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Hormone Therapy’s Twin Faces: Sorting Science from Misconception-RECORDED WEBINAR

About this Course

This course is a recorded (home study version) of the 2025 CE Finale Encore Webinars.

 

Learning Objectives

Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

  • Discuss the clinical evidence on safety, efficacy, and patient outcomes for hormone replacement therapy (HRT), highlighting areas of misconception or confusion
  • Compare HRT options and bioidenticals, including mechanisms of action, formulations, and regulatory pathways
  • Apply guidelines and evidence-based recommendations to individualize patient counseling and therapeutic decision-making when managing HRT

Release and Expiration Dates

Released:  December 19, 2025
Expires:  December 19, 2028

Course Fee

$17 Pharmacist

ACPE UAN

0009-0000-25-067-H01-P

Session Code

25RW67-TFM98

Accreditation Hours

1.0 hours of CE

Additional Information

 

How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

Accreditation Statement

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-25-067-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

Grant Funding

There is no grant funding for this activity.

Faculty

Kelsey Giara, PharmD
Freelance Medical Writer
Pelham, NH

Faculty Disclosure

In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

  • Kelsey Giara has no relationships with ineligible companies

Disclaimer

The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

Content

Posttest

1. Which statement BEST reflects current evidence regarding the safety of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
A. HRT is associated with increased cardiovascular and cancer risk regardless of age or timing
B. HRT’s benefit-risk profile is favorable when started before age 60 or within 10 years of menopause
C. HRT should generally be avoided due to persistent risks identified in early WHI trial reports

*

2. Which menopausal symptom is MOST effectively treated with systemic estrogen therapy?
A. Vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes and night sweats
B. Isolated vaginal dryness without other menopausal complaints
C. Mild urinary symptoms without associated vasomotor complaints

*

3. Which statement accurately compares FDA-approved bioidentical hormones with compounded bioidentical hormone products?
A. Both FDA-approved and compounded bioidentical hormones undergo the same regulatory review
B. Compounded bioidentical hormones are preferred because they are more natural and tailored to patient needs
C. Only FDA-approved bioidentical hormones have standardized dosing and known safety profiles

*

4. Which statement BEST describes the FDA’s November 2025 updates to boxed warning language for HRT?
A. All boxed warnings were removed after evidence showed WHI studies reflected inaccurate data regarding HRT risks
B. Boxed warnings were expanded to emphasize cardiovascular and dementia risks in newly menopausal women
C. Boxed warnings were revised to better reflect age- and timing-specific risk while retaining key safety information

*

5. A 52-year-old woman who is 2 years postmenopausal presents with bothersome hot flashes and night sweats that are disrupting sleep and daily functioning. She has an intact uterus, no history of cardiovascular disease or venous thromboembolism, and is concerned about cancer risk after reading older media reports about hormone therapy. Which counseling and treatment approach is MOST appropriate?
A. Recommend low-dose transdermal estrogen combined with a progestin and discuss individualized benefits and risks
B. Advise against hormone therapy due to patient age and persistent safety concerns and recommend nonhormonal options only
C. Suggest compounded bioidentical estrogen therapy to minimize systemic exposure and long-term cardiovascular and cancer risks

Handouts

VIDEO

NKOTB: New and Emerging Roles for GLP-1-Based Medications -RECORDED WEBINAR

About this Course

This course is a recorded (home study version) of the 2025 CE Finale Encore Webinars.

 

* The information below is current as of the time of the presentation in 12/2025. This is a very active and rapidly-changing area of research so the information may have changed by the time the audience member watches this presentation in the future.

Learning Objectives

Upon completion of this application based CE Activity, a pharmacist will be able to:

  • List recent FDA-approved indications for GLP-1-based medications
  • Recognize proposed mechanisms by which GLP-1-based medications may impact conditions beyond type 2 diabetes and adiposity-based chronic disease
  • Describe key findings from major clinical trials evaluating new therapeutic potential of GLP-1-based medications

Release and Expiration Dates

Released:  December 19, 2025
Expires:  December 19, 2028

Course Fee

$17 Pharmacist

ACPE UAN

0009-0000-25-065-H01-P

Session Code

25RW65-GLP35

Accreditation Hours

1.0 hours of CE

Additional Information

 

How to Complete Evaluation:  When you are ready to submit quiz answers, go to the BLUE take test/evaluation button.

Accreditation Statement

The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive up to 1.0 CE Hours (or 0.1 CEUs)  for completing the activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-25-065-H01-P, passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

Grant Funding

There is no grant funding for this activity.

Faculty

Khanh Dang, PharmD, CDCES, FNAP
Clinical Professor
UConn School of Pharmacy
Storrs, CT

Faculty Disclosure

In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

  • Dr. Dang has no relationships with ineligible companies

Disclaimer

The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

Content

Post Test

1. Which of the following GLP-1-based medication has an FDA indication for reducing risk sustained eGFR decline, end-stage kidney disease and CV death in adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus and CKD?
A. dulaglutide
B. semaglutide
C. tirzepatide

*

2. Which of the following GLP-1-based medication has an FDA indication for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
A. dulaglutide
B. semaglutide
C. tirzepatide

*

3. Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the cardiovascular risk reduction observed with GLP-1-based medications?
A. Direct blockade of angiotensin II receptors and weight loss
B. Improved endothelial function, decreased blood pressure, and weight loss
C. Increasing sympathetic nervous system activity

*

4. In the FLOW study, which supported semaglutide’s recent FDA label approval for kidney risk reduction, the primary composite endpoint (kidney failure, ≥50% sustained eGFR reduction, or kidney/cardiovascular death) was reduced by ____ compared to placebo.
A. ~10%
B. ~25%
C. ~50%

*

5. Which patient population was enrolled in the SURMOUNT-OSA study?
A. Adults with obstructive sleep apnea and normal body weight
B. Adults with BMI of 30 and higher and obstructive sleep apnea, with or without positive airway pressure therapy
C. Adults with central sleep apnea due to neurologic disease, receiving with positive airway pressure therapy

*

6. Which of the following is a proposed mechanism of how GLP-1-based medications can lead to both renal protection and improvement in metabolic-dysfunction steatohepatitis (MASH)?
A. Decreased inflammation
B. Increased insulin resistance
C. Increased blood pressure

Video

Long Acting Injectables LIVE Workshop- Friday, March 20, 2026

About this Course

Pharmacists possess the training and skills necessary to administer certain long-acting injectable (LAI) medications used in the management of mental illnesses and substance use disorders. Through collaborative practice agreements, pharmacists can administer Long Acting Injectables in almost every state. In some states, including the state of Connecticut, this occurs via collaborative agreements, and necessary injection and disease state training.  Administration of these medications by pharmacists can increase accessibility of care for patients.

UConn has developed web-based and LIVE continuing pharmacy education activities to enhance pharmacists’ skills and help them make sound clinical decisions about long acting injectables administration. This course includes eight hours of CPE (or eight hours of credit), required by the State of Connecticut.  Successful completion of these eight hours (with five activities consisting of three hours online pre-requisite work, two hours of LIVE Law CE and three hours of hands-on LAIA training) will earn the pharmacist a Certificate in Long-Acting Injectables of Psychotropic Medication.

The LIVE Workshop listed below is required to earn the Long-Acting Injectable Psychotropic Medication Pharmacist certificate.  The Workshop consists of 2 hours of Live Law CE-Collaborative Practice Agreement & Documentation Best Practices and 3 hours of Hands-on training-Long Acting Injectables Hands-On LIVE Workshop.

The Long-Acting Injectable Psychotropic Medication Pharmacist Certificate Training Program costs $299 and includes both the 3 online prerequisites and this full day of LIVE training.

Friday, March 20, 2026
8:00 am - 4:00 pm
Pharmacy Biology Building-Room 229
Storrs, CT

A light breakfast and lunch will be served.

Target Audience

Pharmacists who are interested in administering long acting injectable psychotropic medications to their patients.

This activity is NOT accredited for technicians.

Pharmacist Learning Objectives

At the end of this application and practice-based continuing education activity, the learner will be able to:

Describe the impact of stigma within the healthcare system and utilize non-stigmatizing terminology when talking to and about patients with psychiatric and/or substance use disorders
Identify patient barriers to obtaining appropriate treatment for psychiatric and/or substance use disorders
Explain the potential impact of LAI medications on patient health outcomes
Identify the key components of the Collaborative Practice Agreement associated with LAI medications
Describe the key components of the Notes on Injection Clinical Encounter (NICE) documentation form
Apply different best practices for documentation, maintenance of files, and communications with prescribers
Describe the steps in the safe and effective use of different LAI medications for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and substance use disorder
Compare and contrast how the administration techniques are similar or different for the different LAI medications
Demonstrate the use sterile injection techniques and best practices in the administration of different LAI products

Release Date

Released:  1/31/2024
Expires:  1/31/2027

Course Fee

$299

ACPE UANs

0009-0000-24-012-L03-P

0009-0000-24-013-L01-P

Accreditation Hours

5.0 hours of LIVE CE

Bundle Deal

You may register for individual online topics at $17/CE Credit Hour if you are not interested in attending the live workshop.

If desired, pharmacists can register for the entire Long-Acting Injectable Psychotropic Medication Pharmacist Certificate Training Program.   The Certificate consists of 3 prerequisite activities in our online catalog (included in registration), 2 hours of LIVE Law CE, and 3 hours of hands-on training in-person activities that comprise the 5 hour LIVE workshop at $299.00.

To attend the live training, you must register for only LAIA 2026 LIVE Certificate Training.  The prerequisites are already included in this bundled pricing of $299.00

 

 

Accreditation Statement

ACPE logo

The University of Connecticut, School of Pharmacy, is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit will be issued for 5.0 hours (or 0.5 CEUS). Two hours (0.2 CEUs) of live Law CE-Collaborative Practice Agreement & Documentation Best Practices for activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-012-L03-P, and 3 hours (0.3 CEUs) for Long Acting Injectables Hands-On LIVE Workshop ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-013-L01-P. UConn will be award credits once learner attends the full 5 hours, successfully passes the injection assessment and submits their evaluation.  Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 24 hours of your submitting the evaluation.

Grant Funding

There is no grant funding for this activity.

Requirements for Successful Completion

To receive CE credit for this activity, the leaner must attend the full 5 hours of the LIVE workshop, pass the injection assessment, and submit their evaluation online.

To Receive the Certificate in Long Acting Injectables the learner must complete this live workshop (requirements described above, and the 3 online pre-requisites.

Faculty

Kristin Waters, PharmD, BCPS, BCPP,
Assistant Clinical Professor
UConn School of Pharmacy
Storrs, CT

Nathaniel Rickles, PharmD, PhD, BCPP, FAPhA
Professor of Pharmacy Practice
UConn School of Pharmacy
Storrs, CT

Sharon Spicer, BSRN
Director of Quality Assurance and Customer Success
Connecticut Pharmacy & Long Term Care
Wallingford, CT

 

 

Faculty Disclosure

In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

Dr. Waters is a consultant with Janssen Pharmaceuticals. She will discuss all drugs without bias. All financial interests with ineligible companies (as noted) have been mitigated.

Dr. Rickles and Sharon Spicer have no relationships with ineligible companies.

Disclaimer

This activity may contain discussion of off label/unapproved use of drugs. The content and views presented in this educational program are those of the faculty and do not necessarily represent those of the University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy. Please refer to the official prescribing information for each product for discussion of approved indications, contraindications, and warnings.

Treating Gout without Doubt

Learning Objectives

 

After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

1. Describe gout's pathogenesis, relationship to hyperuricemia, and complications of untreated gout
2. Describe the diagnosis and goals of therapy for gout
3. Recall nonpharmacologic therapy for the management of gout and medications that can increase serum uric acid level
4. Discuss the appropriate approach to gout therapy (acute attack treatment, prevention of future gout attacks, "medication-in-pocket," and "treat-to-target") and its timing

After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:

1. Describe gout's pathogenesis, relationship to hyperuricemia, and complications of untreated gout
2. Recall nonpharmacologic therapy for the management of gout and medications that can increase serum uric acid level
3. Recognize different pharmacological classes and regimens for urate-lowering therapy (ULT) and target serum uric acid level
4. Define the "treat-to-target" and "medication-in-pocket" approaches in gout therapy

     

    Release Date: January 10, 2024

    Expiration Date: January 10, 2027

    Course Fee

    Pharmacists:  $7

    Pharmacy Technicians: $4

    There is no funding for this CE.

    ACPE UANs

    Pharmacist: 0009-0000-24-006-H01-P

    Pharmacy Technician:  0009-0000-24-006-H01-T

    Session Codes

    Pharmacist:  24YC06-JBX39

    Pharmacy Technician: 24YC06-XJB44

    Accreditation Hours

    2.0 hours of CE

    Accreditation Statements

    The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-24-006-H01-P/T will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

     

    Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

    The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

    Faculty

    Samar Nicolas, RPh, PharmD, CPPS
    Assistant Professor of Pharmacy Practice
    MCPHS University
    Worcester/Manchester, MA

    Faculty Disclosure

    In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

    Samar Nicolas has no relationships with ineligible companies.

     

    ABSTRACT

    Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis affecting about 9.2 million adults in the United States (US) and is the result of hyperurice-mia. Gout results from the chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues. Although gout can affect any joint, initial attacks usually in-volve the big toe joint. The most recent guideline for the management of gout recommends colchicine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, or glucocorticoids (oral, intraarticular, intramuscular) as first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares. Patient-specific factors guide the drug choice among the first-line agents. Interleukin-1 inhibitors or adrenocorticotropic hormone are alternative agents. Pharmacists are well-positioned to assess adherence to ULT and educate patients about the importance of urate lowering therapy. Pharmacy technicians can ensure that patients have refills on their medication-in-pocket prescription to facilitate early initiation.

    CONTENT

    Content

    INTRODUCTION

    “I’ve been shot, and I’ve been stabbed; nothing compares to gout pain.”

    This is how Jim, a 77 year old man, describes his pain as he hobbles into the pharmacy to refill his prescription for colchicine. Jim complains that colchicine is not controlling his gout. He is wearing slippers that show his red swollen joint around his right big toe that is warm and painful to touch. Jim says his physician explained that these symptoms are due to podagra, uric acid crystallization and settling in the joint between his foot and big toe.1 As Jim speaks, his breath projects a strong alcohol smell.

    Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis affecting about 9.2 million adults in the United States (US) and is the result of hyperuricemia.2,3 Men are at higher risk of developing gout than women.4 Other risk factors include post-menopause, genetics, end-stage renal disease, and major organ transplant.

    Uric acid overproduction, under-excretion, or both, elevate serum uric acid levels.5 Underexcretion of uric acid accounts for about 90% of gout cases.6 Human bodies produce uric acid as they break down dying tissues.4 Other sources of uric acid are foods high in purines, such as meats, seafood, and alcoholic beverages.7, 8 Ancient Greek history states that only rich people, who could afford these expensive foods, experience gout.9 Therefore, in the 5th century before Christmas (B.C.), people referred to gout as “the disease of kings.”10

    PATHOGENESIS

    Uric acid circulates in the blood as monosodium urate.11 In the kidneys, uric acid and urate undergo filtration and secretion into the filtrate followed by about 90% reabsorption into the blood.12 The American College of Rheumatology (ACR) guideline defines hyperuricemia as serum uric acid of 6.8 mg/dL or greater, the level above which urate becomes insoluble in the blood.4

    Gout results from the chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues.4,13 Insoluble monosodium urate crystals form stone-like deposits, known as tophi, in soft tissues, synovial tissues, or bones.14,15 Tophi trigger an inflammatory response, which presents as an acute gout attack.15,16 However, hyperuricemia does not always result in gout.4

    Although gout can affect any joint, initial attacks usually involve the big toe joint. Gout attacks are sudden and very painful.17 Acute gout attacks reach maximum pain level in 12 to 24 hours and may last 3 to 14 days if patients do not seek therapy.18 For this reason, all healthcare providers including those on pharmacy teams need to educate patients to seek medical care. Effective gout management reduces the risk of long-term complications like degenerative arthritis, urate nephropathy, infections, renal stones, joint fractures, and nerve or spinal cord impingement.19

     

    DIAGNOSIS OF GOUT

    Clinicians diagnose gout by collecting patient history, examining the patient, laboratory workup, and imaging.19 Uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid or tophi in tissues and/or bones confirm gout diagnosis regardless of the uric acid level.4

    TREATMENT OF GOUT

    The ACR guideline describes 3 treatment goals for patients with gout20:

    1. Terminating the acute gout attack
    2. Preventing future attacks
    3. Lowering the serum uric acid level

    Terminating the Acute Gout Attack

    The ACR published the most recent guideline for the management of gout in 2020. The ACR guideline recommends colchicine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or glucocorticoids (oral, intraarticular, intramuscular) as first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares.20  Patient-specific factors guide the drug choice among the first-line agents. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) inhibitors or adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) are alternative agents.20  If a first-line agent is ineffective, intolerable, or contraindicated, the ACR guideline recommends switching to another first-line agent before trying alternative agents. Topical ice is an adjunct to pharmacologic therapy. The severity of the gout flare guides the treatment duration.

     

    Colchicine

    Colchicine exerts its anti-inflammatory effects by binding to free tubulin dimers leading to microtubule polymerization inhibition, which affects cellular function.21, 22 Colchine has had an interesting history, as the SIDEBAR explains. Common side effects of colchicine are dose-dependent and include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.  Because of its mechanism of action, toxic levels of colchicine inhibit cellular division leading to failure of multiple organs .22 Colchicine doses of 0.8 mg/kg are lethal.23 Colchicine undergoes extensive tissue distribution and therefore, a lower dose can be toxic in patients with liver or renal failure. Some unchanged colchicine undergoes renal excretion through glomerular filtration and therefore, requires dosage adjustment for renal dysfunction.21, 24  Cytochrome P450 3A4 hepatic enzymes metabolize colchicine.21, 25 P-glycoprotein facilitates colchicine removal from the body.26 Co-administration of medications that inhibit CYP3A4 enzyme activity (example: grapefruit juice, azole antifungals, erythromycin, verapamil) increase the risk of colchicine toxicity.21, 25 In addition, co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors (example: digoxin) increases the risk of colchicine toxicity.26 Toxic symptoms are dose-dependent with increasing severity.27 Patients with toxicity may present with gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), hypotension, lactic acidosis, or acute kidney injury.22, 27 To decrease the risk of toxicity, colchicine’s prescribing information recommends avoiding its co-administration with P-glycoprotein inhibitors or CYP3A4 inhibitors in patients with renal or hepatic impairment.28 For other patients, the prescribing information recommends weighing risks versus benefits before co-administering colchicine with medications that pose a significant drug interaction.

     

    SIDEBAR: HISTORY OF COLCHICINE

    Colchicine is derived from a plant, Colchicum automnale.29 Other names for this plant include Autumn Crocus, meadow saffron, naked lady, and colchicum.30 Ebers Papyrus, an Egyptian medical document on herbs dating back to 1500 BC, indicates the use of C. automnale for joint pain.31 In 1833, a German pharmacist analyzed the substance and gave it the name colchicine.29 In France, in 1819, a chemist and a pharmacist isolated colchicine from the plant. In 1884, a French pharmacist produced and sold colchicine as 1 mg granules, which is still available in some countries.29,32 Colchicine accounts for about 0.1-0.6% of the plant content.33 Non-surprisingly, the C. automnale plant is poisonous. Humans should not ingest the plant. Symptoms of C. automnale toxicity resemble the side effects or toxicity of colchicine.34 These symptoms range from diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting to organ failure and death.

    Colchicine was available for decades in the US without a U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved labeling.35 Despite the Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act requiring the FDA to approve medications based on efficacy and safety data, colchicine was grandfathered in. Grandfathered drugs were medications available on market before the Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act of 1938 or its amendments in 1962.

    In 2006, the FDA initiated the unapproved drug initiative (UDI).36 The goal of the UDI program was to decrease the number of medications in the United States that do not carry FDA approval. Under the UDI program, the FDA allowed exclusive marketing to manufacturers who obtain FDA approval. Some pharmacists and pharmacy technicians may recall colchicine shortage as manufacturers of colchicine received warning letters from the FDA to stop selling colchicine.37 Mutual Pharmaceutical Company submitted a new drug application (NDA) for colchicine in November 2008.38 The UDI did not require manufacturers to conduct new clinical trials to obtain FDA approval. Mutual Pharmaceutical Company’s NDA included data from randomized controlled trials in 1974 and 2004 that proved the safety and efficacy of colchicine. As a result, in July 2009 the FDA approved colchicine for the treatment of gout and familial Mediterranean fever. Colchicine came back to the US market under brand name Colcrys.39

     

    Colchicine is light sensitive. Pharmacies should protect colchicine from light and dispense it in a light-resistant container.28 The FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide to patients when dispensing colchicine.40 Medication guides inform patients of potential serious adverse reactions and harm mitigation strategies. The Institute for Safe Medical Practices (ISMP) lists colchicine on the look-alike sound-alike (LASA) list due to potential for confusion with Cortrosyn, which is the brand name for cosyntropin.41  Of note, cosyntropin is a synthetic adrenocorticotropin hormone that has anti-inflammatory properties and is an alternative agent for gout attacks.42 In patients with a history of gout, the ACR guideline recommends a “medication-in-pocket” (discussed below) approach to allow early initiation of an anti-inflammatory drug at the onset of a gout flare.20 Since colchicine has anti-inflammatory properties, it is an option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach.

    The pharmacist takes a close look at Jim’s prescription refill history to figure out why colchicine is not working for Jim. The pharmacist explores several possibilities:

    • Is Jim adhering to his urate-lowering therapy (ULT)?
    • Is Jim refilling his colchicine as part of a gout flare prophylactic therapy upon initiating ULT?
    • Is Jim asking for colchicine as a “medication-in-pocket” approach?
    • Is Jim consuming excessive alcohol?
    • Is Jim eating foods rich in purines?
    • Is Jim taking any prescription or over-the-counter medications that may increase his uric acid level?

    NSAIDs

    The FDA has approved indomethacin, naproxen, and sulindac for the treatment of acute gout flare.43,44, 45 However, the guideline does not recommend a specific NSAID.20 Choice of agent depends on patient-specific factors including cardiovascular (CV) risk, gastrointestinal (GI) risk, cost, and availability without a prescription.46 Celecoxib is a selective cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor and therefore carries a low GI risk but is associated with a dose-dependent increase in CV risk.47, 48 Ibuprofen carries a low GI risk. Indomethacin, naproxen, diclofenac, and sulindac carry a moderate GI risk.49, 50 Among the nonselective NSAIDs, CV risk is highest with diclofenac and lowest with naproxen.51 Despite differences in CV risk among nonselective NSAIDs, the FDA mandates a boxed warning for all NSAIDs about increased  risk of thrombosis, myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke.52, 53 In addition, the FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide to patients when dispensing a prescription for NSAIDs.54 Any NSAID is an option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach.20

    Glucocorticoids

    The ACR guideline does not recommend a specific oral glucocorticoid.20 Parenteral glucocorticoids (intramuscular, intravenous, or intraarticular) are alternative options for patients who cannot tolerate oral therapy. Glucocorticoids (example: prednisone, methylprednisolone) are an attractive option for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) or those who cannot tolerate colchicine or NSAIDs.1,55 Short-term glucocorticoids do not cause significant side effects.56, 57 Glucocorticoids are an additional option for the “medication-in-pocket” approach, including injectable formulations for patients who cannot take oral medications.20 Methylprednisolone is available in different dosage forms such as oral, intramuscular (as acetate or succinate), intravenous (as acetate), and intraarticular (as acetate).58

    Anakinra

    Anakinra is an IL-1 receptor antagonist.59 It blocks the activity of the inflammatory mediatory IL-1. Anakinra has an off-label indication for gout attacks at a dose of 100 mg subcutaneously daily for 3 to 5 days.60, 61 The ACR guideline classifies anakinra as an alternative agent, particularly due to cost.20 The manufacturer recommends storing anakinra in the refrigerator and protecting from light until ready for administration.62 Patients can self-administer anakinra after demonstrating proper administration technique.59

    ACTH

    Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) binds to melanocortin receptors, which triggers the release of endogenous steroids, thus decreasing inflammation.63 The ACR guideline recommends ACTH as an alternative agent.20,63 ACTH is available as an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.64 The purified cortrophin formulation carries an indication for acute gouty arthritis.65 The manufacturer does not provide a dosing recommendation specific for gout and recommends caution in patients with renal insufficiency.64-66 The manufacturer recommends storing ACTH in the refrigerator until ready for administration and warming to room temperature before injecting.67

    Table 1 summarizes the first-line agents for the treatment of gout flares.

    Table 1. First-line Agents for the Treatment of Gout Flares20, 24, 44-46, 56, 68-71 
    Therapy Dose Comment Monitoring parameters
    Colchicine ·        Day 1 of therapy: Use treatment dose of 1.2 mg by mouth (PO) as soon as possible then 0.6 mg after one hour. Maximum dose 1.8 mg/day.

    ·        Day 2 and until flare resolves, use prophylactic dose of 0.6 mg PO once or twice daily.

    If creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 30 mL/min:

     

    ·        Use 1.2 mg PO as soon as possible then single dose of 0.6 mg after one hour. Avoid repeating therapy within a 14-day period.

    ·        Alternatively, use 0.3 mg PO as soon as possible as a single dose. Avoid repeating therapy within 3-7 days.

