or functional diagnosis.22 Misdiagnosis of preexisting conditions is possible. The healthcare team should order a complete blood count and consider patients re-presenting with ongoing or new-onset abdominal pain post-cholecystectomy for CT scan.8 Presence of gas and fluid in the gallbladder bed may be normal but fluid or gas build-up elsewhere may indicate a bile leak. Elevated liver function tests may also suggest a bile leak or retained common bile duct stone. The most common cause of PCS is the presence of stones in the biliary tree.10 ERCP, both diagnostic and therapeutic, is the most common procedural approach to PCS.22

                  Medication: Treatment Goals

                  Pharmacologic treatment goals in GBD are to prevent complications and reduce morbidity.22 Administration of bulking agents like psyllium fiber can help patients with symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and/or diarrhea. Psyllium husk (Metamucil, Benefiber) is an over-the-counter (OTC) option for patients looking to increase fiber intake. It is usually used to treat constipation and works by stimulating intestinal contractility, speeding up the movement of stool through the colon.28 Psyllium can also treat diarrhea by soaking up excess water from the intestines, bulking stool, and promoting regularity.28 Psyllium may reduce absorption and effectiveness of many medications; it is important that patients seek pharmacist counseling before initiating a psyllium fiber regimen.

                  Antispasmodics (e.g., loperamide) may help patients with IBS symptoms like cramping. Cholestyramine may help symptoms of diarrhea alone. Antacids (Maalox, Mylanta, Tums), H2RAs (e.g., famotidine), and PPIs (e.g., esomeprazole, lansoprazole, omeprazole) can improve gastritis or gastric reflux symptoms by reducing acid production.22 One study showed a correlation between dyspeptic symptoms and gastric bile salt; these patients may benefit from bile acid sequestrants.22 Patients should consult their gastroenterologist for recommended dosing of these drugs, as they may vary depending on clinical presentation and severity of symptoms.

                  The Pharmacy Team’s Role

                  Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians are integral members of the healthcare team. Pharmacists can educate patients about GBDs, the risk factors for their development, and how to mitigate them with a proper diet and exercise.

                  Pharmacy technicians can help by directing patients in the right direction when looking for OTC antacids, fiber supplements, or anti-diarrheal agents. Many patients may not ask questions about OTC products before purchase. Pharmacy technicians are often the patients’ first point of contact in the pharmacy and should ask open-ended questions at the register before or during the transaction.

                  Patients should use the products as directed by their gastroenterologists. Pharmacy technicians should refer patient questions relating to administration, dosing, adverse effects, and drug interactions to the pharmacist on duty. Consider possible scenarios that may arise in the pharmacy and how pharmacy technicians and pharmacists should approach them:

                  • Mark is a pharmacy technician at XYZ Pharmacy. Jaclyn enters the pharmacy, approaches the pick-up window, and places several OTC items on the counter. She states she would like to pick up a prescription her doctor called in today. Mark retrieves Jaclyn’s prescription and notices it is for omeprazole 40mg. The items on the counter include Tums, famotidine 20mg, docusate sodium 100mg, and lansoprazole 30mg. Mark knows that omeprazole and lansoprazole are in the same drug class. What questions can Mark ask Jaclyn? Should Mark involve the pharmacist?
                  • Jaclyn comes back to the pharmacy a week later to pick up a prescription for cholestyramine. She wants to know if she can take this with omeprazole and famotidine. Mark refers Jaclyn’s question to the pharmacist. How should the pharmacist respond to Jaclyn’s question and what counseling points are important to include?

                  CONCLUSION

                  Gallbladder diseases typically occur secondary to cholelithiasis. Most gallstone cases are asymptomatic, but some develop into symptomatic disease. Factors that may increase GBD risk include gender, age, family history, ethnicity, diet, and medical conditions. Surgical gallbladder removal is the most common treatment, but many nonsurgical alternatives exist when surgery is nonpreferred or contraindicated. Additionally, PCS can occur months to years after surgery and treatment should be directed based on specific diagnosis post-examination. Healthcare providers should collaborate to develop the best procedural and/or pharmaceutical treatment plan as each patient’s clinical presentation and symptoms will vary.