     

    If patient is on dialysis:

    ·        Use 0.6 mg PO as a single dose. Avoid repeating therapy within a 14-day period.

    Monitor patients with CrCl ≤ 80 mL/min closely for adverse effects.
    NSAIDs

     

    ·        Indomethacin: 50 mg three time daily until pain is tolerable (usually, 3 to 5 days).

    ·        Sulindac: 200 mg twice daily until attack resolves (usually, 7 days).

    ·        Naproxen: 750 mg x 1 dose then 250 mg every 8 hours until attack resolves (usually, 2 days).

    ·        The manufacturer does not provide recommendations for renal dosage adjustment.

    ·        The Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines recommends avoiding use of NSAIDs If CrCl < 30 mL/minute.

    Monitor GI, renal, and CV toxicity in elderly patients.

    Prescribe lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible.

    Glucocorticoids ·        Follow specific glucocorticoid dosing recommendation. Safest option in patients with CKD. Monitor serum glucose, blood pressure, electrolytes, mood changes, and recurrent infections.

     

    Interestingly, a panel consisting of eight patients with gout participated in the development of the 2020 ACR guidelines.20 The patient panel provided valuable input from a patient perspective regarding therapy preference for patients with an established gout diagnosis. The patient panel strongly favored a medication-in-pocket approach for the treatment of acute gout flares. With this approach, the clinician prescribes an anti-inflammatory medication that the patient keeps on hand for use as needed.72 Moreover, the patient panel favored an injectable dosage form for the medication-in-pocket to control the pain faster in patients who can take nothing by mouth. The medication-in-pocket approach ensures that patients have quick access to an anti-inflammatory medication at the first onset of gout attack symptoms.20

    Jim’s colchicine regimen is consistent with the “medication-in-pocket” to treat an acute gout flare.

    MANAGEMENT OF CHRONIC GOUT

    The goal of chronic gout management is to lower the serum uric acid level with ULT, if indicated, and to prevent future attacks.20 ULT includes medications that decrease uric acid production or promote uric acid excretion.73 The ACR 2020 guideline recommends a “treat-to-target” approach that guides ULT dose titration and maintenance to achieve serum uric acid of less than 6 mg/dL.20 Lower ULT initial dosing with subsequent titration decreases the risk of gout flare associated with ULT initiation.20

    Pause and Ponder: What patient factors determine eligibility for urate lowering therapy (ULT)?

    Table 2 provides recommendation on initiation of ULT based on patient-specific factors.

    Table 2 - Indication for ULT 20
    Patient factors 2020 ACR guideline recommendation Comment
    ≥1 subcutaneous tophi ACR guideline strongly recommends initiating ULT Moderate or high certainty of evidence that benefits of ULT consistently outweigh the risks
    Gout-attributable radiographic damage
    ≥2 gout flares per year
    > 1 flare but < 2 flares per year ACR guideline conditionally recommends initiating ULT Low certainty of evidence or no data available and/or benefits and risks closely balanced
    First flare and any of the following:

    ·        Chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage ≥ 3

    ·        Serum uric acid > 9 mg/dL

    ·        Urolithiasis

    First gout flare ACR guideline conditionally recommends against initiating ULT
    Asymptomatic hyperuricemia*

    *Serum uric acid > 6.8 mg/dL

    Pause and Ponder: Which urate-lowering agent is first-line therapy?

    Table 3 summarizes urate-lowering medications.

    Table 3 - Urate Lowering Medications 20,74-76
    Pharmacological class Mechanism of action Medication Comments
    Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors Inhibition of xanthine oxidase resulting in decreased conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol

    Febuxostat

    ·        Allopurinol is first-line agent.

    ·        Start allopurinol at ≤ 100 mg/day in normal kidney function and ≤ 50 mg/day in CKD stage ≥ 3 then titrate.

    ·        Start febuxostat at ≤ 40 mg/day then titrate.

     

    Uricosuric Agents Inhibition of urate reabsorption in the renal tubules resulting in increased excretion of uric acid in the urine. Probenecid ·        ACR guideline strongly recommends XOI over probenecid for patients with CKD stage ≥ 3

    ·        Start probenecid at 500 mg PO once or twice daily then titrate.

    Urate Oxidase Enzyme Catalysis of uric acid oxidation to water-soluble allantoin resulting in increased excretion of the allantoin in the urine. Pegloticase ·        ACR guideline strongly recommends against use of pegloticase as a first-line agent

    ·        Administer pegloticase 8 mg IV infusion every 2 weeks along with methotrexate 15 mg PO once a week with a folic acid supplement.

    ·        Start weekly methotrexate and folic acid supplementation 4 weeks before initiating pegloticase and continue while on pegloticase.

     

    Clinicians usually determine eligibility for ULT when patients present with an acute gout attack.20 Some experts favor initiating ULT two to four weeks after the resolution of a gout attack.77 One reason for this practice stems from the fear of gout attack worsening with ULT initiation. The other reason is the perception that during a gout attack, patients are in too much pain to process information regarding chronic therapy. However, the ACR guideline favors initiating ULT during a gout flare as patients may not return for a follow-up visit to initiate ULT after the flare resolves.20

    XANTHINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS (XOIs)

    XOI include allopurinol and febuxostat.20 XOI are first-line among urate-lowering agents, and the guideline recommends allopurinol as a first-line agent for all patients with gout, unless contraindicated.

    Allopurinol

    Allopurinol is associated with an increased risk of allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome (AHS), a rare but severe, and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction.78 AHS presents as fever, severe rash, eosinophilia, hepatitis, and acute kidney injury.79 AHS is more common in patients who are African Americans or of Southeast Asian descent.78 Pharmacogenetic studies show that these patients have a gene on their human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system that increases the risk of developing AHS. This gene is the HLA-B*5801 allele.80 The interaction of allopurinol with the HLA-B*5801 allele triggers an immune reaction characterized by T-cell activation.81 Not all patients who are positive for HLA-B*5801 allele develop AHS.82 Risk of AHS increases in HLA-B*5801 allele positive patients who have elevated allopurinol serum level due to dose increase or renal dysfunction.81

    In the US, testing for HLA-B*5801 in Caucasians or Hispanics is not cost-effective.83 The 2020 ACR guideline recommends genetic testing for the HLA-B*5801 allele before starting allopurinol for patients who are African Americans or of Southeast Asian descent.20 The guideline recommends starting allopurinol at a low dose of 100 mg daily for normal renal function and a lower dose in case of renal dysfunction.

    The prescribing information recommends protecting allopurinol from light.74 ISMP lists the brand name of allopurinol, Zyloprim, on the look-alike sound-alike (LASA) list due to potential for confusion with zolpidem.42

     

    SIDEBAR: DID YOU KNOW THAT THE DISCOVERY OF ALLOPURINOL LED TO A NOBEL PRIZE AWARD?

    Gertrude Elion, who earned a master’s degree in chemistry from New York University in 1941, worked as a lab assistant for George Hitchings. Up until the 1950s, scientists produced medications by screening and modifying naturally existing substances.84 However, Elion and Hitchings’ contribution to medicine was groundbreaking to drug development as they introduced drug therapy that was targeted to specific cells. In 1963, Elion and Hutchings discovered that allopurinol blocked the synthesis of uric acid. In 1988, the Nobel Prize Committee awarded Gertrude Elion and George Hitchings the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for the discovery of allopurinol and other medications.85

     

    Febuxostat

    Febuxostat carries a boxed warning for increased risk of CV death in patients with cardiovascular disease (CVD), when compared to allopurinol.86 Therefore, the 2020 ACR guideline recommends selecting another ULT medication in patients with established CVD.20 For patients who experience a CV event while on febuxostat, the ACR guideline recommends switching to a different ULT medication.20 The FDA requires pharmacies to distribute a medication guide when dispensing febuxostat to patients.86

    URICOSURICS

    Probenecid

    Probenecid is the only uricosuric drug approved in the United States.87,88 Probenecid may cause nephrolithiasis (uric acid stones in the kidneys).89 These uric acid stones form as the uric acid crystallizes in an acidic urine. The prescribing information for probenecid recommends adequate hydration and adjunct urine alkalinizing agents (example: sodium bicarbonate or potassium citrate).89 However, the 2020 ACR guideline determined insufficient evidence to recommend the routine use of alkalinizing agents with probenecid.20 Probenecid is usually an add-on therapy in patients with partial response to an XOI. Remember to counsel patients on adequate hydration to decrease the risk of nephrolithiasis.

    ISMP lists probenecid on the LASA list due to potential for confusion with Procanbid, the brand name for procainamide, an antiarrhythmic drug.42 Probenecid also has some interesting abuse potential (see the SIDEBAR).

     

    SIDEBAR: CAN PROBENECID HELP ATHLETES IMPROVE PERFORMANCE?

    Random drug testing in sports led athletes to misuse probenecid to mask the unlawful use of performance-enhancing drugs such as anabolic-androgenic steroids.90 Probenecid inhibits the tubular secretion of anabolic-androgenic steroids in the kidneys, thus inhibiting their excretion in the urine. As a result, urine drug testing will not detect the use of these illegal substance, and athletes can pass the random drug testing successfully. In 1986, a doping control officer traveled from Norway and collected 6 urine samples from 6 Norwegian athletes who were training in the US. The athletes showed up at least 1.5 hours late probably to allow time for onset of action of the masking agent. Five of the samples showed an unusually dilute urine with low specific gravity. In addition, the concentration of endogenous androgenic-anabolic steroids in the urine samples was at least 100 times below normal.90 These unusual findings along with suspicious behaviors projected by the athletes during the testing process, triggered further analysis of the urine samples. The lab identified a “new masking agent”, probenecid and its metabolite, in these urine samples. Today, probenecid appears on the World Anti Doping Agency (WADA) prohibited list.91 The WADA list serves as a standard for identifying substances that athletes may illegally use to enhance performance in sports.91

     

    URATE OXIDASE ENZYME

    Pegloticase

    The FDA approved pegloticase for adults with chronic gout refractory to conventional therapy.92 The 2020 ACR guidelines recommends switching to pegloticase when XOIs, probenecid, and other interventions fail.20 In clinical trials, administering methotrexate with pegloticase increased the chance of tophi resolution by 22.8% compared to pegloticase monotherapy.76 Therefore, pegloticase’s prescribing information recommends co-administration with methotrexate, unless contraindicated. Folic acid supplementation decreases the risk of hepatotoxicity and GI side effects associated with methotrexate.93 Pharmacists should counsel patients about the importance of adherence to folic acid while on methotrexate.

    The manufacturer recommends storing pegloticase in the refrigerator and protecting it from light before dispensing.76 After diluting pegloticase for IV infusion in an institutional setting, healthcare workers should protect the solution from light.

     

    Pause and Ponder: When does the guideline recommend switching urate-lowering agents?

    The 2020 ACR guideline recommends using the maximum tolerated or recommended dose of a ULT.20  Figure 1 outlines the management of patients taking a XOI requiring adjustment to therapy:

    Figure 1. Switching ULT

    Jim’s medication profile reveals that he has been taking allopurinol for little over a year now.

     

    DURATION OF THERAPY

    For patients tolerating ULT, the 2020 ACR guideline recommends indefinite therapy to avoid worsening gout and its associated complications.20 Patients may not adhere to therapy due to cost, pill burden, and low health literacy.94 Remember to counsel patient on adherence and goals of ULT as patients may think they do not need to take ULT if they have no symptoms.

    PREVENTING GOUT FLARE UPON INITIATION OF ULT

    Initiation of ULT may trigger a gout flare due to activation of crystals precipitated in joints.95, 96 The risk of gout flare increases with higher reduction in serum uric acid levels. Studies suggest that gout attacks associated with ULT may decrease patient adherence to ULT.97 Prophylaxis with anti-inflammatory medications decreases the risk of gout flare upon ULT initiation. The 2020 ACR guideline recommends prophylactic therapy upon initiating ULT and for at least three to six months. Patients who continue to experience flares may require a longer duration of prophylactic therapy.20 Experts recommend colchicine or NSAIDs as first-line prophylactic therapy.98 Table 4 summarizes prophylactic medications and recommendations.

    Table 4 – Medications that Prevent Gout Attack with ULT Initiation
    Medication Recommendation
    Low-dose colchicine Use 0.6 mg once or twice daily
    Low-dose NSAIDs Use naproxen 250 mg or equivalent dose of different NSAID

    Add proton pump inhibitor if indicated

    Low-dose prednisone or prednisolone Use less than or equal to 10 mg per day

    Reserve corticosteroids for patients who cannot tolerate colchicine and NSAIDs

     

    NONPHARMACOLOGIC THERAPY AND LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS

    Serum uric acid levels decrease only slightly with dietary modifications.20 In addition, certain diets may trigger a gout flare. To decrease the risk of flares, the 2020 ACR guideline conditionally recommends the following approaches:

    • Limiting alcohol intake
    • Limiting purine intake. Some examples of high-purine foods include seafood like sardines, tuna, haddock, and meats like bacon, turkey, veal, and liver.99, 100
    • Limiting high-fructose corn syrup intake
    • Following a weight loss program if the patient is overweight or obese

    Jim projected an alcohol breath when speaking. Jim may be consuming excessive amounts of alcohol. He may be consuming a non-gout friendly diet.

    DIGITAL HEALTH AND GOUT MANAGEMENT

    Digitalization of health care is rapidly evolving and involves the use of technology to manage health conditions, ameliorate modifiable risk factors, and promote health and wellness.101 Wearable devices such as fitness trackers, patient portals, and mobile apps are only few examples of digital health tools. Investigators suggest that gout mobile health apps may improve patient perception of the disease, clarify beliefs, and benefit self-care.102 However, further studies are essential to prove these mobile applications beneficial. As of this writing, several gout-related mobile health applications are available. Target users for these applications can be clinicians or patients. For example, a physician developed a mobile application called Gout Diagnosis. The application includes an evidence-based algorithm to facilitate an accurate diagnosis of gout.103 On the other hand, patients can download from a variety of existing gout mobile applications at little or no cost.104 The National Kidney Foundation developed a mobile application called Gout Central. This application comes from a reputable foundation and provides patient education on symptoms and risk factors for gout, nonpharmacologic recommendations such as diet and lifestyle modifications, and medications to treat gout and prevent flares.104 The FDA does not regulate mobile medical applications.105 Therefore, the choice of mobile health application depends on patient preference such as cost, ease of use, compatibility, security, and type of content.106

    A mobile application may help Jim learn about foods and drinks that may trigger gout attacks.

    PHARMACY TEAM IMPACT ON GOUT MANAGEMENT

    Pharmacists are the most accessible healthcare professionals. Patients with a gout flare may seek pharmacists for recommendations on pain management. When patients without a previous gout diagnosis present to the pharmacy, pharmacists may recognize signs of gout and refer them to their primary care clinician. Pharmacists can educate patients who have a diagnosis for gout about the phases and goals of gout therapy, including the likelihood that ULT will be a lifelong therapy.

    Pharmacists are well-positioned to assess adherence to ULT and educate patients about the importance of ULT.107 Pharmacists can assess patient understanding of various therapies and remind them that anti-inflammatory medications treat acute gout attack or prevent gout flare upon initiating ULT. Pharmacists should empower patients to request from their clinician a medication-in-pocket prescription. Pharmacists should counsel patients on the proper use of medication-in-pocket by reminding them to take the anti-inflammatory medication as soon as possible, ideally within 12 hours of onset of a gout attack.108 In addition, patients may need a reminder about continuing their ULT while taking the medication-in-pocket for acute flares.109

    Pharmacy technicians can ensure that patients have refills on their medication-in-pocket prescription to facilitate early initiation. Updating the patient’s records in the pharmacy software with the gout diagnosis can facilitate this continuity of care. The pharmacy team should encourage patients to fill all their prescriptions at the same pharmacy. Through access to all the patient’s medications, pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can play a crucial role in optimizing gout management by identifying medications that increase serum uric acid levels.110

    In addition, the pharmacy team can identify potential drug-drug interactions. This is particularly important with colchicine as it is a substrate for CYP3A4 and P-gp and has a narrow therapeutic window.111 In addition, some medications are known to increase serum uric acid levels.20 Advising patients to check with the pharmacy team before purchasing an over-the-counter (OTC) medication can decrease the use of inappropriate medications. When completing transactions at the register, pharmacy technicians are well positioned to identify OTC products that can worsen gout, such as vitamin A or niacin.112 On the other hand, frequent purchase of OTC anti-inflammatory medications like naproxen or ibuprofen may imply uncontrolled gout.

    Patients can find educational videos on YouTube to learn more about gout therapy and appropriate diet.113 Additional resources are available to patients on goutalliance.org. These include videos, podcasts, guides, and awareness events.114 Some patients may like to learn about their condition using gout-related mobile applications.

    Pharmacy interns may benefit in hearing from patients about their experience with gout, especially the debilitating pain. This may help future pharmacists empathize and develop better relationships with patients, which can improve patient outcomes.115

    The entire pharmacy team could engage in alleviating misconceptions about gout. Some patients with gout have reported stigma regarding their condition from friends, family members, and healthcare workers.116 Some patients with gout have even reported an internalized stigma. Stigmatization may be due to the misbelief that gout is benign, preventable, or self-inflicted.

    Did you know that May 22 is National Gout Awareness Day?

    Jim states that he feels embarrassed about wearing slippers that expose his swollen toe. The pain is so intense that he is unable to tolerate a close-toe shoe.

    Table 5 summarizes some medications that may increase serum uric acid level.

    Table 5 – Managing Medications that Increase Serum Uric Acid Level and Risk of Gout Attack20,110,117-119
    Medication Mechanism Recommendation
    Loop and thiazide diuretics

    Use: hypertension, edema

     

    Decrease urate excretion The guideline recommends switching to a different antihypertensive and suggests losartan when feasible.

     

    Aspirin (low-dose, 81 mg)

    Use: prevention of CVD

    Increases uric acid renal reabsorption and decreases secretion The guideline conditionally recommends against discontinuing low-dose aspirin with appropriate indication.
    Niacin

    Use: dietary supplement

    Inhibits the enzyme uricase, thus inhibiting the oxidation of uric acid, or decreases uric acid excretion The guideline does not provide a specific recommendation for niacin-induced hyperuricemia. Experts recommend adequate hydration.

     

    After looking into Jim’s medication profile and inquiring about his OTC products, the pharmacist does not identify any medication that may be increasing his serum uric acid level.

    CONCLUSION

    Gout is the most common type of inflammatory arthritis. Untreated gout can lead to complications such as degenerative arthritis, urate nephropathy, infections, renal stones, joint fractures, and nerve or spinal cord impingement. ULT is indicated for chronic gout management. Allopurinol is the first-line urate-lowering agent. Colchicine, NSAIDs, and corticosteroids are indicated for acute flares, and, in lower doses, for gout flare prophylaxis upon initiating ULT. Diet and lifestyle modifications complement the pharmacologic therapy. The pharmacy team plays a crucial role in identifying drug-induced hyperuricemia and educating patients about the importance of adherence to ULT. Gout flares are painful and debilitating. Pharmacists can recommend initiation of anti-inflammatory therapy for acute gout flares. Pharmacy technicians can ensure patients have refills for their anti-inflammatory medication to facilitate the medication-in-pocket approach.

    Jim’s uncontrolled gout may be due to various reasons that pharmacy team can investigate. Inquiring about Jim’s drinking habits and educating him about the negative impact of alcohol on gout management is a necessary first step in his therapy. If an adequate trial of dietary changes does not control his symptoms, then switching to a different XOI or adding probenecid, depending on what he has tried so far, would be appropriate.

     

     

    Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

    Treating Gout without Doubt

    Pharmacist POST-TEST
    1. Which of the following patient factors accounts for about 90% of gout cases?
    a) Overproduction of uric acid
    b) Underexcretion of uric acid
    c) Liver dysfunction

    2. Why does the American College of Rheumatology (ACR) define hyperuricemia as serum uric acid level greater than or equal to 6.8 mg/dL?

    a) All patients with serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL experience gout
    b) Serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL is insoluble in the blood
    c) Patients with serum uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL experience urate kidney stones

    3. Which of the following is involved in the pathogenesis of gout?

    a) Chronic deposition and crystallization of urate in the joints and tissues
    b) Chronic deposition and crystallization of calcium in the joints and tissues
    c) Increased glomerular filtration rate of uric acid due to caffeine intake

    4. Which of the following is a complication of untreated gout?

    a) Renal stones
    b) Congestive heart failure
    c) Visual changes

    5. Which of the following findings confirms a diagnosis of gout?
    a) Elevated uric acid
    b) Tophi in tissues and/or bones
    c) Burning upon urination

    6. According to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR) guideline, which one of the following is a goal of chronic gout therapy?
    a) Limiting gout attacks to a maximum of 2 attacks per year
    b) Preventing future gout attacks
    c) Decreasing the renal excretion of uric acid

    7. A 55 year-old-man presents with his first acute gout attack. In the absence of contraindications, which of the following medications is an appropriate first-line therapy for this patient?

    a) Colchicine
    b) Intramuscular methylprednisolone
    c) Anakinra

    8. Which one of the following statements is accurate about colchicine drug interactions?
    a) Co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors increases the risk of colchicine toxicity
    b) Co-administration of colchicine with P-glycoprotein inhibitors decreases colchicine efficacy
    c) Co-administration of colchicine with CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors decreases colchicine efficacy

    9. In the absence of contraindications, which one of the following medications is the first-line urate-lowering therapy?
    a) Allopurinol
    b) Febuxostat
    c) Probenecid

    10. A patient presents to fill his first prescription for allopurinol. Which one of the following is an appropriate counseling point for this patient?
    a) Start taking allopurinol today and continue indefinitely
    b) Discontinue allopurinol once you achieve uric acid level of < 6 mg/dL c) Keep allopurinol on hand and start taking at the first sign of a gout attack 11. A patient experiences an acute attack of gout. You review his medication profile. Which of the following medications may be aggravating his gout? a. atorvastatin b. niacin c. losartan 12. Which of the following is an appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention for gout? a. Increasing intake of purine-containing foods b. Switching from beer or wine to hard alcohol c. Applying ice to sore joints if tolerable

    Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

    Treating Gout without Doubt
    Technician POST TEST question

    1. According to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR), what is the definition of hyperuricemia?

    a) uric acid level > 6 mg/dL
    b) uric acid level ≥ 6.5 mg/dL
    c) uric acid level ≥ 6.8 mg/dL

    2. Which of the following statements is accurate about gout attacks?

    a) Gout attacks happen only in the big toe joint
    b) Gout attacks happen only in the morning
    c) Gout attacks happen in any joint

    3. When should patients with a first gout attack seek medical care?
    a) Only if the pain is unbearable
    b) Only if the pain lasts more than 10 days
    c) Anytime patients experience their first gout attack

    4. A patient calls the pharmacy saying that he is starting to experience a gout attack. The patient asks the pharmacy technician to refill his medication-in-pocket prescription. Which one of the following medications can the patient use for medication-in pocket approach?
    a) Allopurinol
    b) Naproxen
    c) Probenecid

    5. A pharmacy technician is refilling a patient’s medication-in pocket prescription for colchicine. The technician notices that after this fill, the prescription has no more refills. The patient’s next appointment is in eight months. What is the best next step?

    a) Send a refill request to the clinician’s office
    b) Inactivate the prescription
    c) Tell the patient to request a prescription during their next visit

    6. What is the goal of therapy for a patient taking allopurinol as part of a gout regimen?
    a) Achieving a serum uric acid level < 6 mg/dL b) Terminating an acute gout attack c) Decreasing the intensity of pain during an acute gout attack 7. Which one of the following nonpharmacologic therapy is beneficial for patients with gout? a) Decreasing the intake of foods high in purines b) Increasing alcoholic beverages consumption c) Decreasing the intake of caffeine 8. A patient visits the pharmacy counter frequently to check-out some OTC products. In the past three months, the patient has purchased the same product four times. Which one of the following OTC products may imply uncontrolled gout? a) Vitamin C b) Ibuprofen c) Dextromethorphan 9. A medication guide should accompany which of the following medications? a) NSAIDs b) Allopurinol c) Probenecid 10. Which one of the following medications Is a urate oxidase enzyme? a) Pegloticase b) Colchicine c) Probenecid 11. A patient experiences an acute attack of gout. You review his medication profile. Which of the following medications may be aggravating his gout? a. atorvastatin b. niacin c. losartan 12. Which of the following is an appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention for gout? a. Increasing intake of purine-containing foods b. Switching from beer or wine to hard alcohol c. Applying ice to sore joints if tolerable

    References

    Full List of References

    References

       

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      26. Colchicine: Beware of toxicity and interactions. medsafe.govt.nz. https://medsafe.govt.nz/profs/puarticles/colchicine.htm
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      Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

      Learning Objectives

       

      After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to

      • Recognize key elements of a drug information request
      • Describe a typical process for researching drug information requests
      • Prioritize information in the final written response
      • Identify the best language to use based on the inquiring party’s needs

      After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to

      • Identify questions that are within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice
      • Recognize tools and resources to use when attempting to answer a drug information question
      • Complete the steps to completing a drug information request that is within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice

        Cartoon person standing in front of gigantic question mark

         

        Release Date: September 15, 2023

        Expiration Date: September 15, 2026

        Course Fee

        Pharmacists: $7

        Pharmacy Technicians: $4

        There is no funding for this CE.

        ACPE UANs

        Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-035-H01-P

        Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-035-H01-T

        Session Codes

        Pharmacist:  23YC35-PXK63

        Pharmacy Technician:  23YC35-KPX44

        Accreditation Hours

        2.0 hours of CE

        Accreditation Statements

        The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-035-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

         

        Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

        The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

        Faculty

        Sumoda Achar
        PharmD and MBA Candidate 2024
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Shelly Evia
        PharmD Candidate 2024
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Stefanie Nigro, PharmD, BCACP, CDCES
        Associate Clinical Professor
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Jeannette Y. Wick, RPh, MBA
        Director Office of Pharmacy Professional Development
        UConn School of Pharmacy
        Storrs, CT

        Faculty Disclosure

        In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

        Samoda Achar, Shelly Evia, Jeannette Wick, and Stefanie Nigro do not have any relationships with ineligible companies.

         

        ABSTRACT

        Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians often field questions from patients or other healthcare providers. Pharmacists may be more accustomed to answering questions than pharmacy technicians are, but that doesn't mean that pharmacy technicians can't answer appropriate questions. Pharmacy staff members should know their scope of practice and be willing and able to answer questions that fall within the scope of practice. Using an organized approach can help pharmacy staff members answer questions efficiently and effectively. Documentation is also an important aspect of drug information questions, as is saving the information in case it is needed later.

        CONTENT

        Content

        INTRODUCTION

        A drug information (DI) request is a medication-related question posed by any interested party, but usually a healthcare professional or a patient. As the healthcare team’s drug expert, one of a pharmacist’s main duties is answering these queries effectively and providing an answer that is appropriate for the inquirer’s level of expertise. Pharmacy technicians and pharmacy interns also answer some drug information questions (see TECH TALK SIDEBAR). This continuing education activity outlines various drug information questions that pharmacy staff field most often and describes a methodical approach to ensure pharmacy staff answer requests effectively and accurately.1

         

         

        TECH TALK SIDEBAR: Questions within the Pharmacy Technician’s Scope of Practice?2,3

        Pharmacy technicians and interns can answer general questions that are within the bounds of their education and training. That vague statement requires some interpretation. If the answer is common knowledge (not specialized pharmaceutical knowledge), technicians can answer. In addition to working with supervising pharmacists to interpret the statement, pharmacy technicians and interns need to know state law governing their scope of practice.

         

        Pharmacy technicians and interns are often the first point of contact for customers who want over-the-counter (OTC) medications. Technicians can answer general questions about ingredients if the information is on the label. Some examples include

        • Does this product contain acetaminophen? What brands of acetaminophen do you stock?
        • Where are the medicines for pain?
        • Is there a less expensive generic or store brand for this product?
        • Do you have any [insert name of prescription medication] in stock?
        • Do I need to refrigerate this liquid antibiotic?
        • What does “analgesic” mean?
        • What does “sustained release” mean?
        • Is this prescription for a controlled substance?
        • Why can’t I refill this prescription today?

         

        Pharmacy technicians and interns can also convey information from the pharmacist but should be careful. A PRO TIP is that if technicians or interns don’t understand what the pharmacist says, they should ask the pharmacist to make the information clearer. And if the answer is long or complicated, they should write it down and recite it back to the pharmacist before transmitting it to the person with the question.

         

        Helping customers find specific medications or classes of medications is within the technician’s scope of practice. When patients have questions about their medications, doses, and how best to administer them, technicians may hesitate to answer. If the information is clearly printed on the prescription label, on the auxiliary labels, or contained in an FDA-approved Medication Guide, the technician or intern can answer.

         

        Technicians and interns need to work with the supervising pharmacist to determine if they can answer other questions. When in doubt, technicians should consult with or refer the question to the pharmacist. Technicians and interns must refer questions about potential adverse effects, administration problems, possible alternative medications, and clinical issues to the pharmacist. Before referring the patient, they can collect some baseline information. They cannot counsel or give advice, even if the medication is OTC.

         

         

        Depending on the practice setting, the nature and complexity of DI requests can vary. Being able to answer DI requests is every pharmacy employee’s responsibility (although the type of information varies and at a certain level, the response is the pharmacist’s primary responsibility). Having an organized approach to answering DI questions is highly relevant when working within the community and hospital settings.4

         

        Pharmacy employees who work primarily within a community setting can expect to receive DI requests from patients and from practitioners. These requests can range from asking about drug storage requirements (which a technician can usually answer) to consequences of taking an OTC medication in combination with prescription drugs, to requests regarding the safety of a medication for an uncommon or off-label indication. Pharmacists who work in hospital settings can expect to receive most DI requests from colleagues within the care team. For instance, a DI request could come from a prescriber asking about medication absorption and distribution in a patient with comorbid conditions, or from a nurse asking if a medication can be crushed. Pharmacists who work in industry settings, however, may receive medication information requests that vary greatly from those received in clinical settings.4

         

        All DI requests require referencing reliable materials and sometimes, various internal policy or research documents. While DI requests are diverse, they all require similar analysis of sources and communication to provide a quality answer. Because pharmacy employees at different levels of responsibility can answer DI questions, this continuing education activity will call the person asking the question the requestor and the person finding the answer the respondent.

         

        SCREENING THE REQUEST

        One of the most confounding situations in the pharmacy occurs when someone asks a question, the respondent spends times finding an answer, and then the requestor says, “Oh, that’s not what I needed to know!” Sometimes, requestors don’t really know how to ask questions effectively. This is a problem that all customer service fields encounter, and answering DI requests is both a clinical function and a customer service. It’s why when you call many customer service lines, the customer service representative will say, “OK, what I hear you asking is….” and then rephrase the question.5

         

        To answer DI requests effectively, the respondent must thoroughly understand the question.5 Very specific questions tend to be easily answerable, while others are more general or vague. In both instances, respondents need to ensure they understand the question. They can rephrase the question in their own words and say, “Let me make sure I understand. Do you mean….”, or they can use open ended questions (questions that cannot be answered with a yes or a no) to ask the requestor to provide more information. This avoids answering a question that wasn’t asked or intended or was poorly formulated.

         

        Often, requestors don’t know how to ask a question that will provide the information they need. The hallmark of this type of question is that the requestor may use jargon inappropriately or words that don’t seem to make sense. Respondents can say, “Excuse me, I’m not sure I understood entirely. Can you rephrase the question?” or “Pardon me, but I didn’t quite understand the question. Can you tell me a little more about what you want to know and why?” That final word—WHY—provides the impetus for the requestor to provide necessary information.

         

        Once the question has coalesced and both parties agree on its intent, the respondent can solicit important details from the requester and, if applicable, the patient, before delving into a search. At this point, the respondent needs to spend time actively listening to the requestor’s explanations.

         

        This can be difficult if the requestor is long-winded, difficult to understand, or cognitively impaired, so it requires patience. Here’s a PRO TIP for listening: it’s called the traffic-light-rule.6 During the first 30 seconds (which seems like a short period of time, but is actually relatively long), the requestor’s “talking light” is green. Pharmacy staff should let them talk. In the next 30 seconds, the requestor’s light is yellow: pharmacy staff probably have enough information and should make note of comments or questions. After one minute, the requestor’s talking light is red: pharmacy staff should be comfortable stopping the requestor politely or asking questions.6

         

        Before continuing, review the following DI requests. How would you proceed? Later  in this activity, we’ll provide a description of the ideal process.

         

        Pharmacist DI request #1: TN, 35-year-old obese female (BMI = 32.4 kg/m2) with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes will start on an atypical antipsychotic today to manage schizophrenia. TN’s psychiatric nurse practitioner (NP) calls with questions about drug selection. The NP mentions that TN’s drug formulary lists aripiprazole, haloperidol, olanzapine, and quetiapine as tier 1 preferred options. The NP wants your opinion as to which atypical antipsychotic may be most appropriate to prescribe for TN. What do you suggest?

         

        Pharmacist DI Request #2: You work at a tertiary care internal medicine center. MS, an 80-year-old female, was recently admitted to the medicine floor. She had fallen when she was trying to use the restroom at her nursing home and presented to the emergency department with a wrist fracture. She suffers from insomnia and other comorbidities. Her medication list includes lisinopril 20 mg daily, metformin 500 mg twice daily, rosuvastatin 20 mg daily, and lorazepam 0.5 mg PRN anxiety and sleep. The nursing home staff states that MS received more doses of lorazepam in recent weeks. The medical resident believes that the increased lorazepam use could have contributed to the fall and wants to know if trazodone would be a safer replacement for MS’s insomnia. How do you respond?

         

        Technician DI Request #1: I left this medication in my bathroom for four days, and then I noticed it says, “Keep in the refrigerator.” My house is cold, and the bottle didn’t feel warm. Is this still good, and if it isn’t, what should I do?

         

        Technician DI Request #2: My child is having trouble swallowing her medication and refuses to take it. Are there any easier ways I could give it to her?

         

        Identify Critical Information

        Although it may seem counterintuitive, beginning with the end in mind is critical and the person gathering information must determine the requestor’s preferred response format. This means asking how the requester wants to receive the response. The respondent will need to adjust the answer according to the requestor’s preferences. Some requestors will want to wait for an answer. If the information is to be communicated through email or an electronic medical record, respondents may use their organization’s required format (a SOAP note or similar formats; see Table 1), but formats used in medical records may not be the most efficient approach in person or over phone. In person or on the phone, respondents need to use a more conversational tone. Furthermore, the respondent will need to determine the requestor’s level of medical competency and tailor the response accordingly. If the requestor is a patient, it is more appropriate to use simple language than if a provider asked the same or  similar question. Respondents will have to evaluate these factors critically to provide a sound and comprehensive answer.7

        Table 1. Formats for Communicating Critical Information8,9

        Communication Format Parts of the format Uses
        SOAP S: Subjective information

        This section includes descriptive information about a patient’s symptoms, feelings and experiences.

         

        O: Objective information

        This section includes pertinent lab values, imaging, or diagnostic tests.

         

        A: Assessment

        In this section the subjective and objective information are taken into consideration to make an assessment regarding the patient's disease states.

         

        P: Plan/ Follow Up

        This section outlines a detailed plan regarding the patient's treatment and the follow-up and monitoring required.

        This format is a widely-used written format in healthcare. It helps organize pertinent patient information and efficiently present an answer. This format is especially useful when the respondent must consider multiple pieces of information.
        ISBAR I: Introduction

        Introduction of the pharmacist and the respondent, and the pharmacist’s role and location.

         

        S: Situation

        What are the current events regarding the patient?

         

        B: Background

        What has happened in the past with the patient?

         

        A: Assessment

        Identify the problem at hand and make assessments regarding the patient's disease state.

         

        R: Recommendation

        Outline the next steps and your plan.

        This format is beneficial for verbal communication. It helps the presenter explain the problem at hand and the solution in a time efficient way.
        TITRS T: Title

        Introduction of who you are and your purpose in helping the patient.

         

        I: Introduction

        Present the patient and the problems that the patient needs help with.

         

        T: Text

        State subjective and objective information that is necessary to support any recommendations.

         

        R: Recommendation

        Outline the treatment plan in a clear, complete, and concise manner.

         

        S: Signature

        Include name, title, and phone number.

        This format is beneficial when a brief and concise formal consult is needed to communicate a progress note towards a medical team.

         

        Assess the Urgency of the Response

        While it is critical to provide an appropriate response for the question, doing so in a timely manner is just as critical. Asking the requestor is the simplest way to determine the expected response time. However, many times the requestor isn’t present or cannot be reached, and it is up to the respondent to determine which questions require immediate responses and which may not. Clinically critical topics include

        • Medication safety: does the DI request ask if a certain therapy could cause or have caused harm to the patient?
        • Time sensitivity of the treatment: how important is timeliness to the treatment and disease progression?
        • How much of a concern is the problem to the requestor: does it seem that the requestor needs an immediate response?

         

        Sometimes, respondents don’t know the answer to the question immediately.10,11 Pharmacy staff will never be able to answer every question, but they can handle every question gracefully and provide a complete, accurate answer within a reasonable time. When they don’t know the whole answer, they should answer what they can immediately and tell the respondent that they need to do a little more research to answer the remainder. A PRO TIP is to tell the requestor when to expect an answer (and to be sure to follow through).10-12

         

        Obtain Sufficient Background Information

        In simple words, this step is about getting to know the patient or problem or establishing a strong understanding of the patient’s relevant characteristics by obtaining background information. Since some patients have low health literacy, obtaining this information can be a challenge. However, narrowing the search to only include relevant information and filtering unnecessary information can make the process more efficient. This could be achieved by7

        • Asking targeted questions to patients. For example, instead of asking patients if they take their medication regularly (a closed-ended question that can be answered with yes or no), asking when they last took their medications provides a more precise answer.
        • Identifying avenues that can provide accurate information. For example, instead of asking patients what other medications they take, checking the local profile and/or contacting their community or specialty pharmacist to receive a medication list can be more accurate.
        • Reviewing any available records like medical charts or dispensing records.

         

        Identify Extraneous Information

        Obtaining complete information is important but ensuring that the information is pertinent to the question being asked is just as important.

         

        Many times, DI requests are in-depth and require researching two or more sources before arriving at an answer. While conducting this search, ensure that the sources are relevant to the problem at hand. For example, if a study suggests that a medication is contraindicated in a patient, determine if the patient’s characteristics are similar to the study’s population. Furthermore, extraneous information could come from data gathering as well. For example, a patient may have multiple diseases, but they may not all impact the problem at hand. Making this distinction is important to provide a thorough and accurate answer.7

         

        Answers to Pause and Ponder

        Pharmacist DI request #1: Haloperidol is not an atypical antipsychotic; therefore, it would be eliminated immediately and the remaining atypical antipsychotics would be reviewed as outlined below:

        Screen Request Pertinent patient information: past medical conditions (uncontrolled diabetes, schizophrenia). Medications on tier 1 of patient's formulary: quetiapine, olanzapine, haloperidol, aripiprazole.
        Reformulate Request This is a therapeutics drug information request because the provider is looking for the best medication to treat the patient's schizophrenia without adding any contraindications to the patient's current medication list or concomitant medical conditions.
        Formulate Response The provider made the request in writing, so a written response is most appropriate. The SBAR format would succinctly and effectively convey the message. First, we conducted a Google search and a tertiary source search (PubMed) including the pertinent patient information and request. Our search read "effects of antipsychotics on obesity and diabetes." Through this, we determined that some antipsychotics lead to changes in metabolic activity. Because the patient has diabetes that is exacerbated by weight gain, the best choice is an antipsychotic that does not have a significant effect on the metabolism. After conducting a more thorough primary source search on the metabolic effects of antipsychotics, we found that the best drug would be aripiprazole. Additionally, monitoring the BMI and efficacy would be appropriate.
        Assess Understanding Provide the response in a professional and timely manner. Document the request to display accountability and in case there is a similar question in the future. Follow up with the requestor to access the outcomes and ensure that there are no lingering questions or concerns.

         

        Pharmacist DI request #2:  Off-label use of low-dose (25 to 100 mg) trazodone, a decades-old antidepressant with drowsiness as a side effect, is common.13 In fact, off-label usage for insomnia has surpassed its use for depression.14 The American Academy of Sleep Medicine does not recommend trazodone because of limited supporting data. A 2018 Cochrane review found equivocal evidence supporting its short-term use for insomnia, but little data on long‐term safety and efficacy exists.15 The Beers Criteria doesn’t highlight trazodone as a potentially inappropriate medication in older adults, not because of evidence demonstrating safety, but because of lack of studies demonstrating harm. However, a retrospective cohort study found low-dose trazodone was no safer with respect to fall-related injury risk than benzodiazepines among 15,582 nursing home residents aged 66 years and older. Future studies need to confirm trazodone’s safety with respect to other risks such as dependence, withdrawal, and cognitive impairment.16

         

        Technician DI request #1:

        It would depend on the medication. Some medications, like amoxicillin, are refrigerated to preserve the taste while most others, such as insulin, are refrigerated to preserve the compound. The technician should ask what medication the patient is referring to and then look up the specific storage requirements for that medication. Some places where this information is available include Drugs.com (https://www.drugs.com/medical-answers/drugs-that-require-cold-storage-166784/) and (https://www.iehp.org/en/members/helpful-information-and-resources?target=emergency-safety). If the medication is not listed in these resources or the medication’s stability has possibly been compromised (such as exposure to extreme heat), the technician should consult the pharmacist.

         

        Technician DI request #2:

        It would vary depending on the medication. Some medications have specific coating that needs to stay intact to ensure proper drug delivery, and such medications should not be crushed. Other medications do not have such restrictions and can be crushed, split in half, sprinkled in foods like applesauce, or have a liquid formulation that can be considered as an alternative with a doctor’s approval. The technicians should ask, “What medication is your child taking so that I can look it up?” Information regarding which medications can be crushed can be found in the following website https://pharmacist.therapeuticresearch.com/Content/Segments/PRL/2014/Aug/Meds-That-Should-Not-Be-Crushed-7309. If the medication or the specific dosage form is not available on the list, the technician should ask the pharmacist to review the medication.

         

        Recognize when to ask for additional support or information. While drug information requests can be challenging, involving other healthcare professionals to hear about their experiences with similar clinical situations can offer a new perspective. Some benefits of consulting with experts include formulating a patient-specific answer to the question whereas a study may be irrelevant. When the request requires analysis beyond the scope of a drug information search, it is appropriate to reach out to a professional. While this may take additional time, arriving at the correct answer is more important than to harm the patient unknowingly. And a PRO TIP is that if reaching out will mean you cannot answer the question in the time frame promised, contact the requestor and say you need more time and why.

         

        REFORMULATING THE REQUEST 

        To ensure the core request is clear, the respondent will need to ask many questions, especially if requesters don’t know what question they need to ask. Before starting to research the answer, respondents need to gather information needed from the requestor. In addition, it’s prudent to identify resources the requestor has already consulted (and their reliability in case information needs to be corrected).

         

        Categorize the Request

        Requests can be based on complex patient specific cases, for educational purposes, or geared towards a decision-making process in medication therapy for a specific patient demographic. To fully optimize patient care and provide evidence-based recommendations, it is helpful to ask specific questions and consider all factors pertinent to the specific DI request. Categorizing the request can help stay on track, address all concerns, and point the respondent to the appropriate resources. Table 2 lists common categories and the questions that can clarify the request.

         

        Table 2. Common DI Categories and Related Questions1

        DI Category Related Questions
        Allergy/Cross-reactivity

         

        Does the patient have any documented allergies?

        What caused or is suspected to have caused the allergic reaction?

        When did the patient take the medication, and when did the reaction occur?

        What type of allergic reaction occurred?

        Is this a class or drug specific effect?

        Alternative, or Complementary Medicine

         

        Where did the patient obtain the medication?

        Why is the requestor taking or interested in taking the medication?

        What other medications or treatments are available?

        ADR/Safety

         

        What are the possible side effects?

        What monitoring parameters need to be considered?

        Compatibility (Y-site, syringe, IV)

         

        What solution will medication be used in?

        If applicable, how will the medications be administered?

        Dosage/Route/Administration

         

        What is the route of administration?

        What is the recommended therapeutic dose for pediatrics, adults, and geriatrics?

        How should the medication be taken (with/without food, with water, etc)

        Drug Identification

         

        What was the source of the medication (e.g., domestic or foreign)?

        What is the generic and brand name?

        Where did the medication come from?

        Ingredients/Stability

         

        What physical conditions exist? (Temperature, light protectant, storage duration, diluents)

        Are there IV admixture compatibility/non-admixture stability data available?

        Interactions

         

        What are the possible interactions between:

        ●      Drug-drug

        ●      Drug-food

        ●      Drug-lab

        ●      Drug allergy

        Kinetics

         

        What is the onset/half-life/duration?

        What are the serum levels?

        Is dialysis a consideration?

        What is the medication’s bioavailability?

        Pharmacoeconomics

         

        Are there other competitors on the market?

        Are there cheaper alternatives with the same therapeutic effects?

        What is the AWP pricing?

        Pharmaceutics

         

        What is the drug route of administration and drug dosage?

        What patient factors will affect the drug?

        Age, weight, gender, organ function, current medications

        Pharmacology What factors will affect drug metabolism and bioavailability?
        Pregnancy/Lactation What health conditions does the mother have?

        What medications is the mother currently taking?

        What is the current trimester?

        How long has the mother been taking the medication or expected to take this medication?

        Will the drug be present in breast milk?

        How will the drug affect the infant?

        What is the infant's age?

        What health conditions do the mother and infant have?

        Was the infant a full term or premature delivery?

        Vaccinations

         

        Is the vaccination appropriate for the patient?

        What are some side effects to monitor?

        When should the patient get the vaccination?

        Therapeutics

         

        What is the desired effect?

        Is the goal cure or prophylaxis?

        What previous medications and doses has the patient used?

        Is this medication being used for an FDA approved or off-label use?

        Toxicity

         

        What are possible sequelae?

        What management strategies are available?

        Abbreviations: ADR = adverse drug reaction; AWP = Average Wholesale Price; FDA = Food Drug Administration; IV = Intravenous

         

        Finding Reliable Sources

        Being able to locate sources efficiently and correctly for a DI request is very important. Three main types of sources are available: primary, secondary, and tertiary.

        • A primary source is any original research found in journals. Examples of primary sources are trial results found in the New England Journal of Medicine (NEJM) or similar journals in which researchers use a trial design to answer a specific question. (Note that NEJM and similar journals also publish secondary source materials, too.) This is the strongest Limitations of using this evidence include lack of access to journals that require paid subscriptions and lack of good search skills to find relevant papers.
        • Secondary sources analyze, interpret, present, or restate information from primary sources. Textbooks, books and review articles, commentaries, guidelines, and Medline are examples of secondary sources.
        • Tertiary sources compile information from other sources and organize it. Lexicomp , Micromedex, and DynaMed are common tertiary sources for DI requests as they use information from Food and Drug Administration-approved complete prescribing information (package inserts) and clinical studies. One limitation to be aware of is these sources are not updated rapidly therefore the information could be old and outdated.

         

        Determine the Best Source

        When evaluating DI requests, in most cases the best course of action is to start with tertiary sources, such as textbooks or DI databases, when possible.1 These platforms provide a starting point and often suggest a basic idea for the answer. For many DI requests such as dosage, half-life, or adverse effects, the tertiary resource may provide a sound answer. Requests asking to compare two medications’ efficacy or assess the appropriateness of an uncommon or off-label medication use may require further research. Databases that identify off-label use include Micromedex.  In such cases, a primary source is the best resource. References sections of databases like DynaMed and Micromedex can be a great start for finding appropriate primary sources. Using search engines such as MEDLINE, PubMed or Google Scholar (scholargoogle.com) can provide access to relevant primary literature as well.1 Reviewing two to three sources is good practice for most drug information requests. Respondents must determine the relevance of the studies by evaluating if the trial size was large enough to be statistically reliable, if its findings were clinically significant, and if the patient population is similar to the patient.

         

        Use General Search Engines Appropriately

        Using general search engines like Google, and Microsoft Edge can be an acceptable starting point for a search. A metasearch engine is usually better. A metasearch engine is a platform that aggregates the results from multiple search engines and organizes them based on their relevance. Examples of metasearch engines include Dogpile, ixquick, and Metacrawler which aggregate information from sources like Google and Yahoo as well as videos posted on various platforms.

        Researchers must consider the following factors when determining a source’s credibility17:

        • Is the information’s original source listed and reliable?
        • Does the funding for the site come from a sound source such as a university (.edu), an established patient advocacy organization or a professional society (.org), or a government-funded organization (.gov)?
        • How is the information presented and how is it supported?
        • Who wrote the article on the webpage? Is the author a credible healthcare provider or a journalist writing about a medical topic?
        • Is the information updated and verifiable with other sources?

         

        Table 3 matches types of information and reliable sources to find information.

         

        Table 3. Finding Reliable Sources for Drug Information Requests

        Type of Request Source
        Alternative or Complementary medicine Natural Medicine Comprehensive Database
        ADR/Safety Lexicomp*, UpToDate*, Micromedex*, Package Inserts
        Compatibility FDA-approved prescribing information, Trissel’s Stability of Compounded Formulations*
        Dosage/Route/Administration Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*, Micromedex*, etc.
        Drug Identification Lexicomp* (Drug I.D) Drugs.com, WebMD Pill identifier, RxResouce.org (pill identification tool)
        Ingredients/Stability Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
        Interactions

         

        CYP Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
        HIV HIV Drug Interactions

        Clinicalinfo Drug Database

        Kinetics Complete prescribing information, Lexicomp*
        Pharmacoeconomics Studies published in pharmacoeconomics journals
        Pharmaceutics PubMed* and primary sources
        Pharmacology Lexicomp*, Micromedex* and could require further research with primary sources
        Pregnancy/Lactation LactMed
        Regulatory The Pharmacy Practice Act, Pharmacist's Manual
        Therapeutics Dynamed*, UpToDate*, DiPiro’s textbook
        Toxicity MSDS, PubChem, Micromedex*
        Vaccinations CDC vaccine and immunization schedule, Lexicomp
        Veterinary Information Plumb’s Veterinary Drug Handbook

        *=sources requiring a subscription or payment

        Abbreviations: ADR = Adverse Drug Reactions; CDC = Center for Disease Control and Prevention; CYP = Cytochrome P450; FDA = Food and Drug Administration; MSDS = Material Safety Data Sheet;  HIV = Human immunodeficiency virus

         

        Another relevant option that many healthcare professionals are considering for answering drug information requests is artificial intelligence (AI) platforms such as ChatGPT. While these seem to be able to provide responses that are based on data and research, the issue that users run into is the AI is not able to approach/appraise situations critically. While AI can provide information that may be or seem accurate, it is cannot assess the data that it uses to ensure that it is relevant to the situation or specific patient. Additionally, AI doesn’t cite its sources, meaning that it can be difficult to assess the appropriateness of the source. Last, it is important to realize that AI has sometimes provided wrong answers that could lead to patient harm and therefore need to be checked against reliable sources.