                  The pharmacy team should take an active role in GBD management, especially following cholecystectomy. Pharmacy technicians should be weary when patients complain of abdominal pain or attempt to purchase multiple OTC products to treat their symptoms; they should relay specific disease- and drug-related questions to the pharmacist on duty. GBD is a common and highly manageable condition, and patients can live normal and healthy lives once symptoms are properly controlled and treated.

                   

                   

                  Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                  After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
                  • DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion
                  • RECOGNIZE gallbladder disease based on various presentations
                  • EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis
                  • DISCUSS treatment approaches for gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy management

                  1. How do gallstones form?
                  A. Fat soluble vitamin deficiency
                  B. Gallbladder hypermotility
                  C. Imbalances in bile components

                  2. Which of the following are risk factors for GBD?
                  A. Female gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes
                  B. Female gender; low fat, high calorie, high fiber diet; and rapid weight loss
                  C. Male gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes

                  3. MB is a 44-year-old female who presents to the emergency department with severe RUQ pain and nausea. She states this is the third time this year that she has presented to the ED with these symptoms. MB is admitted and the hospitalist starts her on IV fluids, acetaminophen, and ketorolac. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?
                  A. MB should also receive meperidine to manage her pain
                  B. MB should undergo cholecystectomy within 72 hours of admission
                  C. MB is at high risk for infection and should be given IV cefazolin for prophylaxis

                  4. Gallstone recurrence is common with which of the following?
                  A. Oral bile acid dissolution drugs
                  B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
                  C. Asymptomatic cholelithiasis

                  5. Which of the following is FALSE about gallbladder removal surgery?
                  A. Patients should have higher tolerability for foods they could not tolerate before surgery
                  B. Patients should supplement with fat soluble vitamins post-cholecystectomy
                  C. Up to 50% of patients may experience diarrhea following cholecystectomy

                  6. Why is diarrhea a common complication post-cholecystectomy?
                  A. Overproduction of bile
                  B. Vitamin deficiencies
                  C. Altered biliary flow

                  7. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of oral bile acid dissolution agents?
                  A. They can cause vitamin K and folate deficiencies
                  B. Chenodiol is preferred in pregnant women due to its safer adverse effect profile
                  C. Fewer than 10% of symptomatic patients are candidates for treatment

                  8. AP is a 37-year-old female, weighing 80 kg with symptomatic gallstones. She is not a candidate for laparoscopic cholecystectomy due to previous anesthesia intolerance. AP brings a prescription to the pharmacy for ursodiol 250 mg TID. How long will AP most likely need to take this medication?
                  A. 3 to 6 weeks
                  B. 6 months to 2 years
                  C. 1 to 3 years

                  9. KM is a 42-year-old female whose gastroenterologist recommends she try psyllium husk twice daily for her chronic diarrhea post-cholecystectomy. She seems confused when you hand her Metamucil because she thought it was used for constipation. What should you tell KM?
                  A. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by binding bile acids in the gut and excreting them in the stool
                  B. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by soaking up excess water in the intestines to bulk the stool
                  C. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by increasing intestinal contractility

                  10. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for bile acid sequestrants?
                  A. Their most common adverse effects are diarrhea and edema
                  B. They are contraindicated in patients with uncontrolled bleeding disorders
                  C. Take other oral medications at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after dose

                  Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                  After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to
                  • DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion.
                  • EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis.
                  • LIST over the counter medications used often by patients with gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy.
                  • IDENTIFY patient questions that need to be referred to a pharmacist.