         

        Figure 2 summarizes a typical drug information process.

        Figure 2. The Drug Information Process


        FORMULATE THE RESPONSE 

        Verbal responses tend to be easier for most people than written responses, but respondents should document every request. One simple rule should guide the response: Use principles of clear communication. Clear communication reduces risks of misinterpretation and increases the requestor’s understanding. It optimizes patient care. Clear, concise sentences that are short (fewer than 25 to 32 words) and straightforward create an ideal response.18 It is best to be comprehensive with adequate information and complete sentences that leave no confusion. Each statement should have a clear purpose with no extraneous information or unnecessary words. Respondents must paraphrase important information from accumulated data taken from reliable sources, while avoiding copying and pasting from other outside sources. The response must focus on the audience (the requestor) and the requestor’s background, remembering that different types of professionals have different education and focus.18

         

        Organize and Evaluate Information 

        Organizing information makes research and presentation straightforward and simple for the audience to understand quickly. Templates are available to help keep information organized and formulated, but they have advantages and disadvantages.

         

        • Pros: Templates provide consistency that makes it easier for requesters to follow. (Saving your responses to DI requests is a PRO TIP, discussed in the SIDEBAR) Templates also provide an idea about how the completed presentation will look and reduce the time associated with creating the response. Some organizations provide templates for their employees. Lacking an approved template, respondents can find customizable templates from their workplace or university. Example templates found in the appendices show how useful templates can be. Templates can act as checklists to remember what should be included in a drug information response.
        • Cons: Many templates limit the amount of allowable customization or text, and respondents must be knowledgeable about editing templates. Templates may also limit the approach to the topic and limit the information to standard or predictable fields; this is a problem when the question is unique or unusual. It is important to understand that templates are guides in answering requests and are not restrictions.

         

        Templates that can be used while answering drug information questions have different strengths and limitations. The choice of template can be dependent on the pharmacist’s preference as well as the type of drug information request. We reviewed the templates in the addendum and assessed their utility. Take a minute to look at them. How do your assessments compare to ours?

         

        Template 1 located in Appendix 1:

        Pros: Extensive prompts for what should be included in a drug information response. This format is very detailed which could be useful for less experienced users.

        Cons: Could be too detailed to be used for a wide range of requests. It lacks space, so users will have to use it against a document that they have already created.

         

        Template 2 located in Appendix 2:

        Pros: This format displays the drug information request topic quickly, organizes patient information and the response, and includes references to use for evidence-based literature support. It is broad enough to be used for multiple types of requests. It could be especially helpful for pharmacists who receive a wide variety of requests as it allows them to focus and tailor responses appropriately.

        Cons: Insufficient prompts or guidance responders, making it more suitable for experienced pharmacy staff. This would too broad for beginners or pharmacy students because it does not outline various aspects of drug information responses.

         

        SIDEBAR: Saving FAQs for Future Use: The FAQ File19,20

        Pharmacy staff often notice that they receive the same or similar questions repeatedly. Each time a requestor asks the question, the respondent must answer again. When employees in the pharmacy discuss questions they receive, they may find that although each of them has only answered a specific question once or twice, collectively they are answering the same question often. A frequently asked question (FAQ) file has numerous advantages. It can

        • Save time for everyone including the requestor
        • Standardize the answer so that it is consistent each time staff answer the specific question
        • Provide the answer in clear language
        • Create an answer that technicians and students can give to requestors without asking the pharmacist to intervene
        • Refer requestors to web sites or documents for additional information

         

        To develop a reliable FAQ file, pharmacy staff should take several steps:

        • Identify the questions that are asked frequently.
        • Develop a simple format for all FAQs. Usually, the actual question appears at the top of the documents, with the answer below.
        • Start small and ask one employee to draft the FAQ.
        • Have two or three people review the FAQ, including a pharmacist and at least one or two support personnel. Encourage reviewers to provide constructive criticism. If the FAQ usually comes from a colleague or patient, involve colleagues and patients in the review.
        • A good process for reviewing FAQs is to ask a reviewer to read to a certain point and then stop. The project coordinator should ask, “Can you tell me in your own words what you just read?” If the reviewer explains and the information is incorrect, the project coordinator should not correct the reviewer; rather, the project coordinator should make a note that the section needs work and why.
        • The project reviewer should ask additional, open-ended questions including
          • What’s your general reaction to this draft FAQ?
          • What did you like about this draft FAQ?
          • What did you dislike about this draft FAQ?
          • Is anything in this draft FAQ confusing?
          • What would you do if you got this document?
          • What do you think the writer was trying to do with this document?
          • And here’s a PRO TIP: Often, people will not answer directly because they do not want to appear uneducated or picky. A way to circumvent this issue is to ask, “Thinking of other people you know who might get this document…”
            • What about the document might work well for them?
            • What about the document might cause them problems?
          • Once the FAQ completes the process and is ready for “prime time,” save it in a format that cannot be edited (i.e. a PDF that is locked for editing) and upload it to a shared file or drive where all employees can access the document and print or clip it to an email when needed.

         

        Finally, drugs and drug information change over time. Organizations that use FAQ files must schedule routine review (at least annually and more often if necessary) to ensure that the content in FAQ files remains current and correct.

         

        Proofing and Editing Drafts 

        Proofing and editing written drafts entails first fact-checking the narrative and the sources used, and then reviewing the text to ensure it is clear and professional. The respondent must re-assess and re-evaluate each source and the information gathered. Asking other healthcare professionals who have expertise to contribute to or proofread the draft is smart. Collaborating with colleagues can be beneficial, especially in healthcare. The recent emphasis on interdisciplinary approaches reminds us that healthcare professionals from multiple backgrounds need to collaborate and exchange information more often than not. Colleagues can also help confirm or modify any information, while also giving feedback to learn how to better future drug information requests.

        Once the data is confirmed as accurate, the last step is to double check for spelling and grammar errors and ensure the response is clear and concise. A skilled pharmacy technician is often an exceptional collaborator in this step.

         

        Document, Document, Document

        Documentation is helpful when pharmacy employees have to refer back to that specific topic on a similar drug information question or when colleagues have a similar request in the future. Documenting the response will aid as a reference point and could help clinicians in the future make decisions regarding patient care.21 Documentation will also display accountability and the respondent’s value to the organization and the interdisciplinary team. Many healthcare organizations have policies and procedures for documenting DI requests, and all staff should follow them if they exist.

         

        ASSESS REQUESTOR’S UNDERSTANDING AND SATISFACTION 

        Following up after responding to a DI request is a professional action. The respondent should follow up with the requestor in a timely manner and assess the outcomes. If the requestor is not completely satisfied, the respondent can adjust the answer and recommendations appropriately.7 Follow-up will also reveal if the requestor has implemented the recommendation (and if it worked), provide feedback for potential modifications in future DI requests, and show professionalism and dedication to patient care. A PRO TIP is to document the follow-up and outcomes.

         

        CONCLUSION

        Pharmacy teams have serious responsibilities related to DI requests, which can cover a broad spectrum of topics and specialties. Pharmacists, pharmacy technicians, and pharmacy students should use a methodical approach, followed by documentation. As the ever-changing landscape of healthcare, medicine, and technology continues to advance, the providing drug information will remain an integral part of the pharmacist’s responsibilities.

         

        Table 4 provides additional resources.

         

        Table 4. Additional Resources

        Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests

         

        This resource helps characterize the various types of drug information requests

        https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/pharmacy-practice/resource-centers/preceptor-toolkit/sicp-busy-day-systematic-approach-answering-drug-info-requests.ashx?la=en&hash=7C8B36648FAB999DE761D3AE37BFE48A847B8551
        7 Tips on Improving Communication in Your Pharmacy

         

        This resource provides guidance on how best to speak with patients

        https://www.pbahealth.com/elements/7-tips-on-improving-communication-in-your-pharmacy/
        Formulating an Effective Response: A Structured Approach

         

        This resource provides strategies to answer formulated drug information requests.

        https://accesspharmacy.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=2275&sectionid=177197497 :
        ASHP Guidelines on the Pharmacist’s Role in Providing Drug Information

         

        This resource provides suggestions on how to answer a formulated drug information request.

        https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/policy-guidelines/docs/guidelines/pharmacists-role-providing-drug-information.pdf
        How To Evaluate Health Information on the Internet: Questions and Answers

         

        This resource provides approaches on how to find credible sources to answer drug information requests.

        https://ods.od.nih.gov/HealthInformation/How_To_Evaluate_Health_Information_on_the_Internet_Questions_and_Answers.aspx

         

         

        Templates:

        Requirements checklist for drug information Response1 - UBC Blogs. Accessed July 3, 2023. https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/Requirements-Checklist-for-Drug-Information-Response.pdf.

        Drug Information Request and Response Form.; 2017. Accessed July 3, 2023.

        https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/DIR-Example.pdf

        PHRM Handbook. Accessed July 3, 2023.

        https://blogs.ubc.ca/oeetoolbox/files/2019/01/Drug-Information-Request-and-Response-Fillable-Form-.pdf

        Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

        Pharmacy: Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

        Pharmacists Post-test

        After completing this education activity, pharmacists will be able to
        1) Recognize key elements of a drug information request
        2) Describe a typical process for researching drug information requests
        3) Prioritize information in the final written response
        4) Identify the best language to use based on the inquiring party’s needs

        1. Which of the following describes a good practice in answering complicated drug information requests?
        A. Reviewing at least two sources when looking for answers
        B. Using a couple of metasearch engines (e.g., Dogplie)
        C. Using tertiary sources (e.g., Micromedex, Lexicomp)

        2. A patient approaches the community pharmacy counter asking about experiencing GI upset when taking his daily medications. His medications include metformin, prednisone and lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate targeted question to obtain key information?
        A. Are you taking your medications at the correct times?
        B. How are you taking your medications?
        C. Are you taking your medications with food?

        3. Which of the following are elements of screening a response to correctly identify the key elements in a drug information request?
        A. Setting aside extraneous information to focus on pertinent information
        B. Relying solely on the patient’s recollection of medical information
        C. Asking closed-ended questions to extract targeted information

        4. Which of the following correctly identifies the process of answering a drug information request?
        A. Screen request for pertinent information, reformulate request, formulate response, assess understanding
        B. Assess understanding, reformulate request, screen request for pertinent information, formulate response
        C. Formulate response, reformulate request, access understanding, screen request for pertinent information

        5. A doctor asks how many hours prior to dialysis medication X should be administered to ensure an optimal response. Which category would the question fall under?
        A. ADR inquiry
        B. Therapeutics
        C. Kinetics

        6. If asked a question about the dosing for atorvastatin for a 40-year-old patient recently diagnosed with dyslipidemia, which of the following sources would be the most appropriate place to look for the answer?
        A. Natural medicine comprehensive database
        B. LactMed
        C. Lexicomp

        7. Which of the following correctly pairs the appropriate language and the type of requestor who is asking for information?
        A. Patient: “Possible adverse events include gastrointestinal upset and an increase frequency of bowel movements.”
        B. Provider: “The patient may have a tummy ache and have to go to the bathroom to poop a lot.”
        C. Nurse: “Patients who take this medication may develop some side effects including nausea and diarrhea”

        8. Which of the following statements identifies the purpose of the “assess understanding” step
        A. To gauge requestors’ satisfaction and determine if they implemented the recommendation or need further assistance
        B. To test the requesters health literacy and attempt to match the language you use to the language they understand
        C. To provide new information to requestors so that they have multiple options in case the first answer didn’t resolve their problem

        9. You have been tasked with creating a general drug information template. Which of the following are important aspects to include in your template
        A. Prior medical history; lab values; current medications
        B. Patient’s education; reference authors; siblings’ ages
        C. Patient’s age, financial status, current medications

        10. A patient approaches the pharmacy stating that she left a refrigerated medication on her front porch for more than 24 hours. She asks if it is still safe to use the medication. Which of the following is the most efficient way to answer?
        A. Google the name of the drug and look for a patient or nurse blog site
        B. Look at the package insert for the medication in the pharmacy database
        C. Find two the primary sources for the stability in various temperatures

        Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

        Pharmacy: Motivation to be the Best Drug Information Station

        Pharmacy Technician Post-test

        After completing this education activity, pharmacy technician’s will be able to
        1) Identify questions that are within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice
        2) Recognize tools and resources to use when attempting to answer a drug information question
        3) Complete the steps to completing a drug information request that is within the pharmacy technician’s scope of practice

        1. Which of the following questions would require counseling from a licensed pharmacist?
        A. Do I store this liquid antibiotic at room temperature or refrigerate it?
        B. Is there a less expensive generic or store brand for this product?
        C. What other medications should I avoid taking with this prescription?

        2. A patient approaches the community pharmacy counter asking about experiencing GI upset when taking his daily medications. His medications include metformin, prednisone, and lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate targeted question to obtain key information?
        A. Are you taking your medications at the correct times?
        B. How are you taking your medications?
        C. Are you taking your medications with food?

        3. When can pharmacy technicians answer questions and help customers find specific medications or classes of medications while staying within their scope of practice?
        A. If information is clearly printed on the prescription label, on auxiliary labels, or in an FDA-approved Medication Guide.
        B. If the supervising pharmacist is busy and will not have time to help a customer for at least 15 minutes to an hour.
        C. When the technician does not like the specific customer and would like to see the customer leave as soon as possible

        4. Which of the following correctly identifies the process of answering a drug information request?
        A. Screen request for pertinent information, reformulate request, formulate response, assess understanding
        B. Assess understanding, reformulate request, screen request for pertinent information response, formulate response
        C. Formulate response, reformulate request, access understanding, screen request for pertinent information

        5. A 58-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy counter and tells you she received her Shingrix vaccine two weeks ago and does not remember when she needs to come back for her next Shingrix dose. Where would a pharmacy technician be able to find information about vaccine scheduling to answer the patient’s question?
        A. Trissel’s Stability Compendium
        B. LactMed and lexicomp
        C. CDC Vaccine and Immunization Schedule

        6. According to the traffic-light-rule, what should the pharmacy staff member do after one minute of listening?
        A. Pharmacy staff should let patients continue to talk because it’s unlikely they have disclosed enough information.
        B. Pharmacy staff probably has enough information and should make note of comments or questions.
        C. Pharmacy staff should be comfortable stopping the requestor politely or asking additional questions.

        7. A mother is picking up her son’s antibiotic prescription and asks if there is a specific way that her son should take the medication. Where would you find this information about the route of administration for antibiotics?
        a) PubMed
        b) Pharmacists Manual
        c) Lexicomp

        8. Which of the following statements identifies the purpose of the “assess understanding” step
        A. To gauge requestors’ satisfaction and determine if they implemented the recommendation or need further assistance
        B. To test the requesters health literacy and attempt to match the language you use to the language they understand
        C. To provide new information to requestors so that they have multiple options in case the first answer didn’t resolve their problem

        9. You have been tasked with creating a general drug information template. Which of the following are important aspects to include in your template
        A. Prior medical history; lab values; current medications
        B. Patient’s education; reference authors; siblings’ ages
        C. Patient’s age, financial status, current medications

        10. A patient approaches the pharmacy stating that she left a refrigerated medication on her front porch for more than 24 hours. She asks if it is still safe to use the medication. Which of the following is most efficient way to answer?
        A. Google the name of the drug and look for a patient or nurse blog site
        B. Look at the package insert for the medication in the pharmacy database
        C. Find two the primary sources for the stability in various temperatures

        References

        Full List of References

        References

           
          1. Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests Systematic Approach to Answering Drug Information Requests Step 1: Obtain Background Information. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/pharmacy-practice/resource-centers/preceptor-toolkit/sicp-busy-day-systematic-approach-answering-drug-info-requests.ashx?la=en&hash=7C8B36648FAB999DE761D3AE37BFE48A847B8551
          2. Understanding Your Scope of Practice as a Pharmacy Technician. Career Advice. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.careerstep.com/blog/news/understanding-your-scope-of-practice-as-a-pharmacy-technician/
          3. Foster P. What You Can and Can’t Say to Customers as a Pharmacy Technician. October 28, 2016. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.pennfoster.edu/blog/2016/october/what-you-can-and-can-not-you-say-to-customers-as-a-pharmacy-technician
          4. ASHP Guidelines on the Pharmacist’s Role in Providing Drug Information Background and Rationale. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ashp.org/-/media/assets/policy-guidelines/docs/guidelines/pharmacists-role-providing-drug-information.pdf
          5. Martin SW. Strategies for Answering Your Customers’ Toughest Questions. Harvard Business Review. June 28, 2012. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://hbr.org/2012/06/handling-customers-toughest-qu
          6. Nemko M. How to handle difficult clients. Psychology Today. February 25, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/how-do-life/202102/how-handle-difficult-clients
          7. Malone PM, Witt BA, Malone MJ, Peterson DM. Formulating an Effective Response: A Structured Approach | Drug Information: A Guide for Pharmacists, 6e | AccessPharmacy | McGraw Hill Medical. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://accesspharmacy.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=2275§ionid=177197497
          8. Podder V, Lew V, Ghassemzadeh S. SOAP Notes. Published 2022. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482263
          9. Burgess A, van Diggele C, Roberts C, Mellis C. Teaching clinical handover with ISBAR. BMC Medical Education. 2020;20(2):1-8. doi:https://doi.org/10.1186/s12909-020-02285-0
          https://bmcmededuc.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12909-020-02285-0
          10. Compassionate Geek. IT Customer Service Skills: What To Do When You Don’t Know The Answer To A Customer Question. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://compassionategeek.com/customer-service-skills-when-you-dont-know-the-answer/
          11. Expert Panel Forbes Councils Member. Leaders: Nine Good Ways To Handle A Business Question You Don't Know The Answer To. June 7, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.forbes.com/sites/theyec/2021/06/07/leaders-nine-good-ways-to-handle-a-business-question-you-dont-know-the-answer-to/?sh=39d2b40823ba
          12. Csizmadia A. Oops, I don’t know: How to respond to a customer’s question when you don’t know the answer. September 25, 2018. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.liveagent.com/blog/oops-i-don’t-know-how-to-respond-to-a-customers-question-when-you-don’t-know-the-answer/
          13. Gill LL. Consumer Reports. Should You Take Trazodone for Insomnia? Accessed January 26, 2022. https://www.consumerreports.org/insomnia/trazodone-for-insomnia-should-you-take-a9455377183/
          14. Jaffer KY, Chang T, Vanle B et al. Trazodone for insomnia: a systematic review. Innov Clin Neurosci 2017;14:24-34.
          15. Everitt H, Baldwin DS, Stuart B et al. Antidepressants for insomnia in adults. Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews 2018;5:CD010753.
          16. Bronskill SE, Campitelli MA, Iaboni A et al. Low-dose trazodone, benzodiazepines, and fall-related injuries in nursing homes: a matched-cohort study. J Am Geriatr Soc 2018;66:1963-71.
          17. How To Evaluate Health Information on the Internet: Questions and Answers. ods.od.nih.gov. National Institutes of Health. Published June 24, 2011. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://ods.od.nih.gov/HealthInformation/How_To_Evaluate_Health_Information_on_the_Internet_Questions_and_Answers.aspx
          19. U.S. Department of Health & Human Services. National Institutes of Health Naional Cancer Institute. Making Health Communications Programs Work. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.cancer.gov/publications/health-communication/pink-book.pdf
          18. Clear Writing Assessment. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Accessed match 25, 2023. https://www.cdc.gov/nceh/clearwriting/docs/Clear_Writing_Assessment-508.pdf
          20. JIMDO. How to Write an FAQ Page–with Example. October 21, 2021. Accessed March 25, 2023. https://www.jimdo.com/blog/how-to-write-an-faq-page-with-examples/
          21. 7 Steps to Respond to Drug Information Requests. Pharmacy Times. Accessed August 8, 2023. https://www.pharmacytimes.com/view/7-steps-to-respond-to-drug-information-requests

          The Gall of it All: Gallbladder Disease

          Learning Objectives

            After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
          1. DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion
          2. RECOGNIZE gallbladder disease based on various presentations
          3. EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis
          4. DISCUSS treatment approaches for gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy management
          After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:
          1. DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion
          2.EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis
          3. LIST over-the-counter medications used by patients with gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy
          4. IDENTIFY when to refer patients with questions about gallbladder disease to a pharmacist

          Cartoon image of gallbladder filled with stones

          Release Date:

          Release Date:  June 15, 2023

          Expiration Date: June 15, 2026

          Course Fee

          FREE

          There is no funding for this CPE activity.

          ACPE UANs

          Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-019-H01-P

          Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-019-H01-T

          Session Codes

          Pharmacist:  23YC19-ABC92

          Pharmacy Technician:  23YC19-BCA36

          Accreditation Hours

          2.0 hours of CE

          Accreditation Statements

          The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-019-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

           

          Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

          The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

          Faculty

          Sara L. Tolliday, PharmD
          Pharmacy Team Lead
          Wentworth-Douglass Hospital
          Outpatient Pharmacy
          Dover, NH


           

          Faculty Disclosure

          In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

          Dr. Tolliday has no financial relationships with ineligible companies.

          ABSTRACT

          The gallbladder—a member of the biliary system—is responsible for bile secretion into the digestive tract. It was more useful centuries ago when the human diet was largely carnivorous and high in fat, its role in digestion today is less essential. This makes removal of the organ to treat gallbladder disease (GBD) quite commonplace. Although surgery is first line GBD treatment, pharmacy teams should remain involved in care for patients with this condition. Pharmacy involvement is especially important post-gallbladder removal. This continuing education activity describes the function of the gallbladder, risk factors for and pathogenesis of GBD, treatment approaches for GBD, and how to optimize care for patients with the disease and post-gallbladder removal.

          CONTENT

          Content

          INTRODUCTION

          Gallbladder disease (GBD; see Sidebar: Types of Gallbladder Disease) is the most common surgical emergency, responsible for 600,000 surgeries per year in the United States.1 Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is one of the most common and costly gastrointestinal diseases, affecting more than 20 million Americans annually.2 An estimated 115 of every 100,000 of the world’s population will undergo gallbladder removal surgery every year.3

          GBD is influenced by genetic and environmental factors, diet, physical activity, and nutrition. The healthcare team should encourage patients to incorporate healthy habits into their lifestyles to reduce the risk of GBD. This continuing education activity will discuss GBD pathology, risk factors, treatment, considerations post-cholecystectomy, and the pharmacy team’s role.

           

          GALLBLADDER DISEASE

          The Gallbladder

          The gallbladder is the small pear-shaped organ located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen beneath the liver. It is part of the biliary system, which is a series of ducts in the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas that drain into the small intestine.4 The gallbladder acts as a storage pouch for up to 50 mL of bile, also known as “gall.”5 Gall became a synonym for bile in the Middle Ages and also meant “embittered spirit.”5 In the late 19th century, gall was used to describe a person having boldness or insolence.4

          Bile is a yellowish-brown alkaline surfactant (substance that decreases surface tension) continuously produced by the liver.1,2 It is composed of cholesterol, bilirubin, water, bile salts, phospholipids, and ions. The common bile duct carries bile from the liver to the gallbladder. Fatty foods and proteins released from the stomach into the small intestine stimulate the gallbladder to empty bile into the duodenum via the sphincter of Oddi, which facilitates digestion. Bile salts emulsify lipids in the intestines allowing absorption of dietary fats such as cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins. Unused bile salts return to the gallbladder through the distal ileum and portal circulation.1,2

          The gallbladder was probably more valuable centuries ago.5 Primitive humans were carnivorous hunters; meals were large, few, and far between.5 The gallbladder would have been crucial for digestion of large, high fat meals. The organ wasn’t considered nonessential until the late 1600s, after two Italian doctors discovered that animals could thrive without it.1 This discovery was forgotten until a German physician successfully performed the first cholecystectomy (surgical removal of the gallbladder) in a human in 1878.1,6 Figure 1 describes a brief history of the gallbladder, gallstones, and cholecystectomy beginning in the 15th century.

          Today, the gallbladder assists in digestion of fat-soluble vitamins, proving important even for vegetarians.5 People can still live a healthy life after gallbladder removal; however, the risk of hepatic problems increases due to impaired fat digestion.5

           

          Timeline of gall bladder surgical history from the 1400's to 1992

          Sidebar: Types of Gallbladder Disease2,8

          • Biliary dyskinesia: gallbladder motility disorder caused by scarring or spasm of sphincter of Oddi, the valve that controls the flow of biliary and pancreatic secretions into the duodenum
          • Cholangitis: inflammation of the biliary system
          • Cholecystitis: inflammation of the gallbladder
          • Choledocholithiasis: common bile duct stones
          • Cholelithiasis: gallstones
          • Gallbladder empyma: severe acute cholecystitis, a surgical emergency
          • Gallbladder pancreatitis: inflammation of the pancreas caused by pancreatic duct obstruction by a gallstone
          • Gallbladder perforation: a hole in the gallbladder wall
            • Acute: generalized biliary peritonitis
            • Subacute: acute plus pericholecystic abscess
            • Chronic: cholecystoenteric fistula
          • Gallbladder polyps: overgrowths or lesions in the gallbladder wall

          This continuing education activity will focus on gallstones and their complications, which may include cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, and cholangitis. Cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal) is the treatment mainstay for gallstones and pharmacist intervention is most valuable post-cholecystectomy.

           

          Gallstones and Acute Cholecystitis

          The most common gallbladder disease is gallstones.7 Gallstones commonly form from imbalances in bile constituents and biliary sludge (solids precipitated from bile) caused by slowed gallbladder motility or altered hepatic cholesterol metabolism. Hardened cholesterol or bilirubin become saturated in bile and crystalize, like rock candy, and can lodge in the common bile duct.7 Gallbladder hypomotility leads to delayed emptying, resulting in the formation of biliary sludge and consequently, gallstones.7

          Bilirubin is a substance found in bile resulting from red blood cell breakdown in the liver. It is normally eliminated through the feces. Gallstones caused by bilirubin, or “pigment stones”, are rare and only account for approximately 10% of all gallstones.8 Pigment stones are commonly seen in individuals with blood disorders, such as sickle-cell anemia.8 Approximately 75% of gallstones in Western countries contain cholesterol as their major component.9

          The presence of stones in the gallbladder is called cholelithiasis. Most patients with gallstones are asymptomatic and may not have any attributable symptoms during their lifetime.8 Asymptomatic cholelithiasis does not require treatment as the risk of symptom development is only about 10% at five years.8

          Cholelithiasis becomes acute cholecystitis when gallstones block the cystic duct, causing the gallbladder to become inflamed and patients to become symptomatic. Biliary pain—also known as biliary colic—is the most common symptom of cholecystitis. Epigastric (upper-middle abdomen) pain lasting from 30 minutes to several hours radiates around or through the back and may be accompanied by heartburn, bloating, nausea, and/or vomiting. The sharp, stabbing pain generally follows food intake and peaks after the first hour. It is characteristically steady and is severe enough to interfere with activities of daily living. The pain is not relieved with a bowel movement. Women often describe biliary pain as being worse than childbirth.2,8

          Cholecystitis pain from an acute episode usually subsides over one to five hours as the stone dislodges.3,10 The likelihood that patients experience repeated symptomatic episodes from their gallstones is approximately 38% to 50% annually.8 More than 90% of patients presenting with a single episode of biliary colic have recurrent pain within 10 years.13

          Ultrasound is the best test for diagnosing gallstones and finds most patients with an average of two to 20 stones. The record-setting number of stones was found in England in 1987; a female patient had 23,530 stones removed.5 Computerized tomography (CT) can also be used for diagnosis, but it is less accurate than other imaging methods, detecting approximately 75% of gallstones.2 Providers can also diagnose by the presence of Murphy’s sign, or pain upon inhalation when the inflamed gallbladder meets the examiner’s hand.8 Other diagnostic markers include elevated liver function tests, white cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein.8 Patients presenting with acute cholecystitis may have experienced several bouts of biliary colic before diagnosis.

          Acute cholecystitis diagnosis typically requires admission for pain management and intravenous (IV) fluid rehydration. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) like ketorolac, diclofenac or indomethacin combat inflammation and promote speedy recovery.8 NSAIDS are generally preferred to narcotic analgesics as they are equally effective with fewer adverse effects.2 A study of 324 patients given IV ketorolac or meperidine showed both drugs offered similar pain relief but patients in the NSAID group reported fewer adverse effects.2 Patients receive broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin, cefuroxime) to prevent or treat bacterial infection.8

          Failure to properly treat cholecystitis can lead to severe inflammation, gangrene, sepsis, and life-threatening gallbladder perforation. Cholecystitis can also lead to gallstone pancreatitis if stones in the sphincter of Oddi are not cleared and block the pancreatic duct.2

          Chronic Cholecystitis

          Repeated episodes of cholecystitis or chronic irritation from gallstones can lead to chronic cholecystitis.11 Chronic cholecystitis more often presents with cholelithiasis (calculous) but can also exist without gallstones (acalculous). Symptomatic patients usually present with dull RUQ pain that radiates around the waist to the middle back. Most patients are afebrile.11

          While acute cholecystitis symptoms are sharp and abrupt, chronic cholecystitis symptoms usually develop and worsen over weeks to months.11 Lab values normally elevated in acute disease may not be in chronic disease and therefore cannot be used in diagnosis. Ultrasound of the RUQ is the best diagnostic tool to evaluate the gallbladder for wall thickening and inflammation. Elective cholecystectomy is the preferred treatment for chronic cholecystitis. Patients who are not eligible for or who prefer not to undergo surgery should be closely monitored. A low-fat diet and other lifestyle modifications can help reduce symptom frequency.11

          Pharmacists should recognize the differences between presentations of acute versus chronic cholecystitis and refer patients to the nearest emergency department if symptoms are severe.

          Choledocholithiasis and Cholangitis

          Choledocholithiasis, or common duct stones, are gallstones that have migrated from the gallbladder to the common bile duct via the cystic duct. Approximately 8% to 16% of patients with symptomatic gallstones will also have common bile duct stones.8 Common duct stones can be asymptomatic or may lead to complications such as gallstone pancreatitis or acute cholangitis. Cholangitis is inflammation of the biliary system that causes fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain (Charcot triad).8 Charcot triad becomes Reynolds pentad when hypotension and altered mental state are also present.8 These symptoms develop due to bile stasis and bacterial infection in the biliary tract.

          Cholangitis is most commonly caused by gram-negative (Escherichia coli [25% to 50%], Klebsiella spp. [15% to 20%], Enterobacter spp. [5% to 10%]) intestinal bacteria, and less often by gram-positive bacteria (Enterococcus spp. [10% to 20%]).8 Patients require prompt treatment with IV antibiotics such as a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or ciprofloxacin.8 Pharmaceutical intervention should be followed by stone removal to prevent septicemia (systemic blood infection), which can be fatal.  Most clinicians recommend that common bile duct stones be removed once discovered, even when asymptomatic.8

          Risk Factors

          Several genetic and environmental factors contribute to gallstone development. Patients with first-degree relatives with history of cholelithiasis are at a three times higher risk of gallstones.8 Approximately 60% of patients with acute cholecystitis are female, but the illness is generally more severe in males.2 Women experience a higher prevalence because of estrogen’s effects on cholesterol metabolism.12 Estrogen increases cholesterol synthesis and decreases bile acid production.12 Progesterone in pregnancy decreases gallbladder contractility leading to stasis, making gallstones 10 to 15 times more common in women who have been pregnant.8,12 Women with history of biliary colic, gallstones, and the like should be aware of how hormones may affect their risk for recurrence. This is valuable information for pharmacists to consider and an appropriate place to intervene and educate.

          European and American populations are more likely to develop gallstones, and Black people of African descent are least likely. Prevalence is highest in Native American populations, with 60% incidence in the Pima Indian populace of southern Arizona.8 Table 1 summarizes risk factors for GBD.2,8,13

           

          Table 1. Risk Factors for Developing Gallbladder Disease2,8,14-16
          Demographics

          ·       Ethnicity (American Indians, Chilean and Mexican Hispanics)

          ·       Family history

          ·       Female gender (10:1 female:male)

          ·       Older age

           

          Diet

          ·       High fat, calorie, and refined carbohydrate intake

          ·       Low fiber and unsaturated fat intake

          ·       Total parenteral nutrition

           

          Lifestyle

          ·       Pregnancy and multiple pregnancies

          ·       Persistent fasting or very low-calorie diet

          ·       Rapid weight loss (i.e., bariatric surgery)

          ·       Sedentary

           

          Medications

          ·       Estrogen therapy or oral contraceptives

          ·       Some hypoglycemic medications (GLP-1RAs)

          ·       Chronic use of gastric acid suppressants (H2RAs, PPIs)

          ·       Ketamine abuse

           

          Heath Conditions & Other Factors

          ·       Alcoholic liver cirrhosis

          ·       Dyslipidemia (elevated triglycerides and low HDL)

          ·       Gallbladder motor dysfunction

          ·       Gastrointestinal surgery

          ·       Metabolic syndrome, gallbladder, or intestinal stasis

          ·       Short bowel syndrome

          ·       Type 2 diabetes mellitus

           

          GLP-1RAs, glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists; H2RAs, histamine-2-receptor antagonists; HDL, high-density lipoprotein; PPIs, proton-pump inhibitors.

           

          Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP1) receptor agonists (GLP-1RAs) are notable for their glucose control and cardiovascular risk reduction for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus and more recently, for weight loss. Their link to GBD is controversial as GLP1 inhibits gallbladder motility and delays gallbladder emptying.14 A recent systematic review and meta-analysis of 76 randomized clinical trials shows an association between GLP-1RA use and elevated GBD risk. The risk for gallbladder or biliary diseases were more prominent with higher doses, longer duration, and when used for weight loss.14 Clinicians should discuss the benefits of using these hypoglycemics for type 2 diabetes or weight loss and whether they outweigh the risk for GBD. Pharmacists can educate patients initiating GLP-1RAs about their benefits, risks, and implications with past medical history of or additional risk factors for GBD. Multiple GLP-1RAs are available in varying doses and pharmacists should continue to counsel patients as doses are increased over time.

          Chronic use of gastric acid suppressants may cause cholelithiasis.15 These drugs impact gut microbiome and may slow gallbladder motility leading to delayed gallbladder emptying. A recent prospective cohort of 0.47 million participants found that regular use of proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) and histamine-2-receptor antagonists (H2RAs) resulted in increased cholelithiasis risk.15 Physicians should be aware of this association when prescribing these medications, especially for patients requiring long-term use or those already at high risk for gallstones. Pharmacists should keep these risks in mind when filling prescriptions for their patients on long-term or high-dose H2RAs and PPIs.

          Ketamine abuse has been associated with chronic biliary colic. Ketamine was developed in 1962 as an anesthetic.16 “Street ketamine”, a close analogue of ketamine, is commonly used for its euphoric effects. Ketamine’s onset of action after oral ingestion is about ten minutes and its hallucinogenic effects are short acting, lasting up to two hours. The most common signs of ketamine abuse are hypertension, tachycardia, and abdominal tenderness. Ketamine abuse is also associated with impaired consciousness, dizziness, abdominal pain, and lower urinary tract symptoms.16 Case reports have shown ketamine abusers presenting with severe bladder dysfunction and recurrent episodes of epigastric pain due to a dilated common bile duct not associated with gallstones.16 Clinicians should collect detailed drug histories for patients presenting with recurrent abdominal pain, namely biliary colic.

          Diets characterized by increased caloric intake with highly refined sugars, high fructose, low fiber, high fat, and consumption of fast food increase the risk of gallstone formation.9 Nutrition and lifestyle changes may be beneficial in the prevention of gallstones. Increased physical activity, consuming smaller more frequent meals, and “heart healthy” diets low in cholesterol and fat and high in fiber can reduce risk of cholelithiasis.7 Fat should not be completely cut out of the diet as too little fat can also precipitate gallstone formation.

          Weight loss can reduce gallstone risk, but rapid weight loss achieved by low-calorie diets (less than 800 kcal/day) or bariatric surgery can cause gallstones.2,9 Patients should seek professional advice before starting diets promoting very low caloric or high fat intake to achieve rapid weight loss (i.e., Atkins, ketogenic). Pharmacists should be aware of patients who have recently undergone bariatric surgery or are taking drugs or supplements for weight loss. These patients may be at a higher risk for gallstones, especially those with past medical histories of GBD or abdominal colic symptoms.

          Some foods and medications seem to be associated with a reduced risk of gallstones:

          • Statins alter bile cholesterol and thus affect gallstone formation, suggesting a role in prevention. While the relationship between statins and gallstone formation is conflicting, studies report reduction in symptomatic gallstone disease with statin use.17
          • Ezetimibe, a selective NPC1L1 inhibitor, has been associated with a reduced incidence of cholesterol gallstones in animal studies. The mechanism involves reduced amounts of absorbed cholesterol, decreasing biliary cholesterol saturation, and in turn, reduced rate of cholesterol gallstone formation.12
          • Vitamin C supplementation has been shown to reduce gallstone prevalence. Researchers have studied vitamin C supplementation’s effects in gallstone formation in guinea pigs; those deficient in vitamin C more often develop gallstones. An observational study of a randomly selected population in Germany (n = 2129) showed a positive correlation between regular vitamin C intake and a reduced gallstone incidence.18
          • Coffee consumption may also offer a protective effect against gallstone formation. Studies suggest coffee stimulates cholecystokinin release, enhancing gallbladder contractility, thereby reducing bile cholesterol crystallization. A 2019 observational analysis published in the Journal of Internal Medicine found a 23% decrease in gallstone formation in subjects consuming six or more cups of coffee daily.19
          • A small study conducted in Spain shows that regular consumption of olive oil containing monounsaturated and polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acids may prevent gallstones. Similarly, fish (omega-3 fatty acids) and fish oil may reduce triglycerides and prevent gallstones. A group of participants with hypertriglyceridemia taking fish oil supplements for a seven-week study in the Netherlands experienced improved gallbladder motility and a decrease in triglycerides.10

          TREATING GALLBLADDER DISEASE

          Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is the most common way to identify and remove common duct stones. ERCP is minimally invasive and carries the risk of acute pancreatitis.8 This diagnostic tool may also identify duct strictures at which time stents are placed to reduce obstruction and improve biliary flow.8,10 Timely stent removal (within three to six months) is crucial to prevent occlusion, stent migration, or cholangitis.22 Cholecystectomy is the definitive treatment for symptomatic gallstones and should commence within 48 hours of symptom onset during the acute inflammatory process, before tissue thickening or scarring develops.8,10

          Surgical Intervention: Cholecystectomy

          The first gallstone removal surgery was a coincidence. In the mid-19th century, a physician was performing investigative surgery on a female patient, and when he cut into her gallbladder, several bullet-like objects spilled out.5 The first planned gallbladder removal was performed 15 years later.5 Before the early 1900s, the surgery was performed through an incision in the RUQ (Kocher’s incision, named after Emil Theodor Kocher, a Swiss physician and medical researcher who performed the first successful cholecystectomy in 1878).6,8 This invasive procedure was outmoded a few years after Erich Muhe, a German surgeon, performed the first laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 1985.8 Today, surgeons perform more than 98% of cholecystectomies laparoscopically, over 70% of which are outpatient day surgeries.8

          Cholecystectomy is associated with fewer gallbladder-specific complications and shorter length of hospital stay when surgery is elective or performed as a single emergency visit without previous surgical admissions.3 A population-based cohort study of outcomes following surgery for benign GBD showed poorer outcomes and risk of readmissions with delayed cholecystectomy. Many studies define emergency or early surgical intervention as operations performed within 48 to 72 hours of symptom onset. A study of 14,200 patients in Canada discovered patients experienced fewer complications when surgery was performed within seven days of hospital admission.3 These studies show value in offering emergency surgery over delaying cholecystectomy for patients presenting with benign GBD.3

          Antibiotic prophylaxis is not routinely recommended for low-risk patients undergoing elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy.13 High-risk patients (age older than 60, type 2 diabetes, acute colic within 30 days of surgery, jaundice, acute cholecystitis, or cholangitis) may benefit. Providers should limit prophylaxis to IV cefazolin 1 g as a single dose one hour prior to surgery.13

          Several studies suggest that pain management before or during, and after laparoscopic cholecystectomy can reduce post-operative pain. A 2018 review of 258 randomized control trials recommended a basic analgesia technique: acetaminophen plus an NSAID or cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitor with local anesthetic infiltration.21 Opioids are reserved for breakthrough pain.21

          Patients are generally discharged a few hours after surgery. Surgeons should be on alert for early signs of complications if there is divergence from the usual course of rapid recovery post-op. Extreme pain shortly after surgery may indicate intra-peritoneal leakage of bile or bowel contents.8 Persistent hypotension (low blood pressure) and pain can suggest bleeding. Re-laparoscopy may be necessary to identify and repair these problems and is preferred to diagnostic imaging.8

          Removal of the gallbladder will not cause weight loss/gain or vitamin deficiencies. Patients should be able to tolerate foods they couldn’t before surgery, but providers should advise them to add those foods back into their diet very slowly. Following gallbladder removal, the liver will continue to make bile, but instead of storing it in the gallbladder, it will drain into the stomach and small intestines. Patients might experience three to five days of soreness post-op and are expected to fully heal within four to six weeks.7

          Diarrhea and bloating due to alternation of biliary flow are common short-term occurrences after surgery.22 A small percentage (1% to 2%) of patients will have loose stools each time they eat greasy or high-fat meals.7 A cystic duct remnant is also possible, potentially leading to stone formation, causing Mirizzi syndrome. Mirizzi syndrome is characterized by fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain due to common hepatic duct obstruction caused by compression from the impacted stone in the remnant cystic duct.22 Endoscopic removal of the stone may be adequate. In rarer cases, surgical excision of the remnant duct may be necessary to prevent further complications.22

          Pharmacologic and Other Non-Surgical Interventions

          Nonoperative methods exist for patients unwilling or unable to undergo surgical intervention. Contraindications for laparoscopic cholecystectomy include10,13

          • Absolute: gallbladder cancer (see Sidebar: Gallbladder Cancer), general anesthesia intolerance, giant gallstones, morbid obesity, uncontrolled bleeding disorder
          • Relative: advanced cirrhosis/liver failure, bleeding disorder, peritonitis, previous upper abdominal surgeries, septic shock

          Gallbladder Cancer20

          Gallbladder cancer is a rare malignancy but accounts for almost 50% of biliary cancers. Biliary cancers have a poor five-year survival rate and a high recurrence rate. Factors affecting prognosis are stage at discovery, tumor location, operability, response to chemotherapy, and presence and location of metastases. Early-stage gallbladder cancer may be curable with surgical resection.

           

          Oral bile acid dissolution drugs include ursodeoxycholic acid (ursodiol) and chenodeoxycholic acid (chenodiol).23 Table 2 lists dosing and adverse effects of these medications. Smaller gallstones (0.5 to 1 cm) may be better suited for pharmaceutical intervention but may take up to 24 months to dissolve.2 Ursodiol is preferred over chenodiol due to its safer adverse effect profile. Use-limiting adverse effects of chenodiol include dose-dependent diarrhea, hypercholesterolemia, hepatotoxicity, and leukopenia.2 Recurrence rate is more than 50% and fewer than 10% of patients with symptomatic gallstones are candidates for this treatment.13

           

          Table 2. Oral Bile Acids2,23,24

          Drug Dosage Duration Adverse Effects
          Ursodiol

          (Actigall)

          8-10 mg/kg/day given in 2-3 divided doses Symptom relief after 3-6 weeks, results may take 6-24 months, continue for 3 months after documented dissolution Dyspepsia (>10%), nausea, vomiting, pruritis, headache, diarrhea, dizziness, constipation
          Chenodiol (Chenodal) 250 mg twice daily for 2 weeks, increase dose by 250 mg/day weekly until maximum tolerable dose reached (13-16 mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses) Discontinue if no response by 18 months, safety not established beyond 24 months Dose-dependent diarrhea* (>10%), hypercholesterolemia, leukopenia, increased serum aminotransferase

          * If diarrhea occurs, reduce dose and restart at previous dose when symptoms resolve.

           

          Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is a noninvasive option for symptomatic patients.13 Complications such as biliary pancreatitis and liver hematoma are rare, however stone recurrence is common. Recent studies show this procedure is beneficial for large pancreatic and common bile duct stones with similar pain relief and duct clearance outcomes compared to surgery.13

          The initial approach for pregnant women with symptomatic gallstones is supportive care.13 Meperidine is the choice agent for pain control as NSAIDs are not recommended in pregnancy.13 Chenodiol is contraindicated in pregnancy.24 Ursodiol has been used in pregnant patients for intrahepatic cholestasis; safety and efficacy of use for gallstones has not been studied.13,23 Laparoscopic cholecystectomy, when indicated, is safe in all trimesters.13

          POST-OPERATIVE CONSIDERATIONS AND THE PHARMACY TEAM

          Post-Cholecystectomy Syndrome

          Persistent or delayed onset abdominal pain after laparoscopic cholecystectomy may indicate post-cholecystectomy syndrome (PCS).22 Additional PCS symptoms include fatty food intolerance, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, heartburn, indigestion, flatulence, and jaundice. PCS often occurs in the post-operative period but can present months or years after surgery.22 Cholecystectomy carries a low mortality risk, but approximately 10% of patients undergoing cholecystectomy each year develop PCS.22 The risk increases with urgent surgeries and 20% of patients will develop PCS regardless of choledochotomy (surgical incision of common bile duct).22

          PCS etiologies can be extra-biliary (pancreatitis, pancreatic tumors, hepatitis, esophageal diseases, mesenteric ischemia, diverticulitis, peptic ulcer disease) or biliary (bile salt induced diarrhea, retained calculi, bile leak, biliary strictures, stenosis, sphincter dyskinesia) in nature.22 Pathophysiology is related to alterations in bile flow and bile is the main trigger for patients with gastroduodenal symptoms or diarrhea.

          The likelihood of diarrhea post-cholecystectomy ranges from 2% to 50% according to various studies.25 Diarrhea usually improves or resolves over the course of weeks to months. As discussed, in the gallbladder’s absence, bile flows straight from the liver into the small intestine continuously. This redirection of bile flow can overwhelm the ileum’s capacity for reabsorption, leading to increased bile acids in the colon and subsequently cholerheic diarrhea (also known as bile acid diarrhea).25 Patients may respond to treatment with bile acid sequestrants, including cholestyramine and colestipol.25

          Bile acid sequestrants release chloride and bind bile acid in the intestines, preventing bile acid reabsorption. The drugs do not leave the gastrointestinal tract and are eliminated in the feces. They are indicated for hypercholesterolemia but patients use them off-label for chronic diarrhea due to malabsorption (Table 3). The most common adverse effect of bile acid sequestrants is constipation, which occurs in more than 10% of patients.26,27 Clinicians should instruct patients to drink plenty of fluid and increase dietary fiber. Most adverse effects are gastrointestinal-related (e.g., abdominal pain, flatulence, bloating, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dysphagia), and others include26,27

          • Cholestasis and cholecystitis (with colestipol only)
          • Dental bleeding and caries
          • Diuresis, dysuria, and burnt odor to urine
          • Edema
          • Worsened hemorrhoids

          Bile acid sequestrants bind vitamin K and folate so prescribers should monitor for deficiencies of both. Patients should supplement with folate. Patients may supplement with vitamin K; however preexisting coagulopathy is a contraindication. These drugs should be used with caution in patients with renal insufficiency.26,27

           

          Table 3. Bile Acid Sequestrants26,27

          Drug Dosage Administration
          Cholestyramine

          (Prevalite, Questran)

          2-4 g daily as a single dose or divided, increase by 4 g weekly based on response and tolerability, maximum 24 g/day Mix dose in 60-180 mL of any beverage, soup, or pulpy fruit, should not be sipped or held in mouth for long periods*

           

          Take with meals, administer oral medications ≥1 hour before or 4-6 hours after dose

          Colestipol (Colestid) Granules: 5 g once or twice daily, increase by 5 g in 1-2 month intervals, maintenance dose 5-30 g once daily or in divided doses

           

          Tablets: 2 g once or twice daily, increase by 2 g in 1-2 month intervals, maintenance dose 2-16 g once daily or in divided doses

          Administer other medications ≥1 hour before or 4 hours after dose

           

          Granules: do not administer in dry form to avoid GI distress or accidental inhalation, should be added to at least 90 mL of any beverage, soup, or pulpy fruit

           

          Tablets: administer one at a time; swallow whole; do not cut, crush, or chew

          *May cause tooth discoloration or enamel decay. GI, gastrointestinal.

           

          PCS is a temporary diagnosis until further investigation establishes organic or functional diagnosis.22 Misdiagnosis of preexisting conditions is possible. The healthcare team should order a complete blood count and consider patients re-presenting with ongoing or new-onset abdominal pain post-cholecystectomy for CT scan.8 Presence of gas and fluid in the gallbladder bed may be normal but fluid or gas build-up elsewhere may indicate a bile leak. Elevated liver function tests may also suggest a bile leak or retained common bile duct stone. The most common cause of PCS is the presence of stones in the biliary tree.10 ERCP, both diagnostic and therapeutic, is the most common procedural approach to PCS.22

          Medication: Treatment Goals

          Pharmacologic treatment goals in GBD are to prevent complications and reduce morbidity.22 Administration of bulking agents like psyllium fiber can help patients with symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and/or diarrhea. Psyllium husk (Metamucil, Benefiber) is an over-the-counter (OTC) option for patients looking to increase fiber intake. It is usually used to treat constipation and works by stimulating intestinal contractility, speeding up the movement of stool through the colon.28 Psyllium can also treat diarrhea by soaking up excess water from the intestines, bulking stool, and promoting regularity.28 Psyllium may reduce absorption and effectiveness of many medications; it is important that patients seek pharmacist counseling before initiating a psyllium fiber regimen.