                  1. How do gallstones form?
                  A. Fat soluble vitamin deficiency
                  B. Gallbladder hypermotility
                  C. Imbalances in bile components

                  2. Which of the following are risk factors for GBD?
                  A. Female gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes
                  B. Female gender; low fat, high calorie, high fiber diet; and rapid weight loss
                  C. Male gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes

                  3. Gallstone recurrence is common with which of the following?
                  A. Oral bile acid dissolution agents
                  B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
                  C. Asymptomatic cholelithiasis

                  4. Which of the following may reduce the risk of developing gallstones?
                  A. Statins
                  B. Oral contraceptives
                  C. Ketogenic diet

                  5. Why was the gallbladder more essential centuries ago?
                  A. Humans consumed smaller meals containing less fat
                  B. Humans consumed larger meals containing more fat
                  C. Humans consumed meals containing more protein

                  6. What is cholelithiasis?
                  A. Gallstones caused by bilirubin
                  B. The presence of stones in the gallbladder
                  C. The presence of gallstones in the cystic duct

                  7. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of oral bile acid dissolution agents?
                  A. They can cause vitamin K and folate deficiencies
                  B. Chenodiol is preferred in pregnant women due to its safer adverse effect profile
                  C. Fewer than 10% of symptomatic patients are candidates for treatment

                  8. How does psyllium husk help patients with diarrhea?
                  A. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by binding bile acids in the gut and excreting them in the stool
                  B. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by soaking up excess water in the intestines to bulk the stool
                  C. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by increasing intestinal contractility

                  9. Which of the following patients should pharmacy technicians refer to a pharmacist?
                  A. A patient holding a container of Metamucil and Fibercon fiber capsules and wants to know which contains psyllium
                  B. A patient asking for help locating famotidine, which their gastroenterologist recommended for acid indigestion
                  C. A patient who has failed several OTC therapies wants to know what to try for persistent diarrhea post-cholecystectomy

                  10. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding OTC products for patients with GBD and/or PCS?
                  A. Antispasmodics like loperamide may help patients’ gastritis symptoms
                  B. Famotidine can relieve gastritis symptoms by reducing acid production
                  C. Patients can take an antacid like omeprazole to calm IBS symptoms