          Antispasmodics (e.g., loperamide) may help patients with IBS symptoms like cramping. Cholestyramine may help symptoms of diarrhea alone. Antacids (Maalox, Mylanta, Tums), H2RAs (e.g., famotidine), and PPIs (e.g., esomeprazole, lansoprazole, omeprazole) can improve gastritis or gastric reflux symptoms by reducing acid production.22 One study showed a correlation between dyspeptic symptoms and gastric bile salt; these patients may benefit from bile acid sequestrants.22 Patients should consult their gastroenterologist for recommended dosing of these drugs, as they may vary depending on clinical presentation and severity of symptoms.

          The Pharmacy Team’s Role

          Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians are integral members of the healthcare team. Pharmacists can educate patients about GBDs, the risk factors for their development, and how to mitigate them with a proper diet and exercise.

          Pharmacy technicians can help by directing patients in the right direction when looking for OTC antacids, fiber supplements, or anti-diarrheal agents. Many patients may not ask questions about OTC products before purchase. Pharmacy technicians are often the patients’ first point of contact in the pharmacy and should ask open-ended questions at the register before or during the transaction.

          Patients should use the products as directed by their gastroenterologists. Pharmacy technicians should refer patient questions relating to administration, dosing, adverse effects, and drug interactions to the pharmacist on duty. Consider possible scenarios that may arise in the pharmacy and how pharmacy technicians and pharmacists should approach them:

          • Mark is a pharmacy technician at XYZ Pharmacy. Jaclyn enters the pharmacy, approaches the pick-up window, and places several OTC items on the counter. She states she would like to pick up a prescription her doctor called in today. Mark retrieves Jaclyn’s prescription and notices it is for omeprazole 40mg. The items on the counter include Tums, famotidine 20mg, docusate sodium 100mg, and lansoprazole 30mg. Mark knows that omeprazole and lansoprazole are in the same drug class. What questions can Mark ask Jaclyn? Should Mark involve the pharmacist?
          • Jaclyn comes back to the pharmacy a week later to pick up a prescription for cholestyramine. She wants to know if she can take this with omeprazole and famotidine. Mark refers Jaclyn’s question to the pharmacist. How should the pharmacist respond to Jaclyn’s question and what counseling points are important to include?

          CONCLUSION

          Gallbladder diseases typically occur secondary to cholelithiasis. Most gallstone cases are asymptomatic, but some develop into symptomatic disease. Factors that may increase GBD risk include gender, age, family history, ethnicity, diet, and medical conditions. Surgical gallbladder removal is the most common treatment, but many nonsurgical alternatives exist when surgery is nonpreferred or contraindicated. Additionally, PCS can occur months to years after surgery and treatment should be directed based on specific diagnosis post-examination. Healthcare providers should collaborate to develop the best procedural and/or pharmaceutical treatment plan as each patient’s clinical presentation and symptoms will vary.

          The pharmacy team should take an active role in GBD management, especially following cholecystectomy. Pharmacy technicians should be weary when patients complain of abdominal pain or attempt to purchase multiple OTC products to treat their symptoms; they should relay specific disease- and drug-related questions to the pharmacist on duty. GBD is a common and highly manageable condition, and patients can live normal and healthy lives once symptoms are properly controlled and treated.

           

           

          Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

          After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
          • DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion
          • RECOGNIZE gallbladder disease based on various presentations
          • EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis
          • DISCUSS treatment approaches for gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy management

          1. How do gallstones form?
          A. Fat soluble vitamin deficiency
          B. Gallbladder hypermotility
          C. Imbalances in bile components

          2. Which of the following are risk factors for GBD?
          A. Female gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes
          B. Female gender; low fat, high calorie, high fiber diet; and rapid weight loss
          C. Male gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes

          3. MB is a 44-year-old female who presents to the emergency department with severe RUQ pain and nausea. She states this is the third time this year that she has presented to the ED with these symptoms. MB is admitted and the hospitalist starts her on IV fluids, acetaminophen, and ketorolac. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?
          A. MB should also receive meperidine to manage her pain
          B. MB should undergo cholecystectomy within 72 hours of admission
          C. MB is at high risk for infection and should be given IV cefazolin for prophylaxis

          4. Gallstone recurrence is common with which of the following?
          A. Oral bile acid dissolution drugs
          B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
          C. Asymptomatic cholelithiasis

          5. Which of the following is FALSE about gallbladder removal surgery?
          A. Patients should have higher tolerability for foods they could not tolerate before surgery
          B. Patients should supplement with fat soluble vitamins post-cholecystectomy
          C. Up to 50% of patients may experience diarrhea following cholecystectomy

          6. Why is diarrhea a common complication post-cholecystectomy?
          A. Overproduction of bile
          B. Vitamin deficiencies
          C. Altered biliary flow

          7. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of oral bile acid dissolution agents?
          A. They can cause vitamin K and folate deficiencies
          B. Chenodiol is preferred in pregnant women due to its safer adverse effect profile
          C. Fewer than 10% of symptomatic patients are candidates for treatment

          8. AP is a 37-year-old female, weighing 80 kg with symptomatic gallstones. She is not a candidate for laparoscopic cholecystectomy due to previous anesthesia intolerance. AP brings a prescription to the pharmacy for ursodiol 250 mg TID. How long will AP most likely need to take this medication?
          A. 3 to 6 weeks
          B. 6 months to 2 years
          C. 1 to 3 years

          9. KM is a 42-year-old female whose gastroenterologist recommends she try psyllium husk twice daily for her chronic diarrhea post-cholecystectomy. She seems confused when you hand her Metamucil because she thought it was used for constipation. What should you tell KM?
          A. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by binding bile acids in the gut and excreting them in the stool
          B. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by soaking up excess water in the intestines to bulk the stool
          C. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by increasing intestinal contractility

          10. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for bile acid sequestrants?
          A. Their most common adverse effects are diarrhea and edema
          B. They are contraindicated in patients with uncontrolled bleeding disorders
          C. Take other oral medications at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after dose

          Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

          After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to
          • DESCRIBE the functions of the gallbladder and how it aids digestion.
          • EXPLAIN gallstone prevalence, risk factors, and pathogenesis.
          • LIST over the counter medications used often by patients with gallbladder disease and post-cholecystectomy.
          • IDENTIFY patient questions that need to be referred to a pharmacist.

          1. How do gallstones form?
          A. Fat soluble vitamin deficiency
          B. Gallbladder hypermotility
          C. Imbalances in bile components

          2. Which of the following are risk factors for GBD?
          A. Female gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes
          B. Female gender; low fat, high calorie, high fiber diet; and rapid weight loss
          C. Male gender; high fat, high calorie, low fiber diet; and type 2 diabetes

          3. Gallstone recurrence is common with which of the following?
          A. Oral bile acid dissolution agents
          B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
          C. Asymptomatic cholelithiasis

          4. Which of the following may reduce the risk of developing gallstones?
          A. Statins
          B. Oral contraceptives
          C. Ketogenic diet

          5. Why was the gallbladder more essential centuries ago?
          A. Humans consumed smaller meals containing less fat
          B. Humans consumed larger meals containing more fat
          C. Humans consumed meals containing more protein

          6. What is cholelithiasis?
          A. Gallstones caused by bilirubin
          B. The presence of stones in the gallbladder
          C. The presence of gallstones in the cystic duct

          7. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of oral bile acid dissolution agents?
          A. They can cause vitamin K and folate deficiencies
          B. Chenodiol is preferred in pregnant women due to its safer adverse effect profile
          C. Fewer than 10% of symptomatic patients are candidates for treatment

          8. How does psyllium husk help patients with diarrhea?
          A. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by binding bile acids in the gut and excreting them in the stool
          B. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by soaking up excess water in the intestines to bulk the stool
          C. Psyllium husk treats diarrhea by increasing intestinal contractility

          9. Which of the following patients should pharmacy technicians refer to a pharmacist?
          A. A patient holding a container of Metamucil and Fibercon fiber capsules and wants to know which contains psyllium
          B. A patient asking for help locating famotidine, which their gastroenterologist recommended for acid indigestion
          C. A patient who has failed several OTC therapies wants to know what to try for persistent diarrhea post-cholecystectomy

          10. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding OTC products for patients with GBD and/or PCS?
          A. Antispasmodics like loperamide may help patients’ gastritis symptoms
          B. Famotidine can relieve gastritis symptoms by reducing acid production
          C. Patients can take an antacid like omeprazole to calm IBS symptoms

          References

          Full List of References

          1. Division of General Surgery. History of Medicine: The Galling Gallbladder. Columbia University Irving Medical Center, New York, NY; 1999-2022. Accessed April 26, 2022. https://columbiasurgery.org/news/2015/06/11/history-medicine-galling-gallbladder
          2. Afamefuna S, Allen SN. Gallbladder disease: Pathophysiology, diagnosis, and treatment. US Pharm.2013;38(3):33-41. https://www.uspharmacist.com/article/gallbladder-disease-pathophysiology-diagnosis-and-treatment
          3. CholeS Study Group, West Midlands Research Collaborative, et al. Population‐based cohort study of outcomes following cholecystectomy for benign gallbladder diseases. [published correction appears in Br J Surg. 2018 Aug;105(9):1222]. Br J Surg. 2016;103(12):1704-1715. doi:10.1002/bjs.10287
          4. Jones MW, Small K, Kashyap S, Deppen JG. Physiology, Gallbladder. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; May 8, 2022.
          5. 5 surprising truths about the gallbladder. Surgical Consultants of Northern Virginia; Reston, VA. 2023. PatientPopInc. Accessed September 21, 2022. https://www.scnv.com/blog/5-surprising-truths-about-the-gallbladder
          6. De U. Evolution of cholecystectomy: A tribute to Carl August Langenbuch. Indian J Surg. 2004;66(2):97-100.
          7. Haelle T. 10 essential facts about your gallbladder. Everyday Health. August 15, 2015. Accessed September 21, 2022. https://www.everydayhealth.com/news/essential-facts-about-your-gallbladder/
          8. Beckingham IJ. Gallstones. Surgery (Oxford). 2020;38(8):453-462. doi:10.1016/j.mpsur.2020.06.002
          9. Di Ciaula A, Garruti G, Frühbeck G, et al. The role of diet in the pathogenesis of cholesterol gallstones. Curr Med Chem. 2019;26(19):3620-3638. doi:10.2174/0929867324666170530080636
          10. Ahmed A, Cheung RC, Keeffe EB. Management of gallstones and their complications. Am Fam Physician. 2000;61(6):1673-1688.
          11. Jones MW, Gnanapandithan K, Panneerselvam D, Ferguson T. Chronic Cholecystitis. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island, FL: StatPearls Publishing; October 24, 2022. Accessed March 29, 2023. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470236/
          12. Di Ciaula A, Portincasa P. Recent advances in understanding and managing cholesterol gallstones. F1000Res. 2018;7:F1000 Faculty Rev-1529. doi:10.12688/f1000research.15505.1
          13. Abraham S, Rivero HG, Erlikh IV, Griffith LF, Kondamudi VK. Surgical and nonsurgical management of gallstones. Am Fam Physician. 2014;89(10):795-802.
          14. He L, Wang J, Ping F, et al. Association of glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist use with risk of gallbladder and biliary diseasesA systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized clinical trialsJAMA Intern Med.2022;182(5):513–519. doi:10.1001/jamainternmed.2022.0338
          15. Yang M, Xia B, Lu Y, et al. Association between regular use of gastric acid suppressants and subsequent risk of cholelithiasis: A prospective cohort study of 0.47 million participants. Front Pharmacol. 2022;12:813587. Published 2022 Jan 28. doi:10.3389/fphar.2021.813587
          16. Al-Nowfal A, Al-Abed YA. Chronic biliary colic associated with ketamine abuse. Int Med Case Rep J. 2016;9:135-137. Published 2016 Jun 2. doi:10.2147/IMCRJ.S100648
          17. Pulkkinen J, Eskelinen M, Kiviniemi V, et al. Effect of statin use on outcome of symptomatic cholelithiasis: a case-control study. BMC Gastroenterol. 2014;14:119. Published 2014 Jul 3. doi:10.1186/1471-230X-14-119
          18. Walcher T, Haenle MM, Kron, M, et al. Vitamin C supplement use may protect against gallstones: An observational study on a randomly selected population. BMC Gastroenterol. 2009;9:74. doi:10.1186/1471-230X-9-74
          19. Nordestgaard AT, Stender S, Nordestgaard BG, et al. Coffee intake protects against symptomatic gallstone disease in the general population: a Mendelian randomization study. J Intern Med. 2020;287(1):42-53. doi:10.1111/joim.12970
          20. Mukkamalla SKR, Kashyap S, Recio-Boiles A, et al. Gallbladder Cancer. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island, FL: StatPearls Publishing; July 10, 2022. Accessed December 20, 2022. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK442002/
          21. Barazanchi AWH, MacFater WS, Rahiri JL, et al. Evidence-based management of pain after laparoscopic cholecystectomy: a PROSPECT review update. Br J Anaesth. 2018;121(4):787-803. doi:10.1016/j.bja.2018.06.023
          22. Zackria R, Lopez RA. Postcholecystectomy Syndrome. In: StatPearls. Treasure Island, FL: StatPearls Publishing; August 29, 2022. Accessed November 21, 2022. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK539902/
          23. Ursodeoxycholic Acid, Ursodiol. Clinical Pharmacology. New York, NY: Elsevier Inc.; 1960. Updated August 6, 2018. Accessed October 25, 2022. Available from: http://www.clinicalkey.com
          24. Chenodiol. Clinical Pharmacology. New York, NY: Elsevier Inc; 1960. Updated September, 29 2015. Accessed October 25, 2022. Available from: http://www.clinicalkey.com
          25. Bonis PA, Lamont JT. Approach to the adult with chronic diarrhea in resource-abundant settings. UpToDate. UpToDate Inc.; 1978-2022. Last Updated May 2, 2022. Accessed November 28, 2022. https://www.uptodate.com/contents/approach-to-the-adult-with-chronic-diarrhea-in-resource-abundant-settings
          26. Cholestyramine Resin. Lexicomp. UpToDate Inc.; 1978-2022. Updated November 25, 2022. Accessed November 29, 2022. Available from: https://online.lexi.com
          27. Colestipol. Lexicomp. UpToDate Inc., 1978-2022. Updated October 22, 2022. Accessed November 29, 2022. Available from: https://online.lexi.com
          28. Sruthi M. What does psyllium husk do? MedicineNet. Updated October 7, 2021. Accessed November 29, 2022. https://www.medicinenet.com/what_does_psyllium_husk_do/article.htm

           

           

          Evidence Based LDL Lowering Options-RECORDED WEBINAR

          The Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium is an educational conference focused on pharmacy practice for pharmacists in many settings.

          This year's sympoisum had an overall topic of Drug Induced Disease from a Patient Safety perspective.  This presentation deals with secondary cancers resulting from primary cancer treatment.

          Learning Objectives

          The activity met the following learning objectives for Pharmacists:
          ·    Describe the role of dietary modification for LDL modification

           

          ·       Identify how some dietary supplement ingredients mimic the mechanisms of action of prescription drugs
          ·       Describe the magnitude of plant sterols and stanols, red yeast rice, silybum M, berberine, cinnamon, green tea extract, and garlic LDL reduction as monotherapy
          ·       Describe the potential for combination therapy to increase the magnitude of benefit
          ·       Compare and contrast with prescription LDL lowering options
          ·  Describe risks of contamination and adulteration with dietary supplements

          Activity Release Dates

          Released:  April 27, 2023
          Expires:  April 27, 2026

          Course Fee

          $17 Pharmacist

          ACPE UAN Codes

           0009-0000-23-010-H01-P

          Session Code

          23RW10-CBA96

          Accreditation Hours

          1.0 hours of CE

          Accreditation Statement

          The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

          Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour  for completing the activity  (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-010-H01-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

          Grant Funding

          There is no grant funding for this activity.

          Faculty

          C. Michael White, PharmD, FCCP, FCP
          Professor and Department Head Pharmacy Practice
          University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy and Director HOPES Research Group
          Storrs, CT

          Faculty Disclosure

          Dr. White is a co-investigator on a project assessing the risk of bias for an anti-bleeding drug, andexanet alfa. This is a bleeding reversal agent and AstraZeneca is funding it. They do not have a lipid reducing product that I am discussing in this presentation or as a competitor to the products I am discussing.  nonetheless.

          Disclaimer

          The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

          Content

          Post Test Pharmacist

          1. Which of the following fats has the worst effects on the LDL to HDL ratio?
          2. Trans fats
          3. Saturated fats
          4. MUFAs

           

          1. Which of the following describes the impact of the Mediterranean diet on patients?
          2. It reduces cardiovascular events significantly and LDL by a large amount
          3. It reduces cardiovascular events significantly and LDL to a modest amount
          4. It reduces the need for lipid lowering therapy by a large amount

           

          1. Which of the following supplements is linked correctly to its likely mechanism of action?
          2. Berberine – Blocks the enzyme HMG CoA Reductase
          3. Red Yeast Rice – Blocks formation of the protein PCSK9
          4. Sterols/Stanols – Block LDL reabsorption and fat absorption

           

          1. Tobias Whale is a 50-year-old super villain in the series Black Lightening. In addition to killing the innocent and extorting small business owners, he also has a poor baseline diet. He requires a 6% reduction in his LDL to reach his goal. Which of the following natural products are MOST LIKELY to get him to goal?
          2. Cinnamon
          3. Green tea
          4. Red Yeast Rice

           

          1. What does a USP or NSF seal on a bottle of Red Yeast Rice tell you?
          2. That the product will reduce your LDL by 30% under normal circumstances
          3. That the product will reduce your risk of ASCVD events
          4. That the specified active ingredient is actually in the pills

           

          “I don’t dig your cig” : Strategies for tobacco cessation-RECORDED WEBINAR

          The Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium is an educational conference focused on pharmacy practice for pharmacists in many settings.

          This year's sympoisum had an overall topic of Drug Induced Disease from a Patient Safety perspective.  This presentation deals with secondary cancers resulting from primary cancer treatment.

          Learning Objectives

          ·  Recall the medicinal uses of tobacco
          ·  Describe the cycle of tobacco addition
          ·  Identify strategies for counseling patients on behavioral techniques recommended for tobacco cessation
          ·   Compare the safety and efficacy of FDA approved pharmacotherapies for tobacco cessation
          ·    Discuss recommendations from national practice guidelines for tobacco cessation and apply them to a patient case

          Activity Release Dates

          Released:  April 27, 2023
          Expires:  April 27, 2026

          Course Fee

          $17 Pharmacist

          ACPE UAN Codes

           0009-0000-23-012-H01-P

          Session Code

          23RW12-VXK92

          Accreditation Hours

          1.0 hours of CE

          Accreditation Statement

          The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

          Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour  for completing the activity  (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-011-H01-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

          Grant Funding

          There is no grant funding for this activity.

          Faculty

          Stefanie Nigro, PharmD, BCACP, CDCES,
          Associate Clinical Professor
          Department of Pharmacy Practice

          University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy
          Storrs, CT

          Faculty Disclosure

          Dr. Nigro has no financial relationship with inelegible companies

          Disclaimer

          The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

          Content

          Post Test Pharmacist

            1. Which patient characteristic supports initiation of combination therapy for smoking cessation?
              1. Age younger than 65 years
              2. Elevated eosinophil levels
              3. Heavy smoker with high dependence

             

            1. When should patients begin varenicline relative to their quit date if they are following an approach with a traditional fixed quit date?
              1. 1 week prior
              2. 3 days prior
              3. The same day

             

            1. Which of the following treatments for smoking cessation requires a dose adjustment for renal impairment?
              1. Nicotine lozenge
              2. Bupropion SR
              3. Varenicline

             

            1. Which of the following combinations is the most effective for smoking cessation?
            2. Combination NRT
            3. Bupropion SR + nicotine patch
            4. Varenicline + nicotine patch

             

            1. Which statement correctly describes the comparative efficacy of first-line smoking cessation monotherapies?
            2. Bupropion SR is more effective than NRT
            3. All NRTs are more effective than varenicline
            4. Varenicline is more effective than NRT or bupropion SR

             

            1. Why can’t women who are younger than 35 who smoke 15 or more cigarettes per day use estrogen containing contraceptives?
            2. A pharmacokinetic drug interaction decreases contraceptive efficacy and increases risk for adverse effects
            3. A pharmacodynamic drug interaction increases risk of venous thromboembolism, myocardial infarction and stroke
            4. A pharmacokinetic drug interaction increases estrogen levels and also magnifies estrogen-like side effects

             

            1. Patients should be counseled to avoid eating or drinking 15 minutes prior to the use of which therapies?
            2. Nicotine lozenge, gum and inhaler
            3. Nicotine lozenge and gum
            4. Nicotine nasal spray, gum and lozenge

             

             

            1. Which of the following smoking cessation therapies does NOT match with the listed side effect?
            2. Nicotine gum and vivid dreams
            3. Nicotine nasal spray and nasal irritation
            4. Bupropion SR and tremor

             

             

            1. Chad is a 55-year-old male patient with a past medical history including diabetes mellitus type 2, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He is currently hospitalized due to a myocardial infarction but is now stable Chad recognizes that quitting smoking is critical to his cardiovascular health and wants to try to quit. Which of the following therapies is a first-line recommendation for Chad to initiate while hospitalized, according to the American College of Cardiology?  

             

            1. Pharmacotherapy is contraindicated 2 weeks post myocardial infarction
            2. Combination therapy with Chantix and NRT
            3. Combination NRT

             

             

            1. Melissa is a 34-year-old female who has smoked two packs per day since she was 19 years old. She comes to the pharmacy and asks if there is a medication that can help her feel ‘readier’ to quit. She does not feel ready to set a quit date but wants to try and work toward this goal. Which of the following medications can Melissa start now with a goal of reducing smoking?
            2. Chantix or NRT
            3. Any of the first-line medications
            4. Bupropion SR

             

             

            Honey: A Sweet Solution?-RECORDED WEBINAR

            The Arthur E. Schwarting Symposium is an educational conference focused on pharmacy practice for pharmacists in many settings.

            This year's sympoisum had an overall topic of Drug Induced Disease from a Patient Safety perspective.  This presentation deals with secondary cancers resulting from primary cancer treatment.

            Learning Objectives

            • Describe Medicinal History of Honey
            • List Composition and Properties of Honey
            • Identify Diseases and Conditions Treated with Honey
            • Recognize Biologic Activities of Honey

            Activity Release Dates

            Released:  April 27, 2023
            Expires:  April 27, 2026

            Course Fee

            $17 Pharmacist

            ACPE UAN Codes

             0009-0000-23-013-H01-P

            Session Code

            23RW13-KVX29

            Accreditation Hours

            1.0 hours of CE

            Accreditation Statement

            The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.

            Pharmacists and Pharmacy Technicians are eligible to participate in this application-based activity and will receive 1.0 CE Hour  for completing the activity  (ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-013-H01-P), passing the quiz with a grade of 70% or better, and completing an online evaluation. Statements of credit are available via the CPE Monitor online system and your participation will be recorded with CPE Monitor within 72 hours of submission.

            Grant Funding

            There is no grant funding for this activity.

            Faculty

            Andrea Hubbard, PhD
            Professor Emeritus
            University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy
            Storrs, CT

            Faculty Disclosure

            Dr. Hubbard has no financial relationship with inelegible companies

            Disclaimer

            The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

            Content

            Post Test Pharmacist

                HONEY: A SWEET SOLUTION? Dr. Andrea K. Hubbard

                 

                Which of the following is correct?

                1. Propolis helps in the maturation of the queen bee.
                2. Royal jelly helps in the development of the king bee.
                3. Honeybees collect nectar and pollen in separate flights.

                 

                How have various people used honey or products of bees for centuries?

                1. Treatment of infected wounds
                2. Element in marriage ritual
                3. Food for livestock

                 

                 

                What component of honey creates its low pH and antimicrobial activity?

                1. Potassium
                2. Dextrose
                3. Gluconic acid

                 

                At what age is it safe to give children honey?

                1. Younger than 1 year of age
                2. Older than 2 years of age
                3. Once they are weaned

                 

                Which of the following apitherapy has the FDA-approved?

                1. Propolis
                2. Royal jelly
                3. Honey

                 

                Which of the following is a function in honey that is associated with hydrogen peroxide and methylglyoxal?

                1. Vitamin
                2. Mineral
                3. Oxidant

                 

                Fill in the blank: Bees lower the water content in honey to _____ through enzymes in their crop, fanning their wings, and keeping their hive at a high temperature.

                1. 25%
                2. 18%
                3. 7%

                 

                Colon on Fire? Novel Suppression of Ulcerative Colitis InFLAMmation

                Learning Objectives

                  After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
                1. Differentiate UC from Crohn’s disease
                2. Describe currently available and novel UC medications under development in the United States
                3. Outline the relationship between the types of treatment for UC, patient characteristics and disease severity
                4. Identify patient education pearls to address inflammation and advance to remission
                After completing this application-based continuing education activity, pharmacy technicians will be able to:
                1. Differentiate UC from Crohn’s disease
                 2. Describe currently available and novel UC medications under development in the United States
                3. Outline the relationship between the types of treatment for UC, patient characteristics and disease severity
                4. List symptoms that a patient with UC may share with a pharmacy technician

                Woman holding her abdomen with a cartoon picture of the large intestine superimposed

                Release Date:

                Release Date:  May 15, 2023

                Expiration Date: May 15, 2026

                Course Fee

                FREE

                This CE was funded by an educational grant from Bristol Meyer Squibb

                ACPE UANs

                Pharmacist: 0009-0000-23-014-H01-P

                Pharmacy Technician: 0009-0000-23-014-H01-T

                Session Codes

                Pharmacist:  23YC14-HTX49

                Pharmacy Technician:  23YC14-XHT82

                Accreditation Hours

                2.0 hours of CE

                Accreditation Statements

                The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education as a provider of continuing pharmacy education.  Statements of credit for the online activity ACPE UAN 0009-0000-23-014-H01-P/T  will be awarded when the post test and evaluation have been completed and passed with a 70% or better. Your CE credits will be uploaded to your CPE monitor profile within 2 weeks of completion of the program.

                 

                Disclosure of Discussions of Off-label and Investigational Drug Use

                The material presented here does not necessarily reflect the views of The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy or its co-sponsor affiliates. These materials may discuss uses and dosages for therapeutic products, processes, procedures and inferred diagnoses that have not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration. A qualified health care professional should be consulted before using any therapeutic product discussed. All readers and continuing education participants should verify all information and data before treating patients or employing any therapies described in this continuing education activity.

                Faculty

                 


                Pamela Sardo, PharmD, BS
                Freelance Medical Writer
                Sardo Solutions
                Josephine, TX

                Faculty Disclosure

                In accordance with the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) Criteria for Quality and Interpretive Guidelines, The University of Connecticut School of Pharmacy requires that faculty disclose any relationship that the faculty may have with commercial entities whose products or services may be mentioned in the activity.

                Dr. Sardo worked for Rhythm Pharma until March 2022.  We identified no potential financial or other conflicts of interest.

                ABSTRACT

                Ulcerative colitis is an idiopathic relapsing/remitting disease that is increasing in incidence and prevalence. It is characterized by inflammation, abdominal cramping, bloody diarrhea, fatigue, and bowel urgency among other symptoms. It often presents in teens and young adults with various degrees of severity and significantly impacts quality of life. Primary treatment objectives include achieving rapid resolution of symptoms, mucosal healing, clinical and endoscopic remission, and improving a patient’s quality of life. In moderate to severe disease, prescribers employ immunosuppressive medications, anti-TNF agents, IL 12/23 antagonists, adhesion molecule inhibitors, JAK inhibitors, and S1P receptor modulators. Two organizations have published joint recommendations regarding these pharmaceuticals’ place in therapy. As more data is published and investigational therapies are approved, the treatment approach will continue to evolve. Ulcerative colitis is incurable, so some patients may require surgery. Optimizing care with a multidisciplinary team, including pharmacy personnel, remains an opportunity in this complex condition.

                CONTENT

                Content

                INTRODUCTION

                Fiery inflammation in the bowel can be due to several conditions. In inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), gastrointestinal (GI) tract inflammation episodes are common. Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC) are two IBDs differentiated by location and bowel involvement.1 That’s a point to remember: that IBD is an umbrella term that includes CD and UC. In 10% to 15% of patients, the features of CD and UC are so similar that it is impossible to differentiate between them and misdiagnosis may result.1,2 Besides the GI tract, both CD and UC also may be accompanied by symptoms outside the intestine, called extraintestinal symptoms.

                 

                DIFFERENTIATING CD AND UC

                CD results in patchy ulceration of any portion of the GI tract (see Figure 1) from the mouth to the anus. It frequently affects the terminal ileum and colon, and bleeding is uncommon. Typically, patients experience pain in the lower right abdomen.3 UC, this continuing education’s primary focus, involves inflammation of the colon mucosa. UC often affects the rectum, referred to as proctitis, and bleeding during bowel movements is common. Typically, patients experience pain in the lower left abdomen. It may extend into the left (sigmoid) part of the pelvis or beyond the sigmoid, or include the entire colon, referred to as pancolitis.4 In UC, inflammation leads to edema, ulcers, bleeding, and electrolyte losses.

                Figure 1. The Gastrointestinal Tract

                Cartoon image showing the entire gastrointestinal tract, from mouth to anus

                UC is a chronic idiopathic relapsing/remitting condition (meaning it waxes and wanes) with interactions between the environment, immune system, gut microbiome, and a genetic predisposition to the disease suspected as causes.UC’s incidence and prevalence is increasing worldwide.6 From 1990 to 2017, its incidence increased from 3.7 million individuals to 6.8 million affected individuals worldwide.7 UC is incurable, so treatment goals aim to achieve rapid resolution of symptoms, mucosal healing, and clinical and endoscopic remission. An additional goal is to improve a patient’s quality of life (QoL).6.

                 

                Individuals with this complex condition have a high level of disability and high healthcare resource utilization. Beyond medical management, 15% to 20% of patients with UC will require surgery. Compared to adults without IBD, adults with IBD experienced $11,029 higher direct costs per patient per year according to one report.8 Documenting this diagnosis in the pharmacy’s profile can help pharmacists and technicians screen for potential problems more efficiently.

                 

                Differentiating the two forms of IBD drives treatment. Both CD and UC present as similar repetitive episodes of GI inflammation and create significant patient burden. In CD, inflammation or ulceration commonly occurs in the ileum and colon.4 Outside of the intestine, CD may affect the esophagus, duodenum, or stomach, and gallstones may occur. In UC, extraintestinal manifestations may appear most commonly as inflammatory arthropathies (joint disease) and bile duct inflammation and scarring, but may include bone, eye, and skin involvement.9,10 Although IBD’s incidence peaks at age 15 to 29 years, 10% to 15% of new diagnoses occur among adults aged 60 years or older.11 Both forms of IBD are more prevalent among non-Hispanic White people than among people in other racial/ethnic groups.12

                 

                PAUSE AND PONDER: What support can you provide to a patient who tells you that wherever they go, their first action is to scan for the closest bathroom?

                 

                UC’S PATHOPHYSIOLOGY AND ASSESSMENT

                 

                The normal colon is five or six feet long and three inches wide. Its layers of circular and longitudinal muscles and tissues contract to move food and liquid forward. It wraps around the outside of the small intestine, has segments, and looks somewhat flat. A seam runs vertically down the middle so the segments bulge on either side of the seam. As UC becomes chronic, the colon becomes more rigid and short, leading to a pipe-like appearance.9

                 

                The most important risk factor for UC is a family history of IBD in a first-degree relative.14 Patients with disease extension to the left side of the colon, or extensive colitis, are more likely to need medication, undergo colectomy (removal of a portion of the colon), and develop colorectal cancer.15  Risk factors for colorectal dysplasia (abnormal that are not cancerous but can sometimes lead to cancer) or cancer include disease duration and extent, active inflammation, presence of a stricture (inelastic narrowing of a section of the GI tract), polyps, and family history of colorectal cancer. The bile duct may also become diseased in 3% to 7% of patients with UC.15,16

                 

                UC’s pathophysiology involves defects in the epithelial barrier, defective immune response, the presence of leukocytes, and microflora imbalance in the colon.17,18 UC’s inflammation deteriorates the epithelium, and exposure to certain intestinal microbes worsens the inflammation.9 Other immune-related factors that affect UC’s pathophysiology and the body’s response include tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), numerous interleukins, and elevated immune globulin levels.17

                 

                Two measures are recognized in UC. Gastroenterologists and researchers tend to use the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and c-reactive protein (CRP) components of the Truelove and Witts criteria. Researchers frequently measure ESR and CRP before and during treatments as outcome measures. The prescribing information for anti-TNFs, JAK inhibitors, and IL-12/23 antagonists also include ESR and CRP measures. Table 1 illustrates UC disease severity measured by assessment in the modified Truelove and Witts criteria.15

                 

                 Table 1. Modified Truelove and Witts Criteria15

                Parameter Mild Moderate Severe
                Bloody stools/day (n) <4 4-6 >6
                Pulse (beats/minute) <90 ≤90 >90
                Temperature (T) °C

                (T°F )

                <37.5

                (<99.5)

                37.5 – 37.8

                (99.5 – 100.4)

                >37.8

                (>100.4)

                Hemoglobin (g/dL) >11.5 11.5 – 10.5 <10.5
                ESR (mm/hr)

                [or CRP mg/l]

                <20 (normal) 20 – 30 (<30) >30 (>30)

                °C=degree Celsius; CRP = c-reactive protein; ESR = erythrocyte sedimentation rate; °F = degree Fahrenheit

                 

                In the clinical setting, the simpler Mayo score (see Table 2) is used more widely than Truelove and Witts criteria.19 It reflects stool frequency, rectal bleeding, a physician’s global assessment, and a measure of mucosal inflammation at endoscopy, with a maximum score of 12. Clinical response in UC is defined as19

                • a reduction of Mayo score by at least 3 points and a decrease of 30% from the baseline score, or
                • a decrease of at least 1 point on the rectal bleeding subscale or
                • a total rectal bleeding score of 0 or 1

                 

                Table 2. Mayo Score for Ulcerative Colitis15,20,19

                  Points
                Mayo Variables 0 1 2 3
                Stool frequency Normal 1-2/day more than normal 3-4/day more than normal 5/day more than normal
                Rectal bleeding None Streaks of blood with stool <50% of the time Obvious blood with stool most of the time Blood passed without stool
                Mucosa (endoscopic subscore) Normal or inactive disease Mild disease (erythema, decreased vascular pattern, mild friability) Moderate disease (marked erythema, lack of vascular pattern, friability, erosions) Severe disease (spontaneous bleeding, ulcerations)
                Physician’s global assessment Normal Mild disease Moderate disease Severe disease

                Mayo score = sum of scores for each of the four variables (maximum score 12)

                 

                 

                Beyond clinical response, clinical remission is a desired objective and is defined as a Mayo score of 2 or less and no individual subscore exceeding 1.19 Mucosal healing is defined as a mucosa subscore of 1 or less. Disease activity is a measure used to decide what treatments to prescribe. Mild disease activity is defined as scores of 3 to 5. Moderate and severe disease activity are defined as scores between 6 and 10 and 11 and 12, respectively.19

                 

                The clinician’s patient assessment must be global (all encompassing).21 During patient interviews, clinicians should inquire about extraintestinal symptoms, which may include joint, mood, ocular, oral, or skin changes. They should order laboratory evaluation for anemia and liver function abnormalities. Clinicians should explore QoL issues, such as impact on school, work, or personal relationships. Treatment plans should incorporate patients’ unmet needs and preferences. Exploring the need for social and emotional support, financial resources, and adequacy of patient education regarding their disease are important.21

                 

                Throughout treatment, it’s important to assess the patient’s clinical response and remission periodically. Clinicians should monitor cross-sectional imaging, specifically MRI, CT and ultrasound, and surrogate markers, such as fecal calprotectin (FCP; type of white blood cell that migrates to inflamed tissue) and CRP.15,22 A sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy is recommended within three to six months of initiating treatment to determine the level of suppression of the inflammation, treatment response, or the need to modify the treatment.22

                 

                THE PATIENT’S JOURNEY

                The journey through symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment to quell the fiery inflammation associated with UC can be long and difficult. In one study, one in four individuals with IBD reported GI symptoms to their primary care physician more than six months before receiving a diagnosis.23 Of these individuals, 10.4% reported symptoms five years before receiving a UC diagnosis. Delayed diagnosis often results in disease progression, worsening tissue, and mucosal damage, surgery, colectomy, or colitis-associated cancer.  Patients with a previous diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome or depression were less likely to receive a timely specialist appointment.23

                 

                UC is vastly heterogeneous. Table 3 presents two cases with distinct disease journeys.

                 

                 

                Table 3. Two Distinct Patient Journeys24,25

                UC Patient Case 1   UC Patient Case 2
                9-year-old girl diagnosed after ileocolonoscopy reveals diffuse moderate inflammation UC since age 18
                Moderate clinical disease activity, Mayo score = 8 Symptoms included bleeding, severe pain and swelling in lower abdomen, gas, and nausea
                Low hemoglobin, low vitamin D Lifestyle: Undergraduate, lifeguard, swim coach
                Oral corticosteroids started followed by dose tapering dose and mesalamine started Daily regimen of oral medication, rectal suppositories, nightly enemas
                At week 4, active disease remained Symptoms worsened so → ED
                IFX started at 10 mg/kg at 0, 2, and 6 weeks Barely able to eat or drink, covered with rash and inflamed eyes
                At 26 weeks with IFX, she remained in clinical remission Incontinence in street, bus, and post office
                At 1 year, she remained in remission Acute diarrhea with each BM → became homebound
                Follow-up flexible sigmoidoscopy demonstrated mucosal healing At age 29, married → then 10 weeks of hospitalization without remission
                  Agreed to surgical colectomy → difficult recovery, diarrhea, and intestinal blockages
                  Finally exercising, back to work, and monitoring the quantity, texture, and timing of food. Remained on pre-surgical medications.

                BM = bowel movement; ED = emergency department; IFX = inFLIXimab

                 

                UC affects many distinct populations. In the pediatric population with UC, unlike in adults, the clinical condition can present atypically with a more severe, early onset and continuous inflammation of the rectum and colon.26,27,28 In these patients, clinicians should assess disease location and severity. One study indicated 62% of pediatric patients with UC from birth to age 5 years had extensive pancolitis, and 38% and 31% from ages 6 to 11 and from ages 12 to 18, respectively, had pancolitis.27   Children can also experience rectal sparing (a normal/unaffected rectum) and limited distal disease.26,28

                 

                To optimize management, enhance QoL, and minimize complications in all patients, continued patient engagement is important.29

                 

                GOALS OF UC MANAGEMENT

                 

                The UC treatment guidelines recommend goals of therapy to include29

                • induction and maintenance of clinical and endoscopic remission
                • maintaining steroid-free remission
                • improving QoL, and
                • preventing complications, hospitalizations and surgery.

                Pursuing these goals can also contribute to minimizing cancer risk.21,30,31 Long-term mucosal healing may reduce the risk of dysplasia.31

                 

                The Treat-To-Target Approach                                                         

                UC is considered relapsing/remitting because it presents as relapses of symptoms and then periods of symptomless response and remission. Beyond symptom remission, a treat-to-target (T2T) approach focuses on32,33

                • minimizing disease activity
                • reducing futures risks and
                • reducing future relapses or complications such as ileal strictures (narrowing), fistulas, functional impairment, or colon cancer.

                 

                In 2015, the Selecting Therapeutic Targets in Inflammatory Bowel Disease (STRIDE) initiative recommended that UC treatment goals should address two targets: clinical and endoscopic outcomes.32 IBD experts recommend using measures of inflammation such as FCP.32  FCP detects GI inflammation sensitively and is used to monitor disease activity and predict relapse.

                 

                PAUSE AND PONDER: Which UC treatments do you see in your practice location most often?

                 

                UC’s treatment options are plentiful and evolving. Pharmacy team members can collaborate with multidisciplinary professionals regarding patient care for UC. (See SIDEBAR). Pharmacists’ drug therapy and disease management expertise can promote individualized treatment decisions for these complex patients.

                 

                 

                SIDEBAR: Working with the Multidisciplinary Team

                Team collaboration can increase patient and provider education, enhance quality of care, and reduce disease burden, and morbidity. Many pharmacists don’t know how to introduce themselves to or work with multidisciplinary teams. Sometimes, team members from other disciplines will call with questions or concerns, and the call opens the door for regular communication. Often, however, pharmacy staff will need to take the initiative and introduce themselves. Here are four tips to working better with the UC care team.

                • Ask patients if they are seeing a nutritionist, primary care provider, gastroenterologist, or behavioral health provider (for stress support). If UC is severe, inquire if they have a surgeon or know their radiologist. Record these providers’ names in the patient record and contact them when questions or concerns arise.
                • Make the patient your ally and be your patient’s ally. When you educate patients well and show them your capabilities, they will report back to their clinicians.
                • When you work with a patient who has UC, let the professional team members know. Sending a quick note to say that, for example, the patient’s adherence was poor and you discussed ways to improve it with the patient sheds light on possible non-response. It also makes clinicians aware that you have skills and you’re not afraid to use them!
                • Don’t be afraid to make team members aware of issues like cost or availability of less expensive options. Often, prescribers have no idea that patients experience sticker shock when they fill their prescriptions.

                 

                TREATMENT

                Medication is a mainstay of treatment for patients with UC. Prescribers may combine, dose-escalate, reduce, or discontinue medications, depending on the patient’s disease severity.

                 

                Traditional Treatments

                When a patient presents with mild to moderate UC, the expert consensus is to start treatment with an oral 5-aminosalicylate (5-ASA; sulfasalazine, mesalamine, and diazo-bonded 5-ASA [the prodrugs, balsalazide and olsalazine, which convert to mesalamine]34) with or without a rectal 5-ASA.34,35 In many cases, rectal dosing improves symptoms; using a suppository, enema, or rectal foam applies the medication exactly where needed. Sulfasalazine, balsalazide, and mesalamine are similarly effective and safe.34 Some patients will respond inadequately and may need to escalate therapy to systemic corticosteroids, immunomodulators (IMM), biologics, or other agents. If symptoms persist, it is important to rule out infection, optimize adherence, increase the oral dose, and add rectal 5-ASA if not yet prescribed.34,35

                 

                Comparative efficacy studies are helpful to clinicians. One technical review of multiple drugs in mild to moderate UC compared rectal 5-ASAs (5-ASA enemas 1 to 4 g/day or 5-ASA suppositories 1g/day) to rectal corticosteroids (hydrocortisone enema 100mg/day, prednisolone enema 25–30 mg/day, budesonide enema 2 mg/day, beclomethasone 3 mg/day or comparable foam) in 13 trials.36 In mild to moderate ulcerative proctosigmoiditis cases treated for two to eight weeks, rectal 5-ASAs were superior to rectal corticosteroids for induction of clinical remission.36

                 

                Table 4 lists the broad categories of medications for mild, moderate, or severe UC and dosing information.

                 

                Table 4. Medications for UC22,37-42

                Category Substance Dosage
                5 – ASA Mesalamine

                 

                 

                Balsalazide

                 

                Olsalazine

                 

                Sulfasalazine

                2 – 4.8 g/day (oral)

                1 – 2 g/day (rectal)

                 

                6.75 g/day (rectal)

                 

                1 g/day (oral)

                 

                2 – 4 g/day

                Corticosteroids Budesonide

                 

                Budesonide MMX

                 

                Prednisone

                 

                Hydrocortisone

                 

                Methylprednisolone

                2 mg/day (rectal)

                 

                9 mg/day (oral)

                 

                0.75 – 1 mg/kg/day

                 

                100 mg IV 4 times/day

                 

                125 mg IV/day

                Thiopurines

                Immunosuppressives

                Azathioprine

                 

                6-mercaptopurine

                2 – 2.5 (max 3) mg/kg/day

                 

                1 – 1.5 mg/kg/day

                Calcineurin inhibitors Cyclosporine

                 

                Tacrolimus

                2 mg/kg/day IV

                 

                0.2 mg/kg/day

                Anti-TNF agents Adalimumab

                 

                 

                 

                Golimumab

                 

                 

                 

                Infliximab

                160 mg wk 0, 80 mg wk 2, 40 mg wk 4, then 40 mg every 2 wks; may ↑ to 40 mg/wk SUBQ

                 

                200 mg wk 0, 100 mg wk 2, 50 mg wk 4, then 50 mg every 4 wks; may ↑ to 100 mg if pt>80 kg SUBQ

                 

                5 mg/kg wk 0, 2, 6, then every 8 wks IV

                Adhesion molecule inhibitors

                (anti-integrin)

                Vedolizumab 300 mg wk 0, 2, 6, then every 8 wks IV
                Janus kinase inhibitor Tofacitinib

                 

                 

                 

                 

                 

                 

                 

                Upadacitinib

                5 – 10 mg/day (oral)

                First 8 wks: 10 mg twice/day

                10 mg twice/day for 8 more wks if partial response

                Then 5 mg twice/day

                or 22 mg XR/day for 8 weeks; then evaluate

                 

                45 mg/day for 8 wks then 15 mg/day (oral)

                Interleukin 12/23 antagonist Ustekinumab 250 mg to 55 kg IV

                390 mg if >55 kg – 85 kg IV

                520 mg if >85 kg IV

                Then 90 mg SUBQ every 8 wks

                Sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulator Ozanimod 0.23 mg days 1-4, 0.46 mg days 5-7, then

                0.92 mg/day (oral)

                G = grams; IV= intravenous; kg=kilogram; mg= milligrams; MMX = Multi-Matrix System technology drug release; SUBQ=subcutaneous; wk= week

                 

                Sulfasalazine

                If sulfasalazine is prescribed, 4 g provides approximately 1.6 g of 5-ASA equivalence.34 Typical doses are 2 tablets 4 times a day.37,43 In some cases, prescribers may initiate therapy with a smaller dose, (e.g., 1 to 2 g daily) to reduce possible GI intolerance and slowly increase as tolerated. They may also try enteric-coated sulfsalazine.37,43 Sulfasalazine is commonly prescribed for individuals with UC and rheumatologic comorbidities.43 Periodic monitoring of complete blood counts (CBC) and liver function tests (LFT) is recommended.

                 

                Sulfasalazine may be poorly tolerated due to adverse effects such as headache, nausea, diarrhea, and rash.43 Additional adverse events with sulfasalazine include folate metabolism interference, male infertility, and rare cutaneous side effects such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Anemia, leukopenia, or thrombocytopenia are also possible. Pneumonitis and hepatitis have been reported.43  Sulfasalazine is contraindicated if a patient has a sulfa allergy. Sulfasalazine tablets are a yellow/orange color; individuals who take it may notice an orange tinge in urine, tears, and sweat that can stain clothing and contact lenses. Auxiliary labels and counseling should emphasize drinking plenty of fluids, taking the drug on an empty stomach, and avoiding antacids.

                 

                Mesalamine and Balsalazide

                Low dose mesalamine may be prescribed initially at less than 2 grams per day(g/d). Some patients need 2 to 3 g/d. Higher doses of 3 g/d or more may be required to induce remission.36 Combining oral and rectal therapy may deliver a higher effective dose of 5-ASA to the involved area and lead to higher rates of induction and maintenance of remission. This approach may avoid escalation to corticosteroids or other agents.36

                 

                Mesalamine and balsalazide are associated with rare idiosyncratic worsening of colitis.22 Rare interstitial nephritis may also occur. The prescribing information recommends periodic renal function monitoring. Olsalazine is generally less well tolerated than either mesalamine or balsalazide. Headache, nausea, diarrhea, leukopenia and hepatitis are possible. 5-ASA treatments should be avoided in pregnancy.22

                 

                Steroids and Other Traditional Treatments

                Corticosteroids, such as budesonide, are generally prescribed for a short duration or for induction of remission.34 Some experts suggest prescribing oral mesalamine, balsalazide or olsalazine over budesonide because hepatic first-pass metabolism lowers budesonide’s systemic activity.34,44 As the patient’s condition improves, withdrawing the steroids and reaching steroid-free remission (SFR) is important. Long-term corticosteroid use may lead to infection, diabetes mellitus, weight gain, insomnia, osteoporosis, or glaucoma.45 Mood changes, cataracts and delayed wound healing are possible.45

                 

                Thiopurines and Cyclosporine

                Thiopurines, including azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine, may improve inflammation in patients with UC. They inhibit the proliferation of lymphocytes and are used to maintain remission. Their dosing is weight-based and their onset of action can be slow, taking up to three months.22 They are often used in combination with biologics. Monitoring for drug interactions is necessary. Allopurinol interactions with thiopurines are especially important because allopurinol inhibits thiopurine metabolism.46 The dose of mercaptopurine or azathioprine may need to be reduced to one-third or one-quarter of the normal dose if allopurinol is also prescribed. Prescribers determine dose reductions based on therapeutic response and toxicity.47

                 

                Even though thiopurines and cyclosporine have been prescribed for many years, remaining aware of their side effects is important. Possible adverse events of thiopurines include nausea, vomiting, fever, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, pancreatitis, and hepatotoxicity. Rare adverse events may include non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Individuals prescribed calcineurin inhibitors, such as cyclosporine, may experience hypertension, nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, infection, lymphoma, or diabetes mellitus.37

                 

                Additional therapies include biologics and newer small molecules (tofacitinib, ozanimod). Before discussing newer therapies, a short review of step-up and step-down approaches is reasonable. If a patient presents with moderate to severe ulcerative colitis, philosophies differ among gastroenterologists regarding beginning with a step-up versus a step-down approach.36,48

                • The step-up approach begins with the traditional therapies mentioned above and followed by biologics and IMM if symptoms persist, if remission is not achieved, and the patient is considered high-risk. Extensive inflammation and the need for repetitive use of corticosteroids are examples of high-risk status.
                • The step-down approach occurs when prescribers begin with a more intensive treatment with biologics and IMM and then step down to the medications mentioned above if patients improve.

                 

                Step Up or Step Down?