                  References

                  Full List of References

                  1. Division of General Surgery. History of Medicine: The Galling Gallbladder. Columbia University Irving Medical Center, New York, NY; 1999-2022. Accessed April 26, 2022. https://columbiasurgery.org/news/2015/06/11/history-medicine-galling-gallbladder
                  2. Afamefuna S, Allen SN. Gallbladder disease: Pathophysiology, diagnosis, and treatment. US Pharm.2013;38(3):33-41. https://www.uspharmacist.com/article/gallbladder-disease-pathophysiology-diagnosis-and-treatment
                  3. CholeS Study Group, West Midlands Research Collaborative, et al. Population‐based cohort study of outcomes following cholecystectomy for benign gallbladder diseases. [published correction appears in Br J Surg. 2018 Aug;105(9):1222]. Br J Surg. 2016;103(12):1704-1715. doi:10.1002/bjs.10287
                  4. Jones MW, Small K, Kashyap S, Deppen JG. Physiology, Gallbladder. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; May 8, 2022.
                  5. 5 surprising truths about the gallbladder. Surgical Consultants of Northern Virginia; Reston, VA. 2023. PatientPopInc. Accessed September 21, 2022. https://www.scnv.com/blog/5-surprising-truths-about-the-gallbladder
                  6. De U. Evolution of cholecystectomy: A tribute to Carl August Langenbuch. Indian J Surg. 2004;66(2):97-100.
                  7. Haelle T. 10 essential facts about your gallbladder. Everyday Health. August 15, 2015. Accessed September 21, 2022. https://www.everydayhealth.com/news/essential-facts-about-your-gallbladder/
                  8. Beckingham IJ. Gallstones. Surgery (Oxford). 2020;38(8):453-462. doi:10.1016/j.mpsur.2020.06.002
                  9. Di Ciaula A, Garruti G, Frühbeck G, et al. The role of diet in the pathogenesis of cholesterol gallstones. Curr Med Chem. 2019;26(19):3620-3638. doi:10.2174/0929867324666170530080636
                  10. Ahmed A, Cheung RC, Keeffe EB. Management of gallstones and their complications. Am Fam Physician. 2000;61(6):1673-1688.
                  11. Jones MW, Gnanapandithan K, Panneerselvam D, Ferguson T. Chronic Cholecystitis. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island, FL: StatPearls Publishing; October 24, 2022. Accessed March 29, 2023. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470236/
                  12. Di Ciaula A, Portincasa P. Recent advances in understanding and managing cholesterol gallstones. F1000Res. 2018;7:F1000 Faculty Rev-1529. doi:10.12688/f1000research.15505.1
                  13. Abraham S, Rivero HG, Erlikh IV, Griffith LF, Kondamudi VK. Surgical and nonsurgical management of gallstones. Am Fam Physician. 2014;89(10):795-802.
                  14. He L, Wang J, Ping F, et al. Association of glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist use with risk of gallbladder and biliary diseasesA systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized clinical trialsJAMA Intern Med.2022;182(5):513–519. doi:10.1001/jamainternmed.2022.0338
                  15. Yang M, Xia B, Lu Y, et al. Association between regular use of gastric acid suppressants and subsequent risk of cholelithiasis: A prospective cohort study of 0.47 million participants. Front Pharmacol. 2022;12:813587. Published 2022 Jan 28. doi:10.3389/fphar.2021.813587
                  16. Al-Nowfal A, Al-Abed YA. Chronic biliary colic associated with ketamine abuse. Int Med Case Rep J. 2016;9:135-137. Published 2016 Jun 2. doi:10.2147/IMCRJ.S100648
                  17. Pulkkinen J, Eskelinen M, Kiviniemi V, et al. Effect of statin use on outcome of symptomatic cholelithiasis: a case-control study. BMC Gastroenterol. 2014;14:119. Published 2014 Jul 3. doi:10.1186/1471-230X-14-119
                  18. Walcher T, Haenle MM, Kron, M, et al. Vitamin C supplement use may protect against gallstones: An observational study on a randomly selected population. BMC Gastroenterol. 2009;9:74. doi:10.1186/1471-230X-9-74
                  19. Nordestgaard AT, Stender S, Nordestgaard BG, et al. Coffee intake protects against symptomatic gallstone disease in the general population: a Mendelian randomization study. J Intern Med. 2020;287(1):42-53. doi:10.1111/joim.12970
                  20. Mukkamalla SKR, Kashyap S, Recio-Boiles A, et al. Gallbladder Cancer. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island, FL: StatPearls Publishing; July 10, 2022. Accessed December 20, 2022. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK442002/
                  21. Barazanchi AWH, MacFater WS, Rahiri JL, et al. Evidence-based management of pain after laparoscopic cholecystectomy: a PROSPECT review update. Br J Anaesth. 2018;121(4):787-803. doi:10.1016/j.bja.2018.06.023
                  22. Zackria R, Lopez RA. Postcholecystectomy Syndrome. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island, FL: StatPearls Publishing; August 29, 2022. Accessed November 21, 2022. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK539902/
                  23. Ursodeoxycholic Acid, Ursodiol. Clinical Pharmacology. New York, NY: Elsevier Inc.; 1960. Updated August 6, 2018. Accessed October 25, 2022. Available from: http://www.clinicalkey.com
                  24. Chenodiol. Clinical Pharmacology. New York, NY: Elsevier Inc; 1960. Updated September, 29 2015. Accessed October 25, 2022. Available from: http://www.clinicalkey.com
                  25. Bonis PA, Lamont JT. Approach to the adult with chronic diarrhea in resource-abundant settings. UpToDate. UpToDate Inc.; 1978-2022. Last Updated May 2, 2022. Accessed November 28, 2022. https://www.uptodate.com/contents/approach-to-the-adult-with-chronic-diarrhea-in-resource-abundant-settings
                  26. Cholestyramine Resin. Lexicomp. UpToDate Inc.; 1978-2022. Updated November 25, 2022. Accessed November 29, 2022. Available from: https://online.lexi.com
                  27. Colestipol. Lexicomp. UpToDate Inc., 1978-2022. Updated October 22, 2022. Accessed November 29, 2022. Available from: https://online.lexi.com
                  28. Sruthi M. What does psyllium husk do? MedicineNet. Updated October 7, 2021. Accessed November 29, 2022. https://www.medicinenet.com/what_does_psyllium_husk_do/article.htm

                   

                   

                  Evidence Based LDL Lowering Options-RECORDED WEBINAR

                  The Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium is an educational conference focused on pharmacy practice for pharmacists in many settings.

                  This year's sympoisum had an overall topic of Drug Induced Disease from a Patient Safety perspective.  This presentation deals with secondary cancers resulting from primary cancer treatment.

                  Learning Objectives

                  The activity met the following learning objectives for Pharmacists:
                  ·    Describe the role of dietary modification for LDL modification

                   

                  ·       Identify how some dietary supplement ingredients mimic the mechanisms of action of prescription drugs
                  ·       Describe the magnitude of plant sterols and stanols, red yeast rice, silybum M, berberine, cinnamon, green tea extract, and garlic LDL reduction as monotherapy
                  ·       Describe the potential for combination therapy to increase the magnitude of benefit
                  ·       Compare and contrast with prescription LDL lowering options
                  ·  Describe risks of contamination and adulteration with dietary supplements

                  Activity Release Dates

                  Released:  April 27, 2023
                  Expires:  April 27, 2026

                  Course Fee

                  $17 Pharmacist

                  ACPE UAN Codes

                   0009-0000-23-010-H01-P

                  Session Code

                  23RW10-CBA96

                  Accreditation Hours

                  1.0 hours of CE

                  Accreditation Statement

                  The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

                  Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour  for completing the activity  (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-010-H01-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

                  Grant Funding

                  There is no grant funding for this activity.

                  Faculty

                  C. Michael White, PharmD, FCCP, FCP
                  Professor and Department Head Pharmacy Practice
                  University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Director HOPES Research Group
                  Storrs, CT

                  Faculty Disclosure

                  Dr. White is a co-investigator on a project assessing the risk of bias for an anti-bleeding drug, andexanet alfa. This is a bleeding reversal agent and AstraZeneca is funding it. They do not have a lipid reducing product that I am discussing in this presentation or as a competitor to the products I am discussing.  nonetheless.

                  Disclaimer

                  The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                  Content

                  Post Test Pharmacist

                  1. Which of the following fats has the worst effects on the LDL to HDL ratio?
                  2. Trans fats
                  3. Saturated fats
                  4. MUFAs

                   

                  1. Which of the following describes the impact of the Mediterranean diet on patients?
                  2. It reduces cardiovascular events significantly and LDL by a large amount
                  3. It reduces cardiovascular events significantly and LDL to a modest amount
                  4. It reduces the need for lipid lowering therapy by a large amount

                   

                  1. Which of the following supplements is linked correctly to its likely mechanism of action?
                  2. Berberine – Blocks the enzyme HMG CoA Reductase
                  3. Red Yeast Rice – Blocks formation of the protein PCSK9
                  4. Sterols/Stanols – Block LDL reabsorption and fat absorption

                   

                  1. Tobias Whale is a 50-year-old super villain in the series Black Lightening. In addition to killing the innocent and extorting small business owners, he also has a poor baseline diet. He requires a 6% reduction in his LDL to reach his goal. Which of the following natural products are MOST LIKELY to get him to goal?
                  2. Cinnamon
                  3. Green tea
                  4. Red Yeast Rice

                   

                  1. What does a USP or NSF seal on a bottle of Red Yeast Rice tell you?
                  2. That the product will reduce your LDL by 30% under normal circumstances
                  3. That the product will reduce your risk of ASCVD events
                  4. That the specified active ingredient is actually in the pills

                   

                  “I don’t dig your cig” : Strategies for tobacco cessation-RECORDED WEBINAR

                  The Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium is an educational conference focused on pharmacy practice for pharmacists in many settings.

                  This year's sympoisum had an overall topic of Drug Induced Disease from a Patient Safety perspective.  This presentation deals with secondary cancers resulting from primary cancer treatment.

                  Learning Objectives

                  ·  Recall the medicinal uses of tobacco
                  ·  Describe the cycle of tobacco addition
                  ·  Identify strategies for counseling patients on behavioral techniques recommended for tobacco cessation
                  ·   Compare the safety and efficacy of FDA approved pharmacotherapies for tobacco cessation
                  ·    Discuss recommendations from national practice guidelines for tobacco cessation and apply them to a patient case

                  Activity Release Dates

                  Released:  April 27, 2023
                  Expires:  April 27, 2026

                  Course Fee

                  $17 Pharmacist

                  ACPE UAN Codes

                   0009-0000-23-012-H01-P

                  Session Code

                  23RW12-VXK92

                  Accreditation Hours

                  1.0 hours of CE

                  Accreditation Statement

                  The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

                  Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour  for completing the activity  (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-011-H01-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

                  Grant Funding

                  There is no grant funding for this activity.

                  Faculty

                  Stefanie Nigro, PharmD, BCACP, CDCES,
                  Associate Clinical Professor
                  Department of Pharmacy Practice

                  University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy
                  Storrs, CT

                  Faculty Disclosure

                  Dr. Nigro has no financial relationship with inelegible companies

                  Disclaimer

                  The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                  Content

                  Post Test Pharmacist

                    1. Which patient characteristic supports initiation of combination therapy for smoking cessation?
                      1. Age younger than 65 years
                      2. Elevated eosinophil levels
                      3. Heavy smoker with high dependence

                     

                    1. When should patients begin varenicline relative to their quit date if they are following an approach with a traditional fixed quit date?
                      1. 1 week prior
                      2. 3 days prior
                      3. The same day

                     

                    1. Which of the following treatments for smoking cessation requires a dose adjustment for renal impairment?
                      1. Nicotine lozenge
                      2. Bupropion SR
                      3. Varenicline

                     

                    1. Which of the following combinations is the most effective for smoking cessation?
                    2. Combination NRT
                    3. Bupropion SR + nicotine patch
                    4. Varenicline + nicotine patch

                     

                    1. Which statement correctly describes the comparative efficacy of first-line smoking cessation monotherapies?
                    2. Bupropion SR is more effective than NRT
                    3. All NRTs are more effective than varenicline
                    4. Varenicline is more effective than NRT or bupropion SR

                     

                    1. Why can’t women who are younger than 35 who smoke 15 or more cigarettes per day use estrogen containing contraceptives?
                    2. A pharmacokinetic drug interaction decreases contraceptive efficacy and increases risk for adverse effects
                    3. A pharmacodynamic drug interaction increases risk of venous thromboembolism, myocardial infarction and stroke
                    4. A pharmacokinetic drug interaction increases estrogen levels and also magnifies estrogen-like side effects

                     

                    1. Patients should be counseled to avoid eating or drinking 15 minutes prior to the use of which therapies?
                    2. Nicotine lozenge, gum and inhaler
                    3. Nicotine lozenge and gum
                    4. Nicotine nasal spray, gum and lozenge

                     

                     

                    1. Which of the following smoking cessation therapies does NOT match with the listed side effect?
                    2. Nicotine gum and vivid dreams
                    3. Nicotine nasal spray and nasal irritation
                    4. Bupropion SR and tremor

                     

                     

                    1. Chad is a 55-year-old male patient with a past medical history including diabetes mellitus type 2, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He is currently hospitalized due to a myocardial infarction but is now stable Chad recognizes that quitting smoking is critical to his cardiovascular health and wants to try to quit. Which of the following therapies is a first-line recommendation for Chad to initiate while hospitalized, according to the American College of Cardiology?  

                     

                    1. Pharmacotherapy is contraindicated 2 weeks post myocardial infarction
                    2. Combination therapy with Chantix and NRT
                    3. Combination NRT

                     

                     

                    1. Melissa is a 34-year-old female who has smoked two packs per day since she was 19 years old. She comes to the pharmacy and asks if there is a medication that can help her feel ‘readier’ to quit. She does not feel ready to set a quit date but wants to try and work toward this goal. Which of the following medications can Melissa start now with a goal of reducing smoking?
                    2. Chantix or NRT
                    3. Any of the first-line medications
                    4. Bupropion SR