                A 2021 study (N = 1891) examined UC’s clinical presentation in the five years before starting biologic therapy. The researchers analyzed patients’ experiences, comorbidities, morbidity, and treatment burden over time. Figure 2 summarizes participants’ health burden, disease progression, medication burden, and increased comorbidities. Across the study period, the need for treatment with oral corticosteroids, 5-ASA, and other non-biologic immunomodulators (IMM) increased progressively. Due to the increasing burden, the researchers supported early use of biologics (a step-down approach) rather than gradual step-up after failing conventional therapies for adult patients with moderate to severe UC.30 

                Figure showing results from the trials mentioned

                 

                Figure 2. Treatment and Health Experience Beginning Five Years Before First Biologic30

                5-ASA = 5-aminosalicylates; ED = emergency department; OC = oral corticosteroids; Pts = patients

                 

                 

                Anti-TNF agents

                 

                Anti-TNF agents are commonly prescribed for moderate to severe UC due to their effectiveness, length of time on the market, and healthcare professional comfort prescribing them.44 The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved many anti-TNFs, but has approved only adalimumab, golimumab, or inFLIXimab for treating UC. Usually, prescribers use anti-TNFs after 5-ASA and corticosteroids in patients with mild to moderate severity and the step-up approach to treatment. Prescribers may prescribe the step-down approach, using biologics earlier, in some cases.38 They often employ concomitant IMM to decrease immunogenicity seen with anti-TNFs.38,47

                 

                Because biologics like anti-TNFs are made with living cells, patients may develop an unintended immune response (immunogenicity) in the form of anti-drug antibodies; if they develop, these antibodies may render the anti-TNF medication less effective. The antibodies may bind to the anti-TNF, interfere with its mechanism of action, reduce the anti-TNF’s serum concentration, increase its clearance, and lead to loss of effectiveness. Antibodies may also occur upon restarting an anti-TNF if a patient starts and stops an anti-TNF over time. It is unknown why some people develop anti-drug antibodies and others do not. The presence of antibodies and reduced response often prompt prescribers to switch the anti-TNF to regain effectiveness, and doing so often works. The addition of an IMM can suppress the antibodies which may reduce the risk of switching therapies or avoiding an anti-TNF dose increase.47

                 

                Pharmacy team members should remain diligent about look-alike, and sound-alike names of the anti-TNF agents and should remember that doses of anti-TNF agents vary by indication.

                 

                SIDEBAR: TECH TALK about Look-alike, Sound-alike medications

                Medications with names that look-alike and/or sound alike are classified as high-alert medications.

                • Know that inFLIXimab had been confused with riTUXximab, so the Institute for Safe Medication Practices recommends using TALL Man lettering.
                • Prevent medication errors between therapies for UC, such as adalimumab and golimumab, ustekinumab and upadacitinib, or vedolizumab and ustekinumab or adalimumab. Segregate the medications in different locations or consider stickers or other alert methods prior to medication dispensing.

                 

                 

                An Anti-integrin

                Integrins are adhesion receptors that mediate cell-to-cell and cell-to-extracellular adhesion. Vedolizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to the α4β7 integrin, blocks the interaction of α4β7 integrin, and inhibits lymphocyte migration into inflamed GI tissue.49 With fewer lymphocytes in the GI tract, vedolizumab helps reduce inflammation and UC symptoms. Vedolizumab can be referred to as a B-anti-integrin and an adhesion molecule inhibitor. Patients with steroid-dependent disease have treatment options, including treatment with thiopurines, anti-TNF agents (may be combined with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine), or vedolizumab.38

                 

                Prescribers and patients may ask about outcomes in clinical trials. A vedolizumab study enrolled patients with an inadequate response or intolerance to IMM therapy (i.e., azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine) and/or an inadequate response, loss of response, or intolerance to an anti-TNF.49 Participants received IV vedolizumab 300 mg or placebo at week 0 and week 2. Concomitant stable dosages of 5-ASA, corticosteroids (prednisone dose of 30 mg/day or less or equivalent), and IMM (azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine) were permitted through week 6. The percentage of patients achieving a clinical response at week 6 was 47%. The researchers also measured remission and found 17% of participants achieved remission at week 6. Those with a clinical response at week 6, or receiving open-label vedolizumab, were invited to enter a 52-week study with every 8-week dosing. At week 52, 42% of participants achieved clinical remission.49

                 

                JAK inhibitors

                 

                Tofacitinib and upadacitinib are referred to as small molecules because their molecular structure is smaller and simpler than the biologics’, which are large three-dimensional structures. The JAK inhibitors are dosed orally and require a loading dose. JAK inhibitors are indicated for adults with moderately to severely active UC who responded inadequately or couldn’t tolerate one or more anti-TNF agents.39 Many individuals are willing to visit an infusion suite for treatment; however, younger patients and those with very busy lifestyles or heavy travel schedules may prefer the small molecule oral drugs for their convenience.

                 

                When prescribing JAK inhibitors, pretreatment screening should include assessment for hepatitis B and tuberculosis. When patients start biologics or JAK inhibitors, their immune response may decrease, increasing risk of certain infections, such as hepatitis B or tuberculosis. If patients have active hepatitis B or tuberculosis, they need treatment to eradicate those infections before beginning biologics or JAK inhibitors. A risk of bacterial, viral, and herpes zoster infections exists, so prescribers must assess vaccination status before treatment. CBC and lipid panel monitoring is recommended. Prescribing tofacitinib in combination with biologics for UC or with potent IMM, such as azathioprine and cyclosporine, is not recommended.40

                 

                 

                IL-12/23 antagonist

                Interleukin 12 (IL-12) and IL-23 are proteins that can cause inflammation. Ustekinumab is a human monoclonal antibody against the shared p40 subunit of IL-12 and IL-23 cytokines. Ustekinumab disrupts inflammation by blocking IL-12/23.41 The FDA has approved this biologic for adults with various forms of psoriasis, CD, and UC. (It is also approved for children 6 and older for various forms of psoriasis.) In UC in adults, it is typically administered as an IV induction dose, followed by subcutaneous maintenance dosing every eight or 12 weeks. Clinicians should screen for hepatitis B and tuberculosis and monitor CBC every six months.41 To minimize the risk of medication errors, pharmacy staff should double-check the prescribed route (IV or subcutaneous). They should also be alert for look-alike, sound-alike issues, to prevent prescription transcribing errors or other confusion between ustekinumab and the JAK inhibitor upadacitinib.

                 

                Research has documented outcomes for this monoclonal antibody, too. A ustekinumab clinical trial assessed efficacy and safety in adults with UC; the primary endpoint was clinical remission at week 8.41 The researchers randomized participants to a single IV dose of ustekinumab of approximately 6 mg/kg, 130 mg (a lower dose than recommended), or placebo at week 0. Enrollment required previous inadequate response to corticosteroids, IMM, or at least one biologic. At week 8, 19% of participants successfully reached clinical remission.41

                 

                S1P Modulator

                Ozanimod is an oral sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor (S1P) modulator indicated for the treatment of moderately to severely active UC in adults.42 It is also approved for relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis, and the pharmacy team may field questions about this medication’s various indications. Ozanimod binds with high affinity to S1P receptors 1 and 5. It blocks lymphocyte trafficking from lymph nodes, reducing the number of lymphocytes in peripheral blood. Ozanimod may transiently decrease heart rate and cause atrioventricular conduction delays, so a low-dose starter titration pack is available. Prescribers should escalate the dosing slowly to avoid rare but significant bradycardia. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, a disabling, sometimes deadly adverse event, is rare but possible. Pharmacy teams should counsel patients regarding the need for effective contraception to prevent pregnancy; patients should use contraceptives for three months after discontinuing ozanimod.42

                 

                An ozanimod clinical trial assessed efficacy and safety using a primary study endpoint of clinical remission at week 10.42 It enrolled adults with moderately to severely active UC if they had an inadequate response, or were intolerant, to specific other treatments. The treatments included oral 5-ASA, corticosteroids, IMM (e.g., 6-mercaptopurine and azathioprine), or a biologic (e.g., anti-TNF and/or vedolizumab). The proportion of patients reaching clinical remission at week 10 was 18% with an ozanimod dose of  0.92 mg once daily. Those achieving a clinical response were invited to be re-randomized to a 52-week study extension. The primary endpoint was the proportion of patients in clinical remission at week 52. The proportion of patients with an ozanimod dose of 0.92 mg once daily with clinical remission at week 52 was 37%.42

                 

                MEDICATIONS IN DEVELOPMENT

                Etrasimod is a once-daily, oral S1P receptor modulator in development for the treatment of UC. Results from the phase 2 OASIS trial and open-label extension study revealed patients with moderately to severely active UC who received etrasimod showed improvements in clinical remission and symptom relief beginning as early as week 2. In the phase 3 ELEVATE UC 52 study, 27% of patients in the etrasimod group achieved clinical remission compared with 7% of patients in the placebo group at 12 weeks.50 Use of etrasimod in UC is not FDA-approved and regulatory authorities have not yet evaluated its safety and efficacy.

                 

                Risankizumab-rzaa is an IL-23 inhibitor that is FDA-approved for psoriasis and Crohn’s disease. It is in development for treatment of individuals with UC. In the INSPIRE trial, 20.3% of participants with intolerance or inadequate response to conventional or advanced therapies (biologics, JAK inhibitors, and S1P receptor modulators) achieved clinical remission at week 12.51 The FDA has not approved risankizumab in UC or evaluated its safety and efficacy.

                 

                Considerations for Medications in Therapy

                Decision-making regarding UC treatment requires consideration of many factors, including

                • disease and inflammation location, severity, and extent
                • comparative effectiveness and long-term safety of available treatments
                • treatment availability
                • product labeling
                • guideline recommendation
                • prior treatment successes or failures
                • cost, and
                • patient preferences

                Since some prescribers may dose escalate to an off-label (higher) dose or off-label shorter dosing interval, pharmacy teams need to remain alert regarding insurance policies that may impact treatment decisions.

                 

                Safety Information

                Each medication’s full prescribing information includes comprehensive safety and efficacy details. The information in this section is not all-inclusive. It’s critical to keep in mind that all UC treatments have limitations. Because most infusions have similar adverse events, Table 5 summarizes select safety information and limitations regarding newer agents used in UC.

                 

                 

                Table 5. Newer Agents: Select Safety Information and Limitations 37,41,42,49,52

                Limitations and Safety Considerations Anti-TNF agents Anti-IL-12/23

                Agents

                JAK Inhibitors Anti-integrin S1PR

                modulator

                Immuno-suppression
                Infection

                (herpes zoster)

                (upper respiratory)

                Venous thrombo-embolism        
                Psoriasis      
                Major CV adverse event      
                Infusion/ injection site reaction  
                Malignancy
                Tuberculosis  
                Worsen CHF        
                Lymphoma

                (if combine with thiopurines)

                   
                Lymphocyte abnormalities        
                Anemia      
                Elevated lipids        
                Headache
                Nausea  
                Fatigue
                Liver function test elevations    
                Contra-indication if post-MI within 6 months, or unstable angina, stroke or TIA        
                Contraindicated if severe untreated sleep apnea        
                PML      

                MI = myocardial infarction; PML = progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy; TIA = transient ischemic attack

                 

                Identifying drug interactions is a key skill for pharmacists. Of note, JAK inhibitors can interact with CYP3A4 inhibitors (e.g., ketoconazole, clarithromycin) and CYP2C19 inhibitors (e.g., fluconazole, omeprazole).40 Drug interactions may be a concern with the use of ozanimod and concurrent IMM, tyramine, antiarrhythmics, beta blockers, or calcium channel blockers.42

                 

                ACG and AGA Guidelines for the Management of Moderate-to-Severe UC

                The American College of Gastroenterology (ACG) and the American Gastroenterological Association (AGA) published comprehensive treatment guidelines and interventions for UC.31,44 Both guidelines cover achieving a response, induction of remission, and maintenance of remission. Select highlights presented below are not all-inclusive.

                 

                For remission induction, ACG recommends the following options31:

                • In moderately active UC, oral budesonide MMX
                • In moderately to severely active UC, oral corticosteroids
                • In moderately to severely active UC, anti-TNF therapy
                • When inFLIXimab is used as induction therapy for patients with moderately to severely active UC, it should include a thiopurine
                • In moderately to severely active UC, or if failed anti-TNF, vedolizumab
                • In moderately to severely active UC, tofacitinib 10 mg orally twice a day for 8 weeks
                • For induction of remission in moderately to severely active UC with previous failure of anti-TNF therapy, tofacitinib

                 

                For maintenance of remission, ACG recommends the following options31:

                • For previously moderately to severely active UC in remission due to corticosteroid induction, thiopurines
                • Continue anti-TNF therapy after anti-TNF induction in patients with previously moderately to severely active UC
                • Continue vedolizumab in previously moderately to severely active UC now in remission after vedolizumab induction
                • Continue tofacitinib in previously moderately to severely active UC now in remission after induction with tofacitinib

                 

                The AGA provides the following recommendations for response and remission44:

                • Current evidence supports use of inFLIXimab, adalimumab, golimumab, vedolizumab, and tofacitinib for remission induction and maintenance in moderate-severe UC
                • Thiopurine monotherapy should not be used for induction of remission but may be considered for remission maintenance
                • Meta-analysis suggests that inFLIXimab and vedolizumab may be preferred first-line therapy in biologic-naïve patients, rather than standard-dose adalimumab or golimumab
                • In patients with prior inFLIXimab exposure, particularly those with primary non-response to induction therapy, vedolizumab or tofacitinib may be preferred over adalimumab or golimumab
                • Combination of a biologic agent with an immunomodulator is more effective than monotherapy with either agent
                • In patients with moderate-severe disease activity, at high risk of colectomy, biologic agents with or without an IMM, or tofacitinib, should be used early rather than gradual step-up therapy after failure of 5-ASA
                • Patients in remission with biologic agents and/or IMM, or tofacitinib, after prior failure of 5-ASA, may discontinue 5-ASA

                 

                PAUSE AND PONDER: What patient support questions may uncover a patient’s adherence challenges?

                 

                Patient Education Pearls for Patient Counseling

                 

                Pharmacy teams have numerous opportunities to provide UC patient education. Because the condition appears differently in affected individuals, conversations should align with the individual patient’s situation. Supportive patient education pearls addressing inflammation and advancing opportunities to remission should be individualized from these topics53:

                • UC’s exact cause is unknown
                • UC affects people differs widely
                • UC is a chronic condition and symptoms wax and wane
                • Medications are available to control UC
                • The number of people with UC has been increasing
                • It can occur at any age and in any racial or ethnic group
                • Symptoms will occur in the intestine and may occur outside of the intestine
                • Ulcers in the intestine lining that bleed may lead to low red blood cell count (anemia)
                • Ask the doctor what tests are needed
                • Diet and nutrition plans differ for each patient
                • Managing stress is important
                • Have supportive friends and family
                • Locate restrooms when outside the home
                • Carry extra underclothes, toilet paper or moist wipes
                • Ask for school or work accommodations

                 

                SIDEBAR: OTC and Alternative Therapies for Patient Discussion34,35,44,54

                 

                Patients with UC may use these OTC products:

                • Patients with UC may eat less, thinking it will decrease diarrhea. However, they need proteins, water, vitamins, and minerals to promote healing. Patients need vitamin D and calcium for bones if reduce their dairy intake.
                • Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) is an antidiarrheal liquid, chewable tablet, and also swallowable tablet. It helps reduce inflammation in the intestinal lining. Remind patients that it darkens stool and the tongue. That darkening is not a medical concern.
                • Simethicone (Gas-X) is an anti-flatulent that helps form gas bubbles in the digestive tract, making them easier to pass and relieving gas pain.
                • Loperamide (Imodium) should be taken with caution. It slows digestion. Occasional use may be effective, but patients should consult healthcare providers if they contemplate ongoing use.
                • If mild disease persists, such as seen with a Mayo score of 1, the AGA guidelines and some advocacy web sites mention curcumin (a phytochemical from turmeric) or suggest adding curcumin and probiotics for some individuals suffering with UC.
                • Patients with severe disease, frequent bleeding, anemia, or abnormal laboratory results may need folic acid. The usual folic acid dose is 1 mg/day. Asparagus, broccoli, and spinach are also foods that contain folate or folic acid.

                Patients who have UC should avoid these OTC products:

                • Patients should consult their healthcare providers whether to avoid aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-flammatories (ibuprofen, naproxen), lactose, sugar substitutes, or preservatives.
                • Patients who take sulfasalazine or mesalamine should not take them with antacids.

                 

                Many institutions, hospitals and healthcare providers have created UC resources. Table 6 lists  examples of supportive options that can be shared with individuals with UC.

                 

                Table 6. Patient and Clinician Resources to Support Individuals with UC

                Resource Contact
                American College of Gastroenterology https://gi.org/topics/ulcerative-colitis/

                ·       Describes symptoms, tests, diagnosis, risks, surgery and treatments

                Cleveland Clinic: Butts and Guts podcast https://my.clevelandclinic.org/podcasts/butts-and-guts

                ·       Covers a wide range of gastrointestinal issues including management and surgery

                ·       Use the search term “ulcerative colitis”

                Crohn’s and Colitis Foundation (CCF)

                 

                Help Center (referrals, insurance info)

                https://www.crohnscolitisfoundation.org/

                info@crohnscolitisfoundation.org

                1-888-MY-GUT-PAIN

                (888-694-8872- extension 8)

                Signs and Symptoms https://www.crohnscolitisfoundation.org/sites/default/files/legacy/assets/pdfs/living-with-ulcerative.pdf

                Spanish Help Center
                https://www.crohnscolitisfoundation.org/es/home

                School Accommodation Suggestions

                https://www.crohnscolitisfoundation.org/justlikeme/living-with-crohns-and-colitis/school/school-accommodations

                Mayo Clinic https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/ulcerative-colitis/symptoms-causes/syc-20353326

                ·       Includes a video and written materials on diagnosis, symptom management, and treatment

                Downloadable Mobile Apps

                ·       Download from the App Store or Google Play

                My IBD Care: tracks symptoms, flares, medical appointments, BMs, medications

                Bathroom Scout: Identifies 1.3 million public toilets

                MyPlate: Monitors calories, the nutrition content of food

                MyColitis: Health tracking of bowel movements, medications, moods, symptoms, tests

                 

                CONCLUSION

                UC is a debilitating chronic IBD that usually requires long-term treatment to control symptoms and prevent disease-related complications. Many treatments are available; however, the effectiveness, safety, and durability of response and remission vary, and careful assessment of these factors must drive a personalized approach to care. Pharmacy teams must recognize that every patient’s disease is different, and results in diverse manifestations. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians are ideally positioned to collaborate with multidisciplinary teams to support strategies tailored to each patient to optimize care and to help patients maintain a positive outlook.

                 

                Many unanswered questions remain about UC. Researchers will continue to evaluate treatment advances and explore disease management opportunities while pharmacy teams encourage patients suffering from UC to have routine doctor visits, adhere to their medication regimen, and maintain a healthy lifestyle.

                 

                 

                 

                 

                Pharmacist Post Test (for viewing only)

                Learning Objectives
                After completing this continuing education activity, pharmacists will be able to
                1. Differentiate UC from Crohn’s disease
                2. Describe currently available and novel UC medications under development in the United States
                3. Outline the relationship between the types of treatment for UC, patient characteristics and disease severity
                4. Identify patient education pearls to address inflammation and advance to remission

                1. Which is true regarding the difference between Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis (UC)?
                a. Crohn’s disease is limited to inflammation of the colon mucosa
                b. Ulcerative colitis can appear anywhere between the mouth and anus
                c. Ulcerative colitis involves inflammation of the colon mucosa

                2. Which is the usual adalimumab starting dose for a newly diagnosed UC patient?
                a. Adalimumab 160 mg at week 0, 80 mg at week 2, 40 mg at week 4
                b. Adalimumab 20 mg at week 0, 40 mg at week 2, 50 mg at week 3
                c. Adalimumab 200mg at week 0, 90 mg at week 2, 60 mg at week 4

                3. Which statement reflects a novel characteristic of ozanimod?
                a. Ozanimod is an IL 12/23 monoclonal antibody
                b. Ozanimod is an oral S1P modulator
                c. Ozanimod is a oral JAK inhibitor

                4. When inducing remission, which statement(s) describe(s) ACG recommended UC treatment, patient characteristics, and disease severity?
                a. In moderately to severely active UC or if failed anti-TNF, a 5-ASA is recommended
                b. In moderately to severely active UC oral corticosteroids may be prescribed
                c. In mild-to-moderate UC, lifestyle changes are usually sufficient to induce remission

                5. Which are patient education pearls to discuss with a patient suffering with UC?
                a. The number of people with UC has been decreasing
                b. Intestinal ulcers that bleed will not lead to anemia
                c. Many medication options are available to control UC

                6. You receive a prescription or order for tofacitinib. Which of the following would be an appropriate dose for a patient who has UC?
                a. 5 mg orally once a week
                b. 5-10 mg orally daily
                c. 10 mg IV every 8 weeks

                7. Which statement contains safety information to be aware of with UC treatments?
                a. Sulfasalazine carries a risk for venous thromboembolism, herpes zoster, and major cardiovascular adverse events
                b. JAK inhibitors may interfere with folate metabolism, affect male fertility, cause rare cutaneous adverse effects
                c. Ustekinumab may cause infections, infusion or injection site reactions and may increase the risk of malignancy

                8. A 22-year-old college student with newly diagnosed UC is experiencing daily blood in the stool, cramping, and had bowel incontinence on the way to the parking lot after class. Multiple options are available to treat this patient. What are the goals of treatment?
                a. To prescribe medication to obtain response in 1 week and remission in 8 days
                b. To induce and maintain clinical and endoscopic remission and quality of life
                c. To use oral medications only (and avoid infusions) because of her youth and lifestyle

                9. A 17-year-old restaurant worker presents with pancolitis. She has no other significant past medical history. She was treated with adalimumab, but the condition is worse with daily blood in the stool, 5 BMs/day, and weight loss of 10 pounds in the past 2 months. She has been reading about UC and is interested in switching to an infusion. Which is a possible IV treatment option?
                a. Prednisone
                b. Vedolizumab
                c. Balsalazide

                10. A 30-year-old newly married patient with UC works as a flight attendant. She has pancolitis and was told she is anemic and today has a fever. She comes to the pharmacy before her doctor’s appointment asking which UC medications are oral. Which product names are options to provide this patient?
                a. Methylprednisolone
                b. Ustekinumab
                c. Ozanimod

                Pharmacy Technician Post Test (for viewing only)

                Pharmacy Technician Learning Objectives
                After completing this continuing education activity, the pharmacy technician will be able to
                1. Differentiate UC from Crohn’s disease
                2. Describe currently available and novel UC medications under development in the United States
                3. Outline the relationship between the types of treatment for UC, patient characteristics and disease severity
                4. List symptoms that a patient with UC may share with a pharmacy technician

                1. Which is true regarding the difference between Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis (UC)?
                a. Crohn’s disease is limited to inflammation of the colon mucosa
                b. Ulcerative colitis can appear anywhere between the mouth and anus
                c. Ulcerative colitis involves inflammation of the colon mucosa

                2. Which is the usual adalimumab starting dose for a newly diagnosed UC patient?
                a. Adalimumab 160 mg at week 0, 80 mg at week 2, 40 mg at week 4
                b. Adalimumab 20 mg at week 0, 40 mg at week 2, 50 mg at week 3
                c. Adalimumab 200mg at week 0, 90 mg at week 2, 60 mg at week 4

                3. Which statement reflects a novel characteristic of ozanimod?
                a. Ozanimod is an IL 12/23 therapeutic
                b. Ozanimod is an oral S1P modulator
                c. Ozanimod is an oral JAK inhibitor

                4. A patient who visits the pharmacy often for medication related to his UC brings a few OTC products to the register. Which of the following might be a problem?
                a. Simethicone
                b. Naproxen
                c. Curcumin

                5. Which symptoms might a new patient suffering with UC reveal to a pharmacy technician?
                a. cold sores, stomach ulcers, 1 BM/day, miss 1 day of work/year
                b. bloody stools, 6 BMs/day, mood changes, had to quit work
                c. 1 BM/day, cold sore, dental pain, perfect work attendance

                6. You receive a prescription or order for tofacitinib. Which of the following would be an appropriate dose for a patient who has UC?
                a. 5 mg orally once a week
                b. 5-10 mg orally daily
                c. 10 mg IV every 8 weeks

                7. Which statement contains safety information to be aware of with UC treatments?
                a. Sulfasalazine carries a risk for venous thromboembolism, herpes zoster, and major cardiovascular adverse events
                b. JAK inhibitors may interfere with folate metabolism, affect male fertility, cause rare cutaneous adverse effects
                c. Ustekinumab may cause infections, infusion or injection site reactions and may increase the risk of malignancy

                8. A 22-year-old college student with newly diagnosed UC is experiencing daily blood in the stool, cramping, and had bowel incontinence on the way to the parking lot after class. Multiple options are available to treat this patient. What are the goals of treatment?
                a. To prescribe medication to obtain response in 1 week and remission in 8 days
                b. To induce and maintain clinical and endoscopic remission and quality of life
                c. To use oral medications only (and avoid infusions) because of her youth and lifestyle

                9. A 17-year-old restaurant worker presents with pancolitis. She has no other significant past medical history. She was treated with adalimumab, but the condition is worse with daily blood in the stool, 5 BMs/day, and weight loss of 10 pounds in the past 2 months. She has been reading about UC and is interested in switching to an infusion. Which is a possible IV treatment option?
                a. Prednisone
                b. Vedolizumab
                c. Balsalazide

                10. A 30-year-old newly married patient with UC works as a flight attendant. She has pancolitis and was told she is anemic and today has a fever. She comes to the pharmacy before her doctor’s appointment asking which UC medications are oral. Which product names are options to provide this patient?
                a. Methylprednisolone
                b. Ustekinumab
                c. Ozanimod

                References

                Full List of References

